Public Health Regulation 2012 (NSW)
This Regulation is the Public Health Regulation 2012.
Except as provided by this clause, this Regulation commences on 1 September 2012 and is required to be published on the NSW legislation website.
Clauses 15, 19 and 20 and Schedule 1 commence on 1 March 2013.
Clause 34 commences on 1 September 2014.
In this Regulation—
The Act and the Interpretation Act 1987 contain definitions and other provisions that affect the interpretation and application of this Regulation.
A reference in this Regulation to a publication is a reference to the publication as in force for the time being.
Notes included in this Regulation do not form part of this Regulation.
In this Part—
Unless an expression is used or otherwise defined in the Act, or is otherwise defined in this Part, an expression used in this Part and in any of the following publications has the same meaning as it has in that publication—
(a) AS/NZS 3666.1:2011,
(b) AS/NZS 3666.2:2011,
(c) AS/NZS 3666.3:2011,
(d) AS/NZS 3666.4:2011.
For the purposes of section 27 of the Act, an air-handling system that is installed in a dwelling is exempt from the operation of Division 2 of Part 3 of the Act.
For the purposes of section 28 of the Act, an air-handling system—
(a) must be installed in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.1:2011, and
(b) must be fitted with supply air filters.
For the purposes of section 29 of the Act—
(a) an air-handling system must be operated as required by AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) there must be safe and easy access to an air-handling system for the purpose of the cleaning, inspection and maintenance of the system.
For the purposes of section 30 of the Act, an air-handling system must be maintained in accordance with—
(a) AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, or
(b) AS/NZS 3666.4:2011.
For the purposes of section 27 of the Act, a hot-water system that is installed in a dwelling is exempt from the operation of Division 2 of Part 3 of the Act.
For the purposes of section 28 of the Act, a hot-water system must be installed in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.1:2011.
For the purposes of section 29 of the Act, a hot-water system must be operated as required by AS/NZS 3666.2:2011.
For the purposes of section 30 of the Act—
(a) a hot-water system must be maintained in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) maintenance must be carried out on a hot-water system to ensure that at any time when the system is in operation it delivers water at each outlet each time the outlet is turned on at not less than 60 degrees Celsius, once any water standing in the pipe to that outlet before it was turned on has been expelled.
For the purposes of section 27 of the Act, a humidifying system that is installed in a dwelling is exempt from the operation of Division 2 of Part 3 of the Act.
For the purposes of section 29 of the Act—
(a) a humidifying system must be operated as required by AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) there must be safe and easy access to a humidifying system for the purpose of the cleaning, inspection and maintenance of the system.
For the purposes of section 30 of the Act, a humidifying system must be maintained in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.2:2011.
For the purposes of section 27 of the Act, a warm-water system that is installed in a dwelling or any other premises is exempt from the operation of Division 2 of Part 3 of the Act, except where those premises are a hospital.
For the purposes of section 28 of the Act, a warm-water system—
(a) must be installed in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.1:2011, and
(b) must not be installed in a hospital unless it is of a kind approved in writing by the Secretary.
An application for an approval by the Secretary under this clause must be accompanied by a fee of $185.
For the purposes of section 29 of the Act—
(a) a warm-water system must be operated as required by AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) there must be safe and easy access to a warm-water system for the purpose of the cleaning, inspection and maintenance of the system.
For the purposes of section 30 of the Act—
(a) a warm-water system must be maintained in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) maintenance carried out on a warm-water system must comply with the document entitled Water—Requirements for the provision of cold and heated water published by the Ministry of Health.
For the purposes of section 31 of the Act, the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located is prescribed and the notice is to be in writing and is to be accompanied by the fee (not exceeding $115) determined by the local government authority.
The occupier of premises on which a warm-water system is installed must notify the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located within 7 days of any change in the particulars provided to the authority in the approved form under section 31 of the Act.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
No fee is payable for a notification referred to in subclause (2).
For the purposes of section 27 of the Act, a cooling water system that is used solely for making snow is exempt from the operation of Division 2 of Part 3 of the Act.
For the purposes of section 28 of the Act, a cooling water system must be installed in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.1:2011.
For the purposes of section 29 of the Act—
(a) a cooling water system must be operated as required by AS/NZS 3666.2:2011, and
(b) a cooling water system must be equipped with a disinfection procedure that is in operation at all times and that is designed to control microbial growth so that—
(i) the level of
Legionella in the system is less than 10 colony-forming units per millilitre, and(ii) the heterotrophic colony count in the system is less than 100,000 colony-forming units per millilitre, and
(c) there must be safe and easy access to a cooling water system for the purpose of the cleaning, inspection and maintenance of the system.
The occupier of premises on which a cooling water system is installed must ensure that a unique identification number designated by the local government authority is displayed on each cooling tower of a cooling water system.
That number must be displayed on a sign affixed to the cooling tower, being a sign that—
(a) has a minimum size of 148 mm x 210 mm (A5 size), and
(b) is clearly visible to a person examining or inspecting the cooling water system, and
(c) is made of a durable material.
That number must be first displayed no later than 30 days after the local government authority gives the occupier of the premises notice of the unique identification number that it has designated.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
For the purposes of section 30 of the Act—
(a) a cooling water system must be maintained in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.3:2011, and
(b) a cooling water system must be maintained in accordance with the control strategies set out in Table 3.1 (for
Legionella ) and Table 3.2 (for heterotrophic micro-organisms) of that Standard, and(c) the risk assessments for a cooling water system that are required under AS/NZS 3666.3:2011 must be conducted in accordance with the following maintenance requirements prescribed by this Subdivision—
(i) the risk assessments must be conducted in the manner required by clause 13M, including through the conduct of any further risk assessment required by clause 13M(5),
(ii) each risk assessment must be documented and reported in accordance with clause 13N,
(iii) compliance with each risk assessment must be audited in accordance with clause 13O, and
(d) a cooling water system must be maintained in a manner that is subject to the sampling, testing and inspection required by clause 13Q.
Despite subclause (1)(a) and (b), a cooling water system at a thermal power station is not required to be maintained in accordance with clauses 3.2 and 3.3 of AS/NZS 3666.3:2011, but must instead be maintained in accordance with the protocols entitled Thermal Power Station Main Water Cooling Systems—Trigger Action Response Protocols, published by the Ministry of Health.
A risk assessment for a cooling water system must be undertaken by, or under the supervision of, a competent person.
The competent person who undertakes a risk assessment must indicate in the report of the assessment whether, after having regard to the approved form used in setting out a risk assessment, the competent person has determined that the cooling water system is—
(a) low-risk, or
(b) medium-risk, or
(c) high-risk.
A risk assessment must be completed before the cooling water system commences operating.
However, in the case of a cooling water system that was in operation immediately before the date of commencement of this clause, a risk assessment must be completed no later than—
(a) 30 November 2018, or
(b) any other date (that is after 30 November 2018 but before 1 July 2019) that is notified to the occupier by the local government authority for the area.
If a competent person who undertook any risk assessment of the cooling water system determined that the cooling water system was high-risk, a further risk assessment must be undertaken—
(a) no later than 12 months after that determination was made, or
(b) if there is reason to believe that the latest risk assessment is no longer valid, no later than 30 days after that reason becomes apparent.
This provision requires a risk assessment at least once every 12 months. If an additional risk assessment is required because an earlier assessment is no longer valid, or revealed that the system is high-risk, the next risk assessment will be required 12 months after that.
If a competent person who undertook any risk assessment of the cooling water system determined that the cooling water system was low-risk or medium-risk, a further risk assessment must be undertaken—
(a) no later than 60 months after that determination was made, and
(b) if there is reason to believe that the latest risk assessment is no longer valid, no later than 30 days after that reason becomes apparent.
