Settlement Agents Regulations 1982 (WA)
Western Australia
Settlement Agents Act 1981
Western Australia
Settlement Agents Act 1981
These regulations may be cited as the
In these regulations, unless the contrary intention appears —
(a) means an activity that relates to a professional development subject that is —
(i) delivered in person, electronically or by audio or audiovisual means; or
(ii) a recording;
and
(b) includes —
(i) a course of study; and
(ii) the successful completion of any assessment required by the activity;
(1) The fees set out in Schedule 1 shall be payable in respect of the matters prescribed in that Schedule.
[(2) deleted]
(1) In this regulation —
(2) The holding fee is payable —
(a) on or before the day that is 60 days after the day on which a licensee ceases to hold a current triennial certificate in respect of their licence; and
(b) subsequently at 3‑year intervals on or before the day in that year that is 30 days after the anniversary of the day on which the licensee pays the holding fee under paragraph (a).
(3) The Commissioner may refund to a licensee —
(a) two‑thirds of the holding fee paid by the licensee if the licensee is granted a triennial certificate less than one year after paying the holding fee; or
(b) one‑third of the holding fee paid by the licensee if the licensee is granted a triennial certificate one year or more, but less than 2 years, after paying the holding fee.
(1) For the purposes of section 41B of the Act, the prescribed educational requirements for a calendar year for a licensee who is an individual are that the licensee complete approved educational activities for the calendar year that —
(a) have a combined point value of at least 6 points; and
(b) include at least 2 activities that relate to 2 of the core professional development subjects for the calendar year.
(2) A licensee is taken to have complied with subregulation (1) for a calendar year if —
(a) both of the following apply —
(i) the licensee’s licence is granted between 1 October and 31 December of the calendar year;
(ii) the licensee completed a prescribed examination for the grant of the licence in the 12 months immediately before the day on which the licence is granted;
or
(b) both of the following apply —
(i) the Commissioner grants the licensee an exemption under regulation 4C from all or part of the educational requirements for the calendar year;
(ii) the licensee complies with the requirements of the exemption.
(3) If a licensee commences an educational activity in a calendar year before the Commissioner’s approval of the activity as an approved educational activity under regulation 4D, the licensee is taken not to have completed the activity for the purposes of subregulation (1).
(1) A licensee (the
applicant ) may apply to the Commissioner for a total or partial exemption from the educational requirements under regulation 4B(1) for a calendar year.(2) The application for the exemption must —
(a) be made in the calendar year to which the application relates; and
(b) set out in sufficient detail —
(i) the exemption applied for, including whether the application is for a total or partial exemption; and
(ii) the basis upon which the exemption is being sought;
and
(c) otherwise be in the approved form.
(3) The Commissioner may grant the applicant the exemption if the Commissioner considers it appropriate to do so.
(4) Without limiting subregulation (3), the Commissioner may grant the applicant the exemption if, during the calendar year to which the application relates, the applicant —
(a) has a disability or is affected by illness or injury; or
(b) has undertaken other educational or professional activities; or
(c) would suffer undue hardship if required to comply with the educational requirements.
(5) The Commissioner may grant the exemption subject to conditions.
(6) The Commissioner must give the applicant a notice in writing setting out —
(a) the Commissioner’s decision on the application; and
(b) if the decision is to grant the exemption —
(i) whether the exemption is a total or partial exemption; and
(ii) if the exemption is a partial exemption — the educational requirements the applicant must comply with; and
(iii) any conditions to which the exemption is subject.
(1) Before 1 January of a calendar year, the Commissioner —
(a) must, by written notice —
(i) approve 4 professional development subjects as core professional development subjects for the year; and
(ii) approve 1 or more educational activities in respect of each core professional development subject for the year;
and
(b) may, by written notice, approve 1 or more educational activities for the year in respect of any other professional development subject.
(2) After 1 January of a calendar year, the Commissioner may, by written notice, approve for the year an educational activity as an approved educational activity for the year in respect of a professional development subject.
(3) The Commissioner must —
(a) approve a point value for undertaking each approved educational activity; and
(b) ensure that the approved educational activities approved under subregulation (1) for each licensee have a combined point value of at least 6 points.