This provision requires a risk assessment at least once every 60 months. If an additional risk assessment is required because an earlier assessment is no longer valid, or revealed that the system is high-risk, the next risk assessment will be required 12 months after that earlier assessment.
A risk assessment for a cooling water system must be documented in the approved form.
The occupier of the premises on which a cooling water system is installed must notify the local government authority for the area, in the approved form, no later than 7 days after a risk assessment required by this clause has been completed.
Compliance with the risk assessment of a cooling water system over a 12-month audit period must be audited.
The audit period for an ordinary risk assessment is—
(a) the 12 months after the first ordinary risk assessment is required by clause 13M(3) or (4), and
(b) each 12 months after that.
The audit period for an additional risk assessment is—
(a) the 12 months after the additional risk assessment is required by clause 13M(5) or (6), and
(b) each 12 months after that.
An audit must be completed within 2 months after the end of the audit period.
An audit must be carried out by a person who has been approved by the Secretary as an auditor, being a person who is not—
(a) the person who undertook the risk assessment, or
(b) the occupier, or
(c) a duly qualified person who installed the cooling water system in the previous 5 years, or
(d) a duly qualified person who operates or maintains the cooling water system, or who has done so in the previous 5 years, or
(e) a person who operates a laboratory that carried out any monthly testing of the cooling water system in the previous 5 years.
An audit must be documented in the approved form.
The occupier must notify the local government authority for the area, in the approved form, no later than 7 days after each audit required by this clause is completed.
For the purposes of subclause (5)—
(a) an application for approval as an auditor is to be made to the Secretary in the approved form, and
(b) an approval of the Secretary has effect for the period specified by the Secretary when the approval is given, unless it is sooner revoked in writing by the Secretary.
The Secretary may notify an occupier that a new risk assessment must be undertaken of a cooling water system—
(a) if any reportable test results have been notified for the cooling water system under clause 13R, or
(b) if the Secretary considers that the existing risk assessment is not sufficient to protect public health.
If the Secretary notifies an occupier that a new risk assessment must be undertaken, the occupier must ensure that the new risk assessment is carried out by, or under the supervision of, a competent person within 30 days of the notice being given.
An authorised officer may review a risk assessment at any time.
Samples of water must be taken from a cooling water system—
(a) at least once a month, and
(b) in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.3:2011, and
(c) by a duly qualified person.
Samples taken in accordance with this clause must be tested for
A cooling water system must be inspected and a chemical analysis of the cooling water system must be carried out—
(a) at least once a month, and
(b) in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.3:2011, and
(c) by a duly qualified person.
A report prepared by a duly qualified person, in relation to the testing, inspection and chemical analysis required by this clause—
(a) must be prepared in accordance with AS/NZS 3666.3:2011, and
(b) must be provided to the occupier at least once a month, and
(c) must be in the approved form.
The occupier of premises on which a cooling water system is installed must ensure that any reportable test results are provided, in the approved form, to the local government authority for the area no later than 24 hours after they are received by the occupier.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
In this clause—
(a) if the number of colony-forming units for
Legionella is greater than or equal to 1,000 colony-forming units per millilitre,(b) if the heterotrophic colony count is greater than or equal to 5,000,000 colony-forming units per millilitre.
The occupier of premises on which a cooling water system is installed must ensure that each of the required documents is either—
(a) kept on the premises, and made available for inspection on request by an authorised officer, or
(b) kept electronically, and made available for inspection, on request by an authorised officer, within 4 hours of the request.
The occupier of premises on which a cooling water system is installed must ensure that the required information is provided (in either electronic or paper form) on request by an authorised officer within 4 hours of the request.
In this clause—
(a) the documentation of the risk assessment (prepared under clause 13N(1)),
(b) the notice of the risk assessment (given under clause 13N(2)),
(c) the documentation of each audit of compliance with the risk assessment that was carried out in the last 60 months (prepared under clause 13O(6)),
(d) the notice provided of each such audit of compliance (under clause 13O(7)),
(e) the reports of each monthly testing and inspection carried out in the last 60 months (prepared under clause 13Q(4)),
(f) the operating and maintenance manuals for the system,
(g) all records of the maintenance and service of the system.
(a) the name and contact details of each duly qualified person who installed, operated or maintained the cooling water system in the last 5 years, and
(b) the name and contact details of any competent person who has provided services in relation to the cooling water system in the last 5 years.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
For the purposes of section 31 of the Act, the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located is prescribed and the notice is to be in writing and is to be accompanied by the fee (not exceeding $115) determined by the local government authority.
The occupier of premises on which a cooling water system is installed must notify the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located within 7 days of any change in the particulars provided to the authority in the approved form under section 31 of the Act.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
No fee is payable for a notification referred to in subclause (2).
For the purposes of sections 29 and 30 of the Act, all tests for the presence of
A person who furnishes any test results in purported compliance with a requirement under this Part, knowing that the test result is false or misleading in a material respect, is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
If maintenance of a regulated system is being carried out on the premises on which it is installed, the occupier or duly qualified person, or any other person carrying out the maintenance otherwise than as an employee, is guilty of an offence if appropriate measures are not taken—
(a) to minimise contamination of adjoining areas and the ambient environment by aerosols, dust, particulate matter or effluent, and
(b) to prevent public access to the area in which the maintenance is being carried out.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
The occupier of premises on which a regulated system is installed who has been served with a prohibition order must display a copy of the order in a conspicuous place at or near each entrance to the premises concerned.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
Each local government authority is to maintain a register of cooling water systems and warm-water systems installed on premises in its area.
The register must contain the following particulars relating to each cooling water system or warm-water system—
(a) the address and telephone number of the premises on which the system is installed,
(b) the name and contact details of the occupier of the premises (including residential address, email address and home, business and mobile telephone numbers),
(c) the Australian Business Number (ABN) or Australian Company Number (ACN) (if any) of the occupier of the premises,
(d) the type of system,
(e) in the case of a cooling water system—the unique identification number designated by the local government authority for each cooling tower in the system,
(f) whether or not the local government authority has been notified by the occupier that a risk assessment has been prepared for the system,
(g) the reportable test results (within the meaning of clause 13R) of which the local government authority has been notified by the occupier,
(h) details of each notice of audit of system compliance with the risk assessment that has been provided to the local government authority by the occupier (in accordance with clause 13O(7)),
(i) details of any inspections carried out by the local government authority for the purposes of the Act.
A local government authority must on request make its register available for inspection without charge by the Secretary, a public health officer or an officer of the Ministry of Health authorised by the Secretary.
In this Part,
For the purposes of Division 3 of Part 3 of the Act, the prescribed operating requirements for public swimming pools and spa pools (other than natural swimming pools) are the requirements set out in Schedule 1.
For the purposes of section 36(3) of the Act, the requirements set out in Schedule 1 are the prescribed standards for public swimming pools and spa pools (other than natural swimming pools).
The Secretary may, by order in writing served on the occupier of premises at which a public swimming pool or spa pool is situated, direct the pool to be closed for use by members of the public until the order is revoked if satisfied on reasonable grounds that the pool is a risk to public health.
An order must be accompanied by a statement in writing of the reasons for the making of the order.
A person on whom an order has been served must comply with the terms of the order while it remains in force.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
A person on whom an order has been served must, while the order remains in force, display a copy of the order in a conspicuous place at or near each entrance to the pool.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
The Secretary must, by notice in writing served on the occupier of the premises concerned, revoke an order if satisfied on reasonable grounds that the public swimming pool or spa pool in relation to which the order is in force is no longer a risk to public health.
The Secretary may, by notice in writing, direct the occupier of premises at which a public swimming pool or spa pool is situated to disinfect the pool, or to take any other action, in accordance with the direction if satisfied that the pool is a risk to public health.
An occupier of premises to whom a direction is given must not, without reasonable excuse, fail to comply with the direction.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
For the purposes of section 35(2) of the Act, the local government authority for the area in which the public swimming pool or spa pool is located is prescribed and the notice is to be in writing and is to be accompanied by the fee (not exceeding $100) determined by the local government authority.
The occupier of premises at which a public swimming pool or spa pool is situated must notify the local government authority for the area in which the pool is located within 7 days of any change in the particulars provided to the authority in the approved form under section 35(2) of the Act. No fee is payable for such a notification.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
This clause does not apply to natural swimming pools.
Each local government authority is to maintain a register of public swimming pools and spa pools (other than natural swimming pools) in its area.
The register must contain the following particulars relating to each public swimming pool or spa pool—
(a) the address and telephone number of the premises on which the public swimming pool or spa pool is located,
(b) the name and contact details of the occupier of the premises (including residential address, e-mail address and home, business and mobile telephone numbers),
(c) the Australian Business Number (ABN) or Australian Company Number (ACN) (if any) of the occupier of the premises,
(d) details of any inspections carried out by the local government authority for the purposes of the Act.
A local government authority must on request make its register available for inspection without charge by the Secretary, a public health officer or an officer of the Ministry of Health authorised by the Secretary.
The following procedures are declared to be skin penetration procedures—
(a) colonic lavage.
(b)–(d) (Repealed)
Laser hair removal is declared not to be a skin penetration procedure.
For the purposes of section 38(1) of the Act, the requirements set out in Divisions 2 and 3 are prescribed.
Any premises where skin penetration procedures are carried out must—
(a) be clean and hygienic, and
(b) have a waste disposal bin, and
(c) have a hand basin that has a supply of clean, warm, potable water, and
(d) have a separate sink that has a supply of clean, warm water for cleaning equipment (if equipment used in skin penetration procedures at the premises is cleaned at the premises), and
(e) have available for use by persons carrying out skin penetration procedures at the premises—
(i) liquid soap (or an alcohol-based hand cleaner), and
(ii) single-use towels or an automatic hand dryer, and
(iii) disposable gloves, clean linen and gowns or aprons that are appropriate for the skin procedures carried out at the premises.
Any equipment at premises where skin penetration procedures are carried out must be in good working order, be cleaned and dried after use and be kept in a clean and dry condition.
Premises at which a colonic lavage procedure is carried out must have a toilet, being a toilet that is available for use by clients and not by the general public, that is—
(a) in the case of a procedure using a closed system—located in close proximity to the room in which the procedure is being carried out, or
(b) in the case of a procedure using an open system—located in the immediate vicinity of the room in which the procedure is being carried out.
If skin penetration procedures that involve the use of sharps are carried out at the premises, there must be an appropriate sharps container at the premises.
If skin penetration procedures that involve the use of needles are carried out at the premises, there must be an adequate supply of sterile disposable needles at the premises.
In this clause,
(a) if skin penetration procedures that involve the use of reusable sharps are carried out at the premises—a sharps container that complies with AS/NZS 4261:1994Reusable containers for the collection of sharp items used in human and animal medical applications, or
(b) if skin penetration procedures that involve the use of non-reusable sharps are carried out at the premises—a sharps container that complies with AS 4031–1992Non-reusable containers for the collection of sharp medical items used in health care areas.
All reusable articles used to penetrate a person’s skin for skin penetration procedures must be sterilised, whether at the premises or off-site.
If reusable articles are sterilised at the premises—
(a) a bench top autoclave, maintained in accordance with AS 2182–1998Sterilizers—Steam—Benchtop, must be used, and
(b) there must be at least one person present at the time the autoclave is used who is adequately trained in the operation of the autoclave, and
(c) the sterilisation must be carried out in accordance with AS/NZS 4815:2006Office-based health care facilities—Reprocessing of reusable medical and surgical instruments and equipment, and maintenance of the associated environment.
If reusable articles are sterilised at the premises, the occupier of the premises must make, and keep for at least 12 months, a record of—
(a) the time and date when each article was sterilised, and
(b) the length of time that the article was autoclaved and the temperature and pressure levels of the autoclave.
If reusable articles are sterilised off-site, the occupier of the premises must make, and keep for at least 12 months, a record of—
(a) the date on which each article was sent off-site for sterilisation, and
(b) the name and address of the person who sterilised the article.
A person who carries out a skin penetration procedure must not use a needle that has previously been used in a skin penetration procedure.
A person who uses a needle in a skin penetration procedure must dispose of the needle in the appropriate sharps container immediately after completing the procedure.
A person who uses any article in a skin penetration procedure that is manufactured for a single use only must dispose of the article immediately after completing the procedure.
A person who uses a non-reusable sharp in a skin penetration procedure must dispose of the sharp in the appropriate sharps container immediately after completing the procedure.
A person must not use an article that may penetrate the skin of a person in a skin penetration procedure unless it is clean and has been sterilised and kept in a sterile environment.
A person must not use an article in a skin penetration procedure if the article has previously been used in a skin penetration procedure but did not penetrate the skin of the person undergoing the previous procedure unless the article has been cleaned and kept in a clean condition.
In this clause,
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
A person who carries out a skin penetration procedure must—
(a) wear gloves that have never been used before, and
(b) appropriately dispose of the gloves immediately after completing the procedure.
A person who carries out a skin penetration procedure (other than colonic lavage) must wear a clean gown or apron during the procedure.
A person who carries out colonic lavage must wear a clean gown made of impermeable material during the procedure.
This clause does not apply to a person carrying out a skin penetration procedure that involves the use of wax for the purposes of hair removal unless the person reasonably suspects that he or she will be exposed to human bodily substances during the procedure.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
A person who carries out a skin penetration procedure that involves the use of ink, pigment or other liquid must decant the liquid into a single use container, and use a single use applicator, for each person undergoing the procedure.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
This clause does not apply to skin penetration procedures involving the use of wax for the purposes of hair removal.
A person who carries out a skin penetration procedure using wax for the purposes of hair removal must dispose of that wax, and any instrument used to apply the wax (such as a spatula), immediately after completing the procedure.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units
For the purposes of section 38(2) of the Act, the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located is prescribed and the notice is to be in writing and is to be accompanied by the fee (not exceeding $100) determined by the local government authority.
In the case of skin penetration procedures carried out in mobile premises, the local government authority for the area in which the occupier resides is prescribed.
The occupier of premises where skin penetration procedures are carried out must notify the local government authority for the area in which the premises are located within 7 days of any change in the particulars provided to the authority in the approved form under section 38(2) of the Act. No fee is payable for such a notification.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
Each local government authority must keep a register of premises in its area where skin penetration procedures are carried out.
The following details must be entered in the register in relation to each premises—
(a) the address and telephone number of the premises,
(b) the name and contact details of the occupier of the premises (including residential address and home, business and mobile telephone numbers),
(c) the Australian Business Number (ABN) or Australian Company Number (ACN) (if any) of the occupier,
(d) the type of skin penetration procedures carried out at the premises,
(e) details of any inspections of the premises carried out by the local government authority,
(f) in the case of skin penetration procedures that are carried out in mobile premises, the local government areas in which the occupier of the premises intends to carry out the procedures.
A local government authority must on request make its register available for inspection without charge by the Secretary, a public health officer or an officer of the Ministry of Health authorised by the Secretary.
The occupier of premises where skin penetration procedures are carried out who has been served with a prohibition order must display a copy of the order in a conspicuous place at or near each entrance to the premises concerned.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
In this Part—
The following matters are to be included in the quality assurance program of a supplier of drinking water—
(a) identification of potential health risks associated with the supply of drinking water,
(b) a process for controlling those risks in accordance with the Framework for Management of Drinking Water Quality (as set out in the Australia Drinking Water Guidelines published from time to time by the National Health and Medical Research Council),
(c) documentation of the identification and the process referred to under this clause.