(4) The Commissioner may approve —
(a) an approved educational activity for particular licensees or particular classes of licensees; and
(b) a different point value for an approved CPD activity for particular licensees or particular classes of licensees; and
(c) different core professional development subjects for particular licensees or particular classes of licensees.
(5) A written notice made under this regulation must —
(a) set out the point value for undertaking each activity; and
(b) be published on a website maintained by the Commissioner; and
(c) specify the date on which the notice takes effect (which must not be a date earlier than the day on which the notice is published).
The Commissioner must maintain, on a website maintained by the Commissioner, a list of —
(a) the 4 core professional development subjects for a calendar year; and
(b) approved educational activities for a calendar year, including —
(i) the approved educational activities for licensees for the year; and
(ii) the professional development subject to which each approved educational activity relates, and whether that subject is a core professional development subject; and
(iii) the point value for each approved educational activity for licensees for the year.
(1) In this regulation —
(2) The prescribed examinations for the purposes of Schedule 1 clauses 1(1)(a) and 2(1)(a) to the Act that are required to be passed to qualify for the grant of a licence are the examinations required by a public training provider or a registered training provider to be passed to complete —
(a) an Advanced Diploma of Conveyancing; or
(b) if an application for a licence is made before 1 January 2025 — a Diploma of Conveyancing.
For the purposes of section 43(2)(a) of the Act the information contained in the
For the purposes of the definition of
(a) the class that consists of all banks; and
(b) the class that consists of all societies.
(1) For the purposes of section 49(1) of the Act, a trust account is to be designated in the manner provided for in this regulation.
(2) The designation of a trust account, other than a separate account, is to include —
(a) the description “SA Trust Account”; and
(b) the name of the holder of the triennial certificate, and any business name of that holder, recorded in the register; and
(c) the letters “TC” followed by the triennial certificate number recorded in the register.
(3) The designation of a separate account is to include —
(a) the description “SA Trust Account — IB”; and
(b) the name of the holder of the triennial certificate, and any business name of that holder, recorded in the register; and
(c) the words “in trust for” followed by the name of the person who requested the separate account; and
(d) the letters “TC” followed by the triennial certificate number recorded in the register.
For the purposes of section 49A(4) of the Act, a settlement agent shall only comply with a request for a separate account if the settlement agent is satisfied that —
(a) the amount of moneys paid to the settlement agent exceeds $20 000; or
(b) the transaction in respect of which moneys are paid is not to be settled within 60 days.
(1) For the purposes of section 49B(1) of the Act, interest on the balance of a trust account is to be paid —
(a) at the rate that is 70% of the relevant bank accepted bills rate calculated on a daily basis; and
(b) within 5 working days of the end of each month.
(2) In subregulation (1)(a) —
(For example, the relevant bank accepted bills rate for May is the 30 day bank accepted bills rate for March.)
A receipt given under section 50(1)(a) of the Act shall contain the following information —
(a) the name of the holder of the triennial certificate, and any business name of that holder, recorded in the register; and
(b) a number or letter, or a combination of both, in consecutive order that allows the receipt to be uniquely identified; and
(c) the date on which the money is received; and
(d) the name of the person paying the money; and
(e) the amount of money received; and
(f) a brief description of the purpose of the payment; and
(g) if the receipt is hand‑written, the name of the person receiving the money evidenced by the signature of that person.
(1) A record shall be —
(a) kept in written form; and
(b) kept for a period of not less than 6 years from the date on which the money was received; and
(c) readily accessible.
(2) Where a receipt has been given for money received, a record shall contain the information contained in the receipt and may take the form of a duplicate copy of the receipt.
(3) Where money has been received by electronic transfer, a record shall contain the information specified in regulation 6E(b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) and, for that purpose, the reference in regulation 6E(b) to “receipt” is to be read as a reference to “record”.