See clauses 34B, 34C and 34D for additional matters to be included in the quality assurance programs of certain types of suppliers.
In addition to clause 34A, the following matters are to be included in a quality assurance program of a supplier of drinking water who is not a private water supplier or water carter—
(a) documentation that sets out the following—
(i) a commitment by the supplier to drinking water quality management and a description of how that commitment is communicated to staff and included in planning and policy documents,
(ii) research and development carried out in relation to maintaining or improving the quality of the drinking water, including a list of any previous water quality studies and plans for future studies,
(iii) systems or procedures for record keeping,
(iv) systems or procedures for reviewing the monitoring of the operation, and the verifying, of the drinking water supply system and for reporting the results of those reviews to management and external parties,
(v) preventive measures, critical control points and communication of those measures and points to staff,
(vi) procedures for the validation of equipment used, and the treatment processes carried out, for the drinking water supply system,
(b) in relation to the management of the drinking water supply system and the quality of the drinking water, the following—
(i) an assessment of the risks to the drinking water supply system,
(ii) an assessment of the maximum and residual risks to the drinking water supply system,
(iii) identification of hazards to the drinking water supply system,
(iv) measures to prevent any hazards to the drinking water supply system (
preventive measures ),(v) actions to improve the drinking water supply system,
(vi) management, if possible, of any risks to the drinking water supply system assessed (
control points ),(vii) communication to staff about control points that are critical to the drinking water supply system and drinking water quality (
critical control points ),(viii) documentation of the matters referred to under this subclause,
(c) processes and procedures in relation to the drinking water supply system for the following—
(i) managing critical control points and recording non-compliance with critical control points,
(ii) operational monitoring and correction of the drinking water supply system,
(iii) procurement, delivery and testing of chemicals and equipment used in relation to the drinking water supply system,
(iv) primary disinfection and recording of primary disinfection conditions (including recording of the concentration and contact time of the disinfectant and the temperature and pH level of the water),
(v) calibration, operation and maintenance of critical treatment equipment,
(d) processes for verifying the quality of the drinking water and documentation that sets out the following—
(i) a comprehensive program for monitoring the drinking water supply distribution system,
(ii) procedures to review and respond to results from monitoring the drinking water supply distribution system,
(e) processes for managing incidents and emergencies in relation to the quality of the drinking water and the following—
(i) a process to notify the Secretary of incidents in relation to the drinking water quality,
(ii) identification of the types of incidents and emergencies that may occur and that would require management,
(iii) procedures, including communication procedures, to be followed in the case of an incident or emergency,
(iv) procedures for the control of document versions,
(v) documentation of the contact details (including name, business name and telephone number) of individuals who should be contacted in the event of an incident or emergency in relation to the quality of the drinking water (
emergency contact details ),(vi) documentation of where to locate emergency contact details,
(f) in relation to employee training about the quality of the drinking water, the following—
(i) training for employees about, and awareness of issues relating to, the quality of the drinking water,
(ii) processes for managing and reviewing the training for employees and maintaining and improving awareness of employees and contractors about drinking water quality issues,
(g) in relation to the local community, the following—
(i) processes for engaging and raising awareness in the local community about the quality of the drinking water and informing the community at the time of any drinking water supply system incidents,
(ii) consideration of local community and consumer objectives in the management of the drinking water supply system,
(h) in relation to evaluations and audits, the following—
(i) long term evaluation of the drinking water quality,
(ii) processes for updating or improving the quality assurance program where required,
(iii) scheduling of internal and external reviews of the quality assurance program and processes for such reviews.
In addition to clause 34A, the following matters are to be included in a quality assurance program of a private water supplier—
(a) documentation that sets out the following—
(i) contact details of the private water supplier (including name, address and telephone number),
(ii) a description of the drinking water supply system from source to use (including the treatment and distribution of the water),
(iii) a diagram not to scale of the drinking water supply system from source to use (including any pumps, storage treatment, pipelines, uses, location of wastewater systems and physical control measures and possible sources of contamination),
(iv) activities required to manage the drinking water supply (including inspections, maintenance and monitoring of the quality of the drinking water),
(v) actions to resolve problems or emergencies in relation to the quality of the drinking water,
(vi) contact details (including name, business name and telephone number) of individuals who should be contacted when there is a problem or emergency in relation to the quality of the drinking water,
(b) assessment of the risks to the drinking water supply system, and the following—
(i) management of those risks (the
control points ),(ii) monitoring of those control points (including who is responsible for the monitoring and the keeping of records in relation to the monitoring),
(c) planning for the following activities required to manage the drinking water supply system—
(i) inspections of the drinking water supply (including identifying the items to be inspected such as the water source, tanks and distribution system, the timing of and persons to conduct the inspections and the equipment or procedures required),
(ii) maintenance of the drinking water supply (including identifying the items to be maintained, the timing of and persons to conduct the maintenance and the equipment or procedures required),
(iii) monitoring of the quality of the drinking water (including identifying the items to be monitored, the timing and location of, and person to conduct the monitoring and the equipment or procedures required for the monitoring),
(d) a system for recording the following—
(i) inspections and maintenance carried out (including the date and explanation of, the response to, and the person who carried out, the inspections or maintenance),
(ii) results from monitoring the quality of the drinking water (including the date, location and type of monitoring and the person who conducted, and the response to, the monitoring),
(iii) the supply of drinking water by a water carter (including the date and volume of the supply and the name and details of the water carter),
(iv) equipment used for the drinking water supply system (including procedures for the operation, the maintenance, maintenance history, the manufacturer, supplier and repairer of the equipment and the manufacturer’s instructions for the equipment),
(v) information provided to consumers (including the location of warning signs, the wording and inspection of such signs, and whether the sign is permanent or temporary),
(vi) problems and emergencies that have occurred in relation to the drinking water quality,
(e) planning for the resolution of problems or emergencies in relation to the drinking water supply system and the following—
(i) identification of the possible problems or emergencies that may occur (including a failed water quality test or complaints by customers) and possible actions that could be taken in response to any problems or emergencies,
(ii) identification of ways in which to communicate with consumers and arrangements for alternate drinking water supplies for when there is a problem or emergency.
In addition to clause 34A, the following matters are to be included in the quality assurance program of a water carter—
(a) documentation that sets out the following—
(i) contact details of the water carter (including name, address and telephone number),
(ii) contact details (including name, business name and telephone number) of individuals who should be contacted in emergencies in relation to the drinking water supply system,
(iii) the frequency and method of, and equipment used for, flushing, cleaning and disinfecting a tank,
(iv) the capping and storing of, and the frequency of cleaning, the hoses and fittings in relation to the tank,
(v) if chlorine is added to the drinking water by the water carter, the location and method of storing the chlorine and the frequency and method of, and equipment used for, testing and adjusting the concentration of the chlorine in a tank used by the water carter,
(b) documentation that sets out the following about each carting vehicle—
(i) the registration number of the vehicle,
(ii) in relation to a tank transported by the vehicle, the type, lining materials, volume and certification (if any) evidencing conformity with applicable standards published by Standards Australia, of the tank,
(iii) in relation to any hoses connected to the tank, the fittings materials and certification (if any) evidencing conformity with applicable standards published by Standards Australia, of the hoses,
(c) documentation that sets out the following about the process of filling a carting vehicle with water by the water carter (the
filling process )—(i) the locations of where the carting vehicle is filled (the
filling points ),(ii) the methods of access to the filling points,
(iii) the steps taken to protect the quality of the drinking water during the filling process.
In this clause—
The Chief Health Officer may, by written notification, exempt any person or class of person from including, whether required or not, a matter under clauses 34A–34D in a quality assurance program.
The Chief Health Officer may grant an exemption under this clause if satisfied that the exemption is unlikely to pose a risk to public health.
The exemption may be given unconditionally or subject to conditions.
Where an exemption is given subject to conditions, the exemption does not have effect while a condition is not being complied with.
A notification of an exemption given by the Chief Health Officer under this clause to a class of persons must be published on the website of the Ministry of Health.
A water supplier may apply to the Chief Health Officer for an exemption under this clause.
The Chief Health Officer may, by further written notification, vary or revoke an exemption granted under this clause.
The Secretary may arrange for the review of a quality assurance program of a supplier of drinking water at any time.
A water carter must make, and keep for at least 6 months, a record of the following—
(a) the name of each supplier of drinking water from whom the water carter receives water and the place, date and time at which the water is supplied to the water carter by that supplier,
(b) the name and address of each person to whom the water carter supplies water, the place, date and time at which the water is supplied to that person and the volume of water supplied to that person,
(c) details of any substances other than drinking water transported in any water tank used by the water carter,
(d) the dates on which any water tank used by the water carter is cleaned.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
A supplier of drinking water (other than a water carter) must make, and keep for at least 6 months, a record of the name, address and telephone number of each water carter to whom the supplier of drinking water supplies water.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
A private water supplier must make, and keep for at least 24 months, a record of the following—
(a) inspections and maintenance carried out (including the date and explanation of, the response to and the person who carried out the inspections or maintenance),
(b) results from monitoring the quality of the drinking water (including the date, location and type of monitoring and the person who conducted, and the response to, the monitoring),
(c) the supply of drinking water by a water carter (including the date and volume of the supply and the name and details of the water carter),
(d) equipment used for the drinking water supply system (including procedures for the operation, the maintenance, maintenance history, the manufacturer, supplier and repairer of the equipment and the manufacturer’s instructions for the equipment),
(e) information provided to consumers (including the location of warning signs, the wording and inspection of such signs, and whether the sign is permanent or temporary),
(f) problems and emergencies that have occurred in relation to the drinking water quality.
Maximum penalty—10 penalty units.
For the purposes of section 53(d) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed—
(a) the date of birth and sex of the deceased,
(b) the date, place and cause of death of the deceased,
(c) the address of the person who certified the cause of death.
For the purposes of section 54(2)(a) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed—
(a) in relation to birth—the particulars required to be included in the NSW Perinatal Data Collection Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(b) in relation to perinatal death—the particulars in Part 1 of Schedule 2,
(c) in relation to sudden infant death syndrome—the particulars in Part 2 of Schedule 2,
(d) in relation to all Category 2 medical conditions (including AIDS)—the particulars required to be included in the Doctor/Hospital Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(e) in relation to AIDS—the particulars required to be included in the AIDS Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(f) in relation to a congenital malformation, cystic fibrosis, hypothyroidism, thalassaemia major or phenylketonuria in a child under the age of 1 year or pregnancy with a child having a such a condition—the particulars required to be included in the Notification of a scheduled congenital condition diagnosed in an infant or Notification of a scheduled congenital condition diagnosed by prenatal diagnosis, as applicable, both published by the Ministry of Health,
(g) in relation to acute rheumatic fever or, in a person under the age of 35 years, rheumatic heart disease—the particulars required to be included in the Acute Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(h) in relation to silicosis—the particulars required to be included in the Silicosis Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(i) in relation to asbestosis—the particulars required to be included in the Asbestosis Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health.
For the purposes of section 54(3)(a) of the Act, the prescribed period for keeping records is—
(a) in the case of a person who is 18 years of age or over—7 years, and
(b) in the case of a person who is less than 18 years of age—7 years starting on the person’s eighteenth birthday, and
(c) in the case of a person who was still-born—7 years starting on the date of birth, and
(d) in the case of a person who died before turning 18—7 years starting on the date of the person’s death.
The following matters must be taken into account by an authorised medical practitioner in deciding whether or not to make a public health order in respect of a person—
(a) whether reasonable attempts have been made to provide the person with information about the effects of the Category 4 or 5 condition the person has and the risks to public health of that condition,
(b) the options other than a public health order that are available to deal with the risk to public health posed by the person,
(c) if the proposed public health order will require the person to undergo treatment—the availability and effectiveness of the proposed treatment and the likely side effects of the proposed treatment on the person,
(d) if the proposed public health order will require the person to be detained—the likely social, economic, physical and psychological effects of the detention on the person,
(e) if the proposed public health order relates to a person with tuberculosis—the guidelines entitled Tuberculosis Management of People Knowingly Placing Others at Risk of Infection published by the Ministry of Health,
(f) if the proposed public health order relates to a person with HIV or AIDS—the guidelines entitled HIV—Management of People with HIV Infection Who Risk Infecting Others published by the Ministry of Health.
These matters do not need to be taken into account in the case of an emergency or if it is otherwise not reasonably practicable.
The Secretary, or a registered medical practitioner authorised under this clause by the Secretary, may notify a person suffering from a Category 2 or 3 condition of measures to be taken, and activities to be avoided, in order to minimise the danger of passing the medical condition to another person.
The Secretary or an attending medical practitioner—
(a) may notify a person who the Secretary or attending medical practitioner believes may have been in contact with a person suffering from a Category 2, 3 or 4 condition of measures to be taken, and activities to be avoided, in order to minimise the danger of the first person contracting the condition or passing it to a third person, or
(b) may authorise a relevant health practitioner to so notify the person.
A notification under subclause (1) must be in accordance with the directions (if any) of the Chief Health Officer published on the website of the Ministry of Health.
In this clause—
(a) medical, hospital, nursing or midwifery services,
(b) community health services,
(c) health education services,
(d) welfare services necessary to implement any services referred to in paragraphs (a)–(c).
Section 56(3) of the Act does not apply to the disclosure of information required by order of a court or a person authorised by law to examine witnesses.
For the purposes of section 78(1) of the Act, the following information is prescribed in relation to a sexually transmitted infection—
(a) the means of minimising the risk of infecting other people and the precautions that should be taken to minimise the risk, which may include the following—
(i) using a condom during sexual intercourse,
(ii) receiving treatment for the sexually transmitted infection,
(iii) for a patient who has a Human Immunodeficiency Virus (
HIV ) infection, seeking and receiving confirmation from a sexual partner that the sexual partner is on HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis medication,(iv) for a patient who has an HIV infection, knowing that he or she has an HIV viral load of less than 200 copies/mL,
(b) the public health implications of the infection,
(c), (d) (Repealed)
(e) diagnosis and prognosis,
(f) treatment options.
For the purposes of section 83(1) of the Act, the following information is prescribed—
(a) in relation to a patient who has cancer—the particulars required to be included in the Cancer Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health,
(b) in relation to a patient under the age of 1 year who has a congenital malformation, cystic fibrosis, hypothyroidism, thalassaemia major or phenylketonuria or a patient who is or was pregnant with a child having such a condition—the particulars required to be included in the Notification of a scheduled congenital condition diagnosed in an infant or Notification of a scheduled congenital condition diagnosed by prenatal diagnosis, as applicable, both published by the Ministry of Health,
(c) in relation to a patient with any other notifiable disease—the particulars required to be included in the Doctor/Hospital Notification Form published by the Ministry of Health.
For the purposes of the definition of
(a) children whose enrolment at a child care facility is sought,
(b) children who are, or who previously were, enrolled at a child care facility,
(c) children who are enrolled at a school and are under the age of 18 years.
For the purposes of the definition of
(a) the Department of Health’s Immunisation Accreditation Program for Registered Nurses,
(b) the immunisation education program administered by the Australian College of Nursing or its predecessors,
(c) an interstate or overseas immunisation education program that conforms to the National Guidelines for Immunisation Education for Registered Nurses and Midwives, as approved by the Australian College of Nursing.