The particulars to be recorded, pursuant to section 110(2) of the Act, by the Commissioner —
(a) in the register of licensees are, in respect of each licensee —
(i) the name and address of the licensee;
(ii) where the licensee is a firm, the name and address of each partner constituting the firm and the licence number of each partner in the firm who is licensed;
(iii) where the licensee is a body corporate, the name and address of each director of the licensee and the licence number of each director who is licensed;
(iv) the licence number and the date on which the licence held by the licensee was granted;
(v) any special conditions to which the licence held by the licensee is subject;
(vi) where a claim has been made or sustained against the Account in respect of the licensee, a reference to that claim;
(b) in the register of holders of current triennial certificates are, in respect of each holder —
(i) the name and address of the holder; and
(ii) any business name under which the holder carries on business as a settlement agent; and
(iii) the situation of the registered office of the holder; and
(iv) the situation of every registered branch office of the holder and the name and licence numbers of each branch manager; and
(v) where the holder is a firm, the name and address of each partner constituting the firm and the licence number of each partner in the firm who is licensed; and
(vi) where the holder is a body corporate, the name and address of each director of the holder and the licence number of each director who is licensed; and
(vii) where the holder is a firm or body corporate the name and address of the person in
bona fide control of the business of the holder; and(viii) the licence number and the date on which the licence held by the holder of the certificate was granted; and
(ix) whether the holder is licensed as a real estate settlement agent, business settlement agent or both; and
(x) the certificate number, and the date on which the certificate currently held by the holder was granted or renewed, as the case may be; and
(xi) the policy number of the current certificate of fidelity and professional indemnity insurance held by the holder of the triennial certificate; and
(xii) the name and address of the auditor appointed by the holder; and
(xiii) the amount of any payment made under section 92 of the Act by the holder.
(1) The amount of —
(a) any fees prescribed by these regulations;
[(b) deleted] (c) any costs ordered by a court or tribunal to be paid to the Commissioner upon the determination of any proceedings,
may be sued for and recovered by the Commissioner on behalf of the Crown in any court of competent jurisdiction.
(2) Where, upon the determination of any proceedings, a court or tribunal makes an order for costs in favour of a person other than the Commissioner, the amount of those costs may be sued for by that person and recovered from the person against whom the order is made, in any court of competent jurisdiction.
For the purposes of section 105 of the Act moneys standing to the credit of the Interest Account are to be applied monthly before the end of each month.
A claim against the Fidelity Guarantee Account shall be made in writing and be verified by a statutory declaration made by a person who deposes to the facts therein set out of his own knowledge.
(1) For the purposes of clause 1(2)(a) of Schedule 2 to the Act the forms of offer and acceptance set out in Part A of Schedule 3 are prescribed and, if any of those forms is revised, the current revision of it is prescribed.
(2) For the purposes of clause 1(2)(b) of Schedule 2 to the Act a licensee may draw or prepare a document containing any or all of the requisitions on title set out in Part B of Schedule 3 subject to the condition that the requisitions are only issued in respect of land that is registered under the
Transfer of Land Act 1893 .(3) For the purposes of clause 1(2)(c) of Schedule 2 to the Act the documents set out in Part C of Schedule 3 are prescribed subject to any conditions set out in that Part.
For the purposes of clause 2(fa)
The power of attorney prescribed for the purposes of clause 1(1)(h) of Schedule 2 of the Act is a power of attorney in the form set forth in the Nineteenth Schedule of the
The form of the notice to be given by a person exempted under section 26A or 26B of the Act before arranging or effecting a settlement to which the exemption conferred by that section applies is as set out in Schedule 2.
(1) A person who is in
bona fide control of a business operated under a licence shall not, without the prior approval in writing of the Commissioner, absent himself from that business for more than 4 continuous weeks in any one calendar year.
Penalty: $100.
(2) An application for approval under subregulation (1) shall state whether, in the absence of the person in
bona fide control of the business, that business is to be —(a) closed; or
(b) conducted by another person.
(3) The Commissioner may refuse to grant approval under subregulation (1) —
(a) where the business is to be closed, unless and until the person in
bona fide control of that business has satisfied the Commissioner that at the date of closure he will have carried out all his obligations under the Act or the code of conduct; or(b) where the business is to be conducted by another person, if the Commissioner does not consider that person is suitable to conduct that business.
(4) A person who, pursuant to an approval granted by the Commissioner under this regulation, conducts a business operated under a licence during the absence of the person in
bona fide control of that business does not commit an offence under section 26 of the Act.
(1) An offence under section 65(1) in respect of a contravention or failure to observe a provision of the Act specified in Schedule 5 Part 1 is an offence for which an infringement notice may be issued under Part 2 of the
Criminal Procedure Act 2004 .(2A) An offence under section 120(1) in respect of a contravention or failure to comply with a provision of the Act specified in Schedule 5 Part 2 is an offence for which an infringement notice may be issued under Part 2 of the
Criminal Procedure Act 2004 .(2B) An offence under section 41B of the Act is an offence for which an infringement notice may be issued under the
Criminal Procedure Act 2004 Part 2.(2) The modified penalty specified opposite a provision in Schedule 5 is the modified penalty for a contravention or failure to observe, or comply with, that provision for the purposes of section 5(3) of the
Criminal Procedure Act 2004 .(3) The Commissioner may, in writing, appoint persons or classes of persons to be authorised officers or approved officers for the purposes of Part 2 of the
Criminal Procedure Act 2004 .(4) The Commissioner is to issue to each authorised officer a certificate, badge or identity card identifying the officer as a person authorised to issue infringement notices.
The forms set out in Schedule 6 are prescribed in relation to the matters specified in those forms.
For the purposes of section 43(2)(a) of the Act, during the transitional period as defined in the
(a) the information contained in the
Settlement Agents’ Code of Conduct 1982 Schedule Form 1; or(b) the information contained in the
Settlement Agents Code of Conduct 2016 Schedule 1 Form 1.
(1) In this regulation —
(2) An approval of core professional development subjects, educational activities and points for 2020 made under former regulation 4C is taken, on and from commencement day, to be an approval of core professional development subjects, educational activities and points values made under regulation 4D for 2020.
[r. 4 and 4A]
1. | Grant of licence to an individual (including triennial certificate) (Act s. 27(1)) | 1 060.00 |
2. | Grant of licence to a firm (including triennial certificate) (Act s. 28(1)) | 1 390.00 |
3. | Grant of licence to a body corporate (including triennial certificate) (Act s. 29(1)) | 1 390.00 |
4. | Holding fee (Act s. 30(3a)(b)) | 271.00 |
5. | Renewal of triennial certificate (Act s. 31(2)) | 885.00 |
6. | Issue of duplicate licence or duplicate triennial certificate (Act s. 41A) | 35.00 |
[r. 2]
1. Joint Form of General Conditions
2. Conflicts of interest and disclosures
3. Reconciliation of trust accounts
4. Risk management — Professional indemnity insurance claims
5. Business management practices
6. Communication
7. Customer service skills
8. Disciplinary proceedings
9. Law of contract
10. Managing agency risk
11. Legislation regulating the carrying on of business as a settlement agent in Western Australia
12. Settlement of commercial property
13. Strata title settlements
14. Understanding real estate and settlement documents
15. Valid appointment to act
16. Office of State Revenue rulings and practices
17. Landgate practices and procedures
18. Legislative change affecting conveyancing
19. Community title settlements
WESTERN AUSTRALIA
Take notice that I/We of being a licensed Real Estate and/or Business Agent exempted under section(s) 26A and/or 26B of the above Act may not arrange or effect settlements for reward.
This means that I/We can arrange or effect your settlement free of charge but you will not be entitled to make any claim against the “Settlement Agents Fidelity Guarantee Account” or to the protection of the Settlement Agents Act generally in respect of the settlement.
[Reg. 11]
1. “Contract for Sale of Land by Offer and Acceptance” (1994 revision) incorporating the “1994 Joint Form of General Conditions for the Sale of Land”, as adopted jointly by the Law Society of Western Australia (Inc) and the Real Estate Institute of Western Australia (Inc) and approved by the Settlement Agents Association (Inc) and the Associated Settlement Agents of Western Australia (Inc).