For the purposes of section 86(1) of the Act, the principal of a school must ask a parent of a child to lodge with the principal an immunisation certificate for the child whenever the child concerned reaches the age, designated by the Secretary for a specified vaccine preventable disease, at which it is appropriate for a child to be immunised or further immunised against that disease.
For the purposes of section 87(4) of the Act, the principal of a child care facility must ask a parent of a child to provide an updated certificate of a kind required to be produced under that subsection whenever the child concerned reaches the age, designated by the Secretary for a specified vaccine preventable disease, at which it is appropriate for a child to be immunised or further immunised against that disease.
For the purposes of section 86(4) of the Act, the principal of a school must retain an immunisation certificate for 3 years from the date on which the child concerned ceases to attend the school, unless the principal is earlier required to forward the certificate under section 86(2) of the Act.
For the purposes of section 87(6) of the Act, the principal of a child care facility must retain an entry in the register for 3 years from the date on which the child concerned ceases to attend the facility, unless the principal is earlier required to provide a copy of the certificate under section 87(7) of the Act.
For the purposes of section 87(3) of the Act, the principal of a child care facility is not required to comply with section 87(1) of the Act before enrolling, or permitting the enrolment of, a child at the child care facility if—
(a) the child is enrolled in a school, or
(b) the child is subject to a guardianship order under section 79A of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998 or is in out-of-home care (within the meaning of that Act), or
(c) the child is being cared for by an adult who is not the child’s parent due to exceptional circumstances such as illness or incapacity, or
(d) the child has been evacuated from the child’s place of residence because it is in a part of the State in which a state of emergency is declared to exist under the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, or
(e) the child is an Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander (within the meaning of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998).
However, in the case of a child referred to in subclause (1)(b), (c), (d) or (e), the principal of a child care facility must take all reasonable steps to ensure that the parent of the child, or the principal of another child care facility, provides the certificate or certificates referred to in section 87(1) of the Act, in respect of the child, within 12 weeks after the date on which the child is enrolled in the facility.
The Commissioner of Corrective Services must issue directions, within 3 months after the commencement of this clause, concerning the standards and sizes required for rooms and cubicles at correctional centres.
The Commissioner may amend or replace any directions issued under this clause.
The Commissioner must review any directions issued under this clause at least once every 5 years.
If the Chief Health Officer is of the opinion that there is an outbreak, or the risk of an outbreak, of infectious disease at a correctional centre—
(a) the Chief Health Officer may issue directions in respect of the outbreak or risk of outbreak, and
(b) the Commissioner of Corrective Services is required to ensure that the general manager of the correctional centre complies with those directions.
Before issuing a direction under subclause (1), the Chief Health Officer is to consult with the Commissioner having regard to any issues raised by the Commissioner relating to maintaining the security, good order or safety of the correctional centre or its inmates.
An occupier of premises must take reasonable measures to keep the premises free from fleas, other disease-carrying insects, rats and mice (except any such animals kept as pets).
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
The occupier of premises must not allow any room or cubicle in the premises to be used for the purposes of sleeping accommodation unless—
(a) the room or cubicle has a floor area of 5.5 square metres or more for each person sleeping in it (in the case of long-term sleeping accommodation) or 2 square metres or more for each person sleeping in it (in any other case), or
(b) the room or cubicle has been exempted by the Minister under this clause and complies with any conditions attached to the exemption, or
(c) the premises are private domestic premises, or
(d) the premises are a correctional centre.
Maximum penalty—5 penalty units.
The Minister may, by order in writing, exempt an occupier in relation to any room or cubicle from the requirements of this clause, either conditionally or unconditionally, if satisfied that the exemption will not have an adverse effect on the health of persons sleeping in the room or cubicle.
An order made by the Minister under clause 22 of the Public Health (General) Regulation 2002 that was in force immediately before the commencement of this clause—
(a) is taken to be an order made under this clause, and
(b) continues in force for a period of 2 years from that commencement, unless sooner revoked.
In this clause,
A person must not sell, offer for sale, consign, transmit, deliver for sale, use in any manufacturing process or receive for the purposes of business any hide, portion of a hide, hair or wool of any animal that is suffering or has died from anthrax or that the person has reason to believe is suffering or has died from anthrax.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
If a public authority considers, on reasonable grounds, that a situation has arisen in which the health of the public is, or is likely to be, at risk, the public authority is to notify the public health officer for the part of the State concerned.
In this Part—
(a) in relation to a still-born child—a parent, or sibling at or above the age of 16 years, of the child, and
(b) in relation to a dead person who is not a still-born child—the spouse or de facto partner of the dead person immediately before death, a parent of the dead person, a child at or above the age of 16 years of the dead person or any relative of the dead person who was residing with the dead person when he or she died.
A person must not, without the approval of the Secretary, use any premises other than a mortuary that complies with the relevant standards for mortuaries under the Local Government Act 1993 for the embalming or other preparation of bodies for burial or cremation or for the placing of bodies in coffins for burial or cremation.
A person must not, without the approval of the Secretary, use any premises other than a holding room or a mortuary for the storage of bodies for burial or cremation.
A person must not store a body in a vehicle except during the transport of the body or with the approval of the Secretary.
A person must not use a holding room for any purpose other than the storage of bodies.
A person must not, without the approval of the Secretary, use the facilities of a hospital for the purpose of the business of a funeral director or of the operator of a mortuary transport service except for the removal of bodies of persons who died in the hospital.
The Secretary may give approval—
(a) under subclause (1), (2) or (3)—either generally or in a particular case, or
(b) under subclause (5)—in a particular case.
Maximum penalty—15 penalty units.
Unless otherwise approved by the Secretary, generally or in a particular case, a person must not use a body preparation room unless it has the following—
(a) a vehicle reception area adjacent to it and so designed that the transfer of uncoffined bodies from area to room and room to area is screened from public view,
(b) at least one hand basin, with an adequate supply of hot and cold water and fitted with elbow operated, foot operated or hands-free taps,
(c) sufficient slabs, tables and other fittings for the preparation of bodies for burial or cremation constructed of smooth impervious material and designed to facilitate draining and their cleaning,
(d) refrigerated body storage facilities big enough for 2 adult bodies,
(e) one or more impervious containers, each fitted with an elbow operated or foot operated close-fitting cover or lid, for the reception and storage of all solid wastes arising from the preparation of bodies and for the reception and storage of all screenings from floor drains.
A person must not use the refrigerated body storage facilities in a body preparation room or holding room except to store bodies.
Maximum penalty—15 penalty units.
A funeral director or the operator of a mortuary transport service must not use for the transport of bodies the part of a vehicle that is used by the funeral director or service for other purposes.
A funeral director or the operator of a mortuary transport service must not use for any other purpose the part of a vehicle that is used by the funeral director or service for the transport of bodies.
If part of a vehicle has been used to transport a body, a person must not use, or permit the use of, that part for the transport of another body until it has been cleaned of any exudates from the first body.
A person must not dispose of a vehicle that the person has used for the transport of a body unless the vehicle has been cleaned since that use to remove any body exudates.
A person must not transport an unembalmed body unless—
(a) during that transport, the body is refrigerated at a temperature of less than 10 degrees Celsius, or
(b) the duration of the transport is 8 hours or less and the person reasonably believes that transporting the body without refrigeration will not be a risk to public health.
Maximum penalty—5 penalty units.
In this Division,
(a) avian influenza in humans,
(b) diphtheria,
(b1) Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus,
(c) plague,
(d) respiratory anthrax,
(e) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome,
(f) smallpox,
(g) tuberculosis,
(h) any viral haemorrhagic fever (including Lassa, Marburg, Ebola and Crimean-Congo fevers).
A person who is not a funeral director must not retain a body if more than 5 days have passed since death.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
The Secretary may approve, generally or in a particular case, of a body being retained for longer than 5 days, subject to any conditions that the Secretary considers appropriate.