2. “Contract for Sale of Strata Title Property by Offer and Acceptance” incorporating the “1994 Joint Form of General Conditions for the Sale of Land”, as adopted jointly by the Law Society of Western Australia (Inc) and the Real Estate Institute of Western Australia (Inc) and approved by the Settlement Agents Association (Inc) and the Associated Settlement Agents of Western Australia (Inc).
3. “Contract for Sale of Community Title Property by Offer and Acceptance” incorporating the “1994 Joint Form of General Conditions for the Sale of Land”, as adopted jointly by the Law Society of Western Australia (Inc) and the Real Estate Institute of Western Australia (Inc) and approved by the Settlement Agents Association (Inc) and the Associated Settlement Agents of Western Australia (Inc).
1. Is the certificate or certificates of title to the land the subject of any dealing or dealings under the
2. Is the vendor aware of any circumstances which could give rise to a claim to an interest in the land, or any parts of it, by virtue of adverse possession? If so, please provide details.
3. Is the vendor, after due enquiry, aware of any pending or threatened suit relating to the title of the land or any claim to its use generally or for any particular purpose adverse to the title of the vendor? If so, please provide details.
4. Is the vendor aware of any circumstances, including enjoyment or use, which would give rise to claims to rights of way, liens, restrictive covenants, grants of licence or of other rights or easements, public or private, or trusts, affecting the land, not referred to in the certificate or certificates of title to the land? If so, please provide details.
5. Does the vendor have any knowledge of any circumstances which could give rise to a charge against or interest in the land pursuant to any statute including, but not limited to, any of the following Acts:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(f)
(g)
(ga)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
6. Is anybody in occupation of the land under any or any alleged lease or licence? If so, please provide precise details of the terms of any such lease or licence or alleged lease or licence and provide copies of any agreements in respect thereof.
7. Are there any claims by any third parties to a mining lease or licence under the
8. The vendor is to list all applications, transfers, instruments, statutory declarations, discharges of mortgages, withdrawals of caveats or other documents to be tendered at settlement in order for the purchaser to become registered as the proprietor of the freehold of the land without any encumbrances on the title to it.
1. Under or for the purposes of the
(a) documents in the forms approved under the following provisions of that Act:
s. 15(5)(a) | Application for approval of a strata plan or an amendment of a strata plan to give effect to a subdivision of land by a strata scheme |
s. 29(2) | Scheme notice or amendment of a scheme notice |
s. 35(5) | Notice of resolution for amendment of a scheme plan |
s. 44(5) | Scheme by‑laws |
s. 56(2) | Application for registration of a strata titles scheme or amendment of a strata titles scheme and accompanying documents in approved forms |
s. 193(1) | Notice of expiry of a leasehold scheme or application for termination of a strata titles scheme and accompanying documents in approved forms |
Sch. 2A cl. 21G(1) | Notice of resolution under Schedule 2A clause 21F of that Act |
Sch. 2A cl. 21S(1) | Notice of resolution under Schedule 2A clause 21Q of that Act |
Sch. 2A cl. 31D(1) | Notice of resolution under Schedule 2A clause 31C of that Act |
(b) a disposition statement under section 222 of that Act in the form approved under the Strata Titles (General) Regulations 2019.
2. Under or for the purposes of the
(a) these documents under these provisions of that Act for the purposes described:
s. 59 | Application to remove notation as to legal disability |
s. 71 | Application for a consolidated certificate of title |
s. 71A | Application for a certificate of title for the balance of land in a certificate of title |
s. 82 | Transfer |
s. 84 | Transfer |
s. 129BB | Application for discharge or modification of restrictive covenant |
s. 136J | Application for discharge or modification of restrictive covenant |
s. 137 | Caveat to protect the interest of a purchaser or mortgagee for whom the licensee is acting |
s. 138B | Application to have notice sent to caveator |
s. 146 | Application for search certificate |
s. 148 | Application for stay of registration |
s. 166 | Application for new certificates of title on a subdivision of land that is held in fee simple |
s. 219 | Application on a transmission |
s. 221 | Application by remainderman on a transmission |
s. 227 | Application by the survivor of joint proprietors |
s. 240A | Application to change an address; |
(b) a withdrawal of a caveat lodged by a purchaser or mortgagee, or prepared by the licensee to protect the interest of a purchaser or mortgagee for whom the licensee is acting, if —
(i) there is to be lodged with the withdrawal a transfer of the whole of the land the subject of the withdrawal to the caveator or to a person nominated in writing by the caveator, or if there is more than one caveator, by each of them; and
(ii) no other person has acquired or claims any interest in the land that has priority over, or that is adverse to, the caveator’s claim; and
(iii) no dealing that is adverse to, or that derogates from, the caveator’s claim is lodged or is to be lodged after the withdrawal and before the transfer to the caveator or the caveator’s nominee;
(c) an application to amend the Register as to the name of a registered proprietor;
(d) a withdrawal of memorial under the
3. Under or for the purposes of the
(a) documents in the forms approved under the following provisions of that Act:
s. 35(2) | Scheme notice, or an amendment of a scheme notice, for a community titles scheme |
s. 40(5) | Notice of a proposed resolution for an amendment of a scheme plan |
s. 43(6) | Scheme by‑laws |
s. 50(2) | Application for registration of a community titles scheme or an amendment of a community titles scheme and accompanying documents in approved forms |
s. 141(6) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation of receipt of outline of a termination proposal |
s. 145(5) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation of receipt of a full proposal |
s. 149(10)(a) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation that a termination resolution is passed |
s. 150(7) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation of application to the State Administrative Tribunal |
s. 150(24)(a) | Notice to Registrar of Titles of State Administrative Tribunal decision |
s. 153(5) | Application by proponent for termination of a community titles scheme and accompanying documents in approved forms |
s. 156(3) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation of withdrawal of a termination proposal |
s. 157(2)(a) | Notice to Registrar of Titles from tier 1 corporation that the termination proposal cannot proceed further |
s. 161(1) | Application for termination of each community titles scheme in a community scheme by person who owns all lots in the community scheme |
s. 178 | Application for registration of the termination or amendment of a community titles scheme to give effect to compulsory acquisition |
(b) a disposition statement under section 185 of that Act in the form approved under the
(c) an application to register or record the most recent consolidated version of a community development statement that incorporates an approved amendment of the community development statement in the form approved under the
[Reg. 12]
1. A memorandum of satisfaction of a bill of sale for the purposes of section 21 of the
[r. 15]
s. 51(1) | $600 |
s. 51(3)(a) | $600 |
s. 36(1) | $400 |
s. 37(1) | $200 |
s. 38(1) | $200 |
s. 38(2) | $200 |
s. 38(3) | $400 |
s. 41(1)(a) | $200 |
s. 41(1)(b) | $200 |
s. 41(2) | $200 |
s. 42(1)(a) | $400 |
s. 42(1)(b) | $400 |
s. 42(2)(a) | $400 |
s. 42(2)(b) | $400 |
s. 41B | $1 000 |
[r. 16]
Infringement notice no. | ||
Name: Family name | ||
Given names | ||