This clause does not apply to a body that is stored at premises licensed under the Anatomy Act 1977 or the subject of an inquest under the Coroners Act 2009.
A funeral director must retain a body—
(a) in a refrigerated body storage facility, and
(b) in a mortuary or a holding room.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
However, a funeral director may cause the body to be removed from a refrigerated body storage facility—
(a) to another part of the mortuary, for a maximum of 8 hours a day for the purposes of preparing the body for burial or cremation, embalming the body or viewing of the body by mourners, or
(b) for the purpose of transporting the body for burial, interment or cremation, or
(c) for the purpose of transporting the body to another mortuary.
A person must not embalm a body unless that person has successfully completed a course in embalming provided by a training provider accredited by the Australian Skills Quality Authority or approved by the Secretary.
A person must not embalm a body that the person has reason to believe is infected with a prescribed infectious disease.
Maximum penalty—20 penalty units.
A person must, when carrying out any procedure on a body, comply with the guidelines specified in Part B of the Australian Guidelines for the Prevention and Control of Infection in Healthcare published by the National Health and Medical Research Council.
Maximum penalty—15 penalty units.
A person must, when placing a body in a bag or wrapping a body, comply with the document entitled Infection Control Policy published by the Ministry of Health.
Maximum penalty—15 penalty units.
A responsible person must ensure that the body of a dead person is not removed from a place unless—
(a) the body has been placed and secured in a bag or wrapping in a manner that prevents the leakage of any body exudate or other substance, and
(b) the name of, or an identification of, the dead person is clearly and indelibly written on the top outer surface of the bag or wrapping, and
(c) if the person has reason to believe that the body is infected with a prescribed infectious disease—the bag or wrapping is clearly and indelibly marked with the words “PRESCRIBED INFECTIOUS DISEASE—HANDLE WITH CARE”.
Maximum penalty—15 penalty units.
For the purposes of this clause, a
(a) if the body is at a hospital—the chief executive officer of the hospital or a person authorised by the chief executive officer, or
(b) if the body is at any other premises or place—the funeral director or other person removing the body.
A funeral director may only remove a body from a body bag if—
(a) the funeral director has no reason to believe it is infected with a prescribed infectious disease, and
The alkalinity of the water must be tested once a day.
However, if liquid chlorine (sodium hypochlorite) is used as a disinfectant in the pool or a carbon dioxide-based pH control is used, the alkalinity must be tested once a month only.
Ozone may be used in the circulation system of a pool but must not be present in the pool.
If ozone is used in the circulation system of the pool, the pool must be tested once a week for the presence of ozone.
Cyanuric acid may only be used in an outdoor chlorine disinfected pool and must not be used in a spa pool.
If cyanuric acid is used, the concentration of cyanuric acid in the water must be tested once a week and must not exceed 50 mg/L.
A record must be made, and kept for at least 6 months, of the results of any testing required under this Schedule.
(Clause 37)
Full name of mother of deceased infant.
Usual residential address of mother at time of birth of deceased infant.
Date of birth of mother.
Date of first day of mother’s last menstrual period (if known) and estimated gestational age of deceased infant at time of birth.
Date of birth of infant.
Vital status at time of birth: liveborn or stillborn.
Date of death (if liveborn).
Name of hospital of birth, or address of place of birth (if not a hospital).
For liveborn infant, name of hospital where death occurred, or address of place of death (if not a hospital).
Sex of infant.
Plurality: single or multiple birth.
If multiple birth: total number of infants at that birth.
If multiple birth: the number of the deceased infant in the birth order.
Birth weight in grams.
Cause of death, as recorded on Medical Certificate of Cause of Perinatal Death.
Full name of mother of deceased infant.
Usual residential address of mother at time of birth of infant.
Date of birth of mother.
Full name of infant.
Date of birth of infant.
Name of hospital of birth, or address of place of birth (if not a hospital).
Sex of infant.
Usual residential address of infant.
Address of place at which infant was found deceased or moribund.
Date of death of infant.
(Clause 99)
In this code of conduct—
The Health Care Complaints Act 1993 defines those terms as follows—
(a) medical, hospital, nursing and midwifery services,
(b) dental services,
(c) mental health services,
(d) pharmaceutical services,
(e) ambulance services,
(f) community health services,
(g) health education services,
(h) welfare services necessary to implement any services referred to in paragraphs (a)–(g),
(i) services provided in connection with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health practices and medical radiation practices,
(j) Chinese medicine, chiropractic, occupational therapy, optometry, osteopathy, physiotherapy, podiatry and psychology services,
(j1) optical dispensing, dietitian, massage therapy, naturopathy, acupuncture, speech therapy, audiology and audiometry services,
(k) services provided in other alternative health care fields,
(l) forensic pathology services,
(m) a service prescribed by the regulations as a health service for the purposes of the Health Care Complaints Act 1993.
This code of conduct applies to the provision of health services by—
(a) health practitioners who are not registered health practitioners within the meaning of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (NSW) (including de-registered health practitioners), and
(b) registered health practitioners within the meaning of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (NSW) who provide health services that are unrelated to their registration.
Health practitioners may be subject to other requirements relating to the provision of health services to which this Code applies, including, for example, requirements imposed by Divisions 1 and 3 of Part 7 of the Act and by Part 4 of this Regulation.
A health practitioner must provide health services in a safe and ethical manner.
Without limiting subclause (1), health practitioners must comply with the following principles—
(a) a health practitioner must maintain the necessary competence in his or her field of practice,
(b) a health practitioner must not provide health care of a type that is outside his or her experience or training,
(c) a health practitioner must not provide services that he or she is not qualified to provide,
(d) a health practitioner must not use his or her possession of particular qualifications to mislead or deceive his or her clients as to his or her competence in his or her field of practice or ability to provide treatment,
(e) a health practitioner must prescribe only treatments or appliances that serve the needs of the client,
(f) a health practitioner must recognise the limitations of the treatment he or she can provide and refer clients to other competent health practitioners in appropriate circumstances,
(g) a health practitioner must recommend to his or her clients that additional opinions and services be sought, where appropriate,
(h) a health practitioner must assist his or her clients to find other appropriate health care professionals, if required and practicable,
(i) a health practitioner must encourage his or her clients to inform their treating medical practitioner (if any) of the treatments they are receiving,
(j) a health practitioner must have a sound understanding of any adverse interactions between the therapies and treatments he or she provides or prescribes and any other medications or treatments, whether prescribed or not, that the health practitioner is aware the client is taking or receiving,
(k) a health practitioner must ensure that appropriate first aid is available to deal with any misadventure during a client consultation,
(l) a health practitioner must obtain appropriate emergency assistance (for example, from the Ambulance Service) in the event of any serious misadventure during a client consultation.
A health practitioner who has been diagnosed with a medical condition that can be passed on to clients must ensure that he or she practises in a manner that does not put clients at risk.
Without limiting subclause (1), a health practitioner who has been diagnosed with a medical condition that can be passed on to clients should take and follow advice from an appropriate medical practitioner on the steps to be taken to modify his or her practice to avoid the possibility of transmitting that condition to clients.
A health practitioner must not hold himself or herself out as qualified, able or willing to cure cancer or other terminal illnesses.
A health practitioner may make a claim as to his or her ability or willingness to treat or alleviate the symptoms of those illnesses if that claim can be substantiated.
A health practitioner must adopt standard precautions for the control of infection in his or her practice.
Without limiting subclause (1), a health practitioner who carries out a skin penetration procedure must comply with the relevant provisions of this Regulation in relation to the carrying out of the procedure.
The Act defines
(a) any procedure carried out by a registered health practitioner, or by a person acting under the direction or supervision of a registered health practitioner, in the course of providing a health service, or
(b) any procedure declared by the regulations not to be a skin penetration procedure.
A health practitioner must not attempt to dissuade clients from seeking or continuing with treatment by a registered medical practitioner.