or Company name ____________________________________ ACN | ||
Address ________________________________________________ Postcode | ||
Description of offence ____________________________________ | ||
Date / /20 Time a.m./p.m. | ||
Modified penalty $ | ||
Name | ||
Signature | ||
Office | ||
| ||
It is alleged that you have committed the above offence. If you do not want to be prosecuted in court for the offence, pay the modified penalty within 28 days after the date of this notice. Approved Officer — Department of Mines, Industry Regulation and Safety — Consumer Protection Division Locked Bag 14 Cloisters Square Perth WA 6850 Department of Mines, Industry Regulation and Safety — Consumer Protection Division | ||
Withdrawal no. | ||
Name: Family name | ||
Given names | ||
or Company name ____________________________________ ACN | ||
Address ________________________________________________ Postcode | ||
Infringement notice no. | ||
| ||
Description of offence _____________________________________ | ||
Date / /20 Time a.m./p.m. | ||
Name | ||
Signature | ||
Office | ||
| ||
The above infringement notice issued against you has been withdrawn. If you have already paid the modified penalty for the alleged offence you are entitled to a refund. * Your refund is enclosed. or * If you have paid the modified penalty but a refund is not enclosed, to claim your refund sign this notice and post it to: Approved Officer — Department of Mines, Industry Regulation and Safety — Consumer Protection Division Locked Bag 14 Cloisters Square Perth WA 6850
| ||
This is a compilation of the
19 Mar 1982 p. 886‑7 | 19 Mar 1982 | |
29 Oct 1982 p. 4323‑4 | 29 Oct 1982 | |
30 Mar 1984 p. 910 (erratum 6 Apr 1984 p. 998) | 30 Mar 1984 | |
21 Jun 1985 p. 2263 | 21 Jun 1985 | |
13 Jun 1986 p. 1997 | 1 Jul 1986 (see r. 2) | |
4 Sep 1987 p. 3519 | 4 Sep 1987 | |
2 Sep 1988 p. 3466 | 2 Sep 1988 | |
25 Nov 1988 p. 4761 (erratum 2 Dec 1988 p. 4799) | 25 Nov 1988 | |
30 Jun 1989 p. 1970-1 | 1 Jul 1989 (see r. 2) | |
1 Aug 1990 p. 3653 | 1 Aug 1990 | |
13 Dec 1991 p. 6161 | 13 Dec 1991 | |
14 Aug 1992 p. 4009 | 14 Aug 1992 | |
30 Nov 1993 p. 6407-8 | 30 Nov 1993 | |
25 Jun 1996 p. 2925‑8 | 1 Jul 1996 (see r. 2 and | |
2 Aug 1996 p. 3731‑2 | 2 Aug 1996 | |
30 Aug 1996 p. 4322 | 30 Aug 1996 | |
23 May 1997 p. 2419‑24 | 24 May 1997 (see r. 2 and | |
26 May 2000 p. 2525 | 26 Aug 2000 (see r. 2 and | |
6 Apr 2004 p. 1131 | 6 Apr 2004 | |
15 Jun 2004 p. 2024‑6 (as amended21 Jan 2005 p. 258 and 16 Jun 2006 p. 2122) | 15 Jun 2004 | |
30 Dec 2004 p. 6927 | 1 Jan 2005 (see r. 2 and | |
16 Jun 2006 p. 2121-2 | 16 Jun 2006 | |
27 Jun 2006 p. 2270-1 | 1 Jul 2006 (see r. 2) | |
22 Sep 2006 p. 4130‑3 | 22 Sep 2006 (see r. 2(a)) | |
22 Dec 2006 p. 5807-8 | 1 Jan 2007 (see r. 2 and | |
6 Feb 2007 p. 310 | 6 Feb 2007 | |
29 Jun 2007 p. 3187-8 | r. 1 and 2: 29 Jun 2007 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2007 (see r. 2(b)) | |
26 Oct 2007 p. 5651-2 | r. 1 and 2: 26 Oct 2007 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 27 Oct 2007 (see r. 2(b)) | |
28 Dec 2007 p. 6407-11 | r. 1 and 2: 28 Dec 2007 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 29 Dec 2007 (see r. 2(b)) | |
17 Jun 2008 p. 2559-60 | r. 1 and 2: 17 Jun 2008 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2008 (see r. 2(b)) | |
23 Dec 2008 p. 5469‑70 | r. 1 and 2: 23 Dec 2008 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 24 Dec 2008 (see r. 2(b)) | |
23 Jun 2009 p. 2455‑6 | r. 1 and 2: 23 Jun 2009 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2009 (see r. 2(b)) | |
25 Jun 2010 p. 2852‑3 | r. 1 and 2: 25 Jun 2010 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2010 (see r. 2(b)) | |
22 Jun 2011 p. 2365-6 | r. 1 and 2: 22 Jun 2011 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2011 (see r. 2(b)) | |
30 Jun 2011 p. 2675-8 | r. 1 and 2: 30 Jun 2011 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2011 (see r. 2(b)) | |
15 Jun 2012 p. 2601-2 | r. 1 and 2: 15 Jun 2012 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2012 (see r. 2(b)) | |
11 Sep 2012 p. 4345-6 | r. 1 and 2: 11 Sep 2012 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 12 Sep 2012 (see r. 2(b)) | |
27 Jun 2013 p. 2701-2 | r. 1 and 2: 27 Jun 2013 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2013 (see r. 2(b)) | |
20 Aug 2013 p. 3841 | r. 1 and 2: 20 Aug 2013 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 21 Aug 2013 (see r. 2(b) and | |
14 Nov 2013 p. 5067‑8 | r. 1 and 2: 14 Nov 2013 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 18 Nov 2013 (see r. 2(b) and | |
17 Jun 2014 p. 1978-9 | r. 1 and 2: 17 Jun 2014 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2014 (see r. 2(b)) | |
18 Nov 2014 p. 4325‑6 | r. 1 and 2: 18 Nov 2014 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 19 Nov 2014 (see r. 2(b) and | |
23 Jun 2015 p. 2185‑6 | r. 1 and 2: 23 Jun 2015 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jul 2015 (see r. 2(b)) | |
3 Jun 2016 p. 1745-73 | 1 Jul 2016 (see r. 2(b)) | |
4 Oct 2016 p. 4235-6 | r. 1 and 2: 4 Oct 2016 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 5 Oct 2016 (see r. 2(b) and | |
23 Jun 2017 p. 3213‑52 | 1 Jul 2017 (see r. 2(b)) | |
25 Jun 2018 p. 2325‑53 | 1 Jul 2018 (see r. 2(b)) | |
18 Jun 2019 p. 2077‑115 | 1 Jul 2019 (see r. 2(b)) | |
24 Dec 2019 p. 4416‑20 | 1 Jan 2020 (see r. 2(b) and | |
31 Dec 2019 p. 4637‑46 | 1 May 2020 (see r. 2(b) and SL 2020/39 cl. 2) | |
SL 2020/163 25 Sep 2020 | 29 Sep 2020 (see r. 2(b) and SL 2020/159 cl. 2(a)) | |
SL 2020/196 27 Oct 2020 | 28 Oct 2020 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2020/259 24 Dec 2020 | r. 1 and 2: 24 Dec 2020 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 1 Jan 2021 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2021/71 18 Jun 2021 | 30 Jun 2021 (see r. 2(b) and SL 2021/69 cl. 2) | |
SL 2021/86 21 Jun 2021 | 1 Jul 2021 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2021/202 3 Dec 2021 | r. 1 and 2: 3 Dec 2021 (see r. 2(a)); Regulations other than r. 1 and 2: 4 Dec 2021 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2022/59 20 May 2022 | 1 Jul 2022 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2023/35 5 May 2023 | 1 Jul 2023 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2023/116 26 Jul 2023 | 7 Aug 2023 (see r. 2(b)) | |
SL 2024/96 12 Jun 2024 | 1 Jul 2024 (see r. 2(c)) | |
SL 2025/89 11 Jun 2025 | 1 Jul 2025 (see r. 2(b)) | |
Despite the repeal effected by regulation 3, in relation to an application for a licence made under Part III of the Act before 1 July 2007, a person is taken to have passed the examinations prescribed for the purposes of clause 1(1)(a) or 2(1)(a) of Schedule 1 to the Act if the person has passed the examinations —
(a) prescribed by the repealed regulation 6; or
(b) required to be passed for the conferring by a college (within the meaning of the
Vocational Education and Training Act 1996 ) of —(i) a Certificate in Settlement Agency Procedure; or
(ii) a Certificate IV in Conveyancing.
applicant.................................................................................................................... 4C(1)
approved educational activity........................................................................................ 2
commencement day.................................................................................................. 18(1)
core professional development subject........................................................................ 2
educational activity.......................................................................................................... 2
former regulation 4C................................................................................................ 18(1)
holding fee................................................................................................................. 4A(1)
point value......................................................................................................................... 2
professional development subject................................................................................. 2
public training provider............................................................................................. 6(1)
record................................................................................................................................. 2
register............................................................................................................................... 2
registered training provider....................................................................................... 6(1)
relevant bank accepted bills rate........................................................................... 6D(2)
working day...................................................................................................................... 2
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