A health practitioner must accept the right of his or her clients to make informed choices in relation to their health care.
A health practitioner should communicate and co-operate with colleagues and other health care practitioners and agencies in the best interests of their clients.
A health practitioner who has serious concerns about the treatment provided to any of his or her clients by another health practitioner must refer the matter to the Health Care Complaints Commission.
A health practitioner must not practise under the influence of alcohol or unlawful drugs.
A health practitioner who is taking prescribed medication must obtain advice from the prescribing health practitioner on the impact of the medication on his or her ability to practice and must refrain from treating clients in circumstances where his or her ability is or may be impaired.
A health practitioner must not practise while suffering from a physical or mental impairment, disability, condition or disorder (including an addiction to alcohol or a drug, whether or not prescribed) that detrimentally affects, or is likely to detrimentally affect, his or her ability to practise or that places clients at risk of harm.
A health practitioner must not accept financial inducements or gifts for referring clients to other health practitioners or to the suppliers of medications or therapeutic goods or devices.
A health practitioner must not offer financial inducements or gifts in return for client referrals from other health practitioners.
A health practitioner must not provide services and treatments to clients unless they are designed to maintain or improve the clients’ health or wellbeing.
A health practitioner must not diagnose or treat an illness or condition without an adequate clinical basis.
A health practitioner must not engage in any form of misinformation or misrepresentation in relation to the products or services he or she provides or as to his or her qualifications, training or professional affiliations.
A health practitioner must provide truthful information as to his or her qualifications, training or professional affiliations if asked for information about those matters by a client.
A health practitioner must not make claims, either directly or in advertising or promotional material, about the efficacy of treatment or services provided if those claims cannot be substantiated.
A health practitioner must not engage in a sexual or other close personal relationship with a client.
Before engaging in a sexual or other close personal relationship with a former client, a health practitioner must ensure that a suitable period of time has elapsed since the conclusion of their therapeutic relationship.
A health practitioner must comply with the relevant legislation of the State or the Commonwealth relating to his or her clients’ health information, including the Privacy Act 1988 of the Commonwealth and the Health Records and Information Privacy Act 2002.
A health practitioner must maintain accurate, legible and contemporaneous clinical records for each client consultation.
A health practitioner should ensure that appropriate indemnity insurance arrangements are in place in relation to his or her practice.
A health practitioner must display a copy of each of the following documents at all premises where the health practitioner carries on his or her practice—
(a) this code of conduct,
(b) a document that gives information about the way in which clients may make a complaint to the Health Care Complaints Commission, being a document in a form approved by the Secretary.
Copies of those documents must be displayed in a position and manner that makes them easily visible to clients entering the relevant premises.
This clause does not apply to any of the following premises—
(a) the premises of any body within the public health system (as defined in section 6 of the Health Services Act 1997),
(b) private health facilities (as defined in the Private Health Facilities Act 2007),
(c) premises of the Ambulance Service of NSW (as defined in the Health Services Act 1997),
(d) premises of approved providers (within the meaning of the Aged Care Act 1997 of the Commonwealth).
A health practitioner must not sell or supply an optical appliance (other than cosmetic contact lenses) to a person unless he or she does so in accordance with a prescription from a person lawfully authorised to prescribe the optical appliance.
See section 122 of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (NSW) for the persons who can lawfully prescribe optical appliances in New South Wales.
A health practitioner must not sell or supply contact lenses to a person unless the health practitioner—
(a) was licensed under the Optical Dispensers Act 1963 immediately before its repeal, or
(b) has a Certificate IV in optical dispensing or an equivalent qualification.
A health practitioner who sells or supplies contact lenses to a person must provide the person with written information about the care, handling and wearing of contact lenses, including advice about possible adverse reactions to wearing contact lenses.
This clause does not apply to the sale or supply of the following—
(a) hand-held magnifiers,
(b) corrective lenses designed for use only in diving masks or swimming goggles,
(c) ready made spectacles that—
(i) are designed to alleviate the effects of presbyopia only, and
(ii) comprise 2 lenses of equal power, being a power of plus one dioptre or more but not exceeding plus 3.5 dioptres.
In this clause—
(Clause 100)
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Offence | Penalty for an individual | Penalty for a corporation |
Section 10, for an offence of failing to comply with a direction of the Minister in an order made under the Act, section 7— | ||
| ||
| $500 | |
| $80 | |
| $40 | |
| $5,000 | |
| $5,000 | |
| $5,000 | |
| $5,000 | |
| $5,000 | $10,000 |
| $5,000 | $10,000 |
| $1,000 | $5,000 |
Section 11, for an offence occurring on or after 26 March 2020 | $1,000 | $5,000 |
Section 31 | $220 | $440 |
Section 35(1), for an offence involving a contravention of clause 3(1) of Schedule 1 to this Regulation | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 35(2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 37 | $220 | $440 |
Section 38(1), for an offence involving a contravention of clause 23(1)(b) of this Regulation | $110 | $220 |
Section 38(1), for an offence involving a contravention of clause 23(1)(c) of this Regulation | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 38(1), for an offence involving a contravention of clause 25(1) of this Regulation | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 38(2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 47, for an offence in respect of a public swimming pool or spa pool or premises where skin penetration procedures are carried out | $1,100 | $2,200 |
Section 47, for an offence in respect of a regulated system | $1,650 | $3,300 |
Section 70(1), for an offence occurring on or after 26 March 2020 involving a contravention of public health order relating to COVID-19 | $1,000 | |
Clause 13K | $220 | $440 |
Clause 13X | $220 | $440 |
Clause 17(4) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 33 | $220 | $440 |
Public Health Regulation 2012 (311). LW 6.7.2012. Date of commencement, cll 15, 19, 20 and 34 and Sch 1 excepted, 1.9.2012, cl 2 (1); date of commencement of cll 15, 19 and 20 and Sch 1, 1.3.2013, cl 2 (2); date of commencement of cl 34, 1.9.2014, cl 2 (3). This Regulation has been amended by this Regulation, cl 99B(2) and as follows—
(351) | Public Health Amendment (Scheduled Medical Conditions) Regulation 2012. LW 3.8.2012. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(659) | Public Health Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2012. LW 21.12.2012. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
105 | Cemeteries and Crematoria Act 2013. Assented to 27.11.2013. Date of commencement of Sch 6.6 [1] and [5]–[7], 1.11.2014, sec 2 and 2014 (678) LW 24.10.2014; date of commencement of Sch 6.6 [2]–[4] and [8], 25.6.2018, sec 2 and 2018 (274) LW 22.6.2018. | |
(726) | Public Health Amendment (Vaccination of Children Attending Child Care Facilities) Regulation 2013. LW 20.12.2013. Date of commencement, 1.1.2014, cl 2. | |
(566) | Public Health Amendment (Nursing Homes) Regulation 2014. LW 29.8.2014. |
Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | ||
(557) | Public Health Amendment (Contact Tracing) Regulation 2015. LW 18.9.2015. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(590) | Public Health Amendment (Prescribed Notification) Regulation 2015. LW 2.10.2015. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(78) | Public Health Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2016. LW 19.2.2016. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(411) | Public Health Amendment (Correctional Centres) Regulation 2016. LW 1.7.2016. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(428) | Public Health Amendment (Corresponding Interstate Prohibition Orders) Regulation 2016. LW 8.7.2016. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(751) | Public Health Amendment (Pap Test Register) Regulation 2016. LW 9.12.2016. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(152) | Public Health Amendment (Fees) Regulation 2017. LW 21.4.2017. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
No 43 | Public Health Amendment (Review) Act 2017. Assented to 20.9.2017. Date of commencement of Sch 2, assent, sec 2 (1). | |
No 50 | Health Practitioner Regulation Amendment Act 2017. Assented to 24.10.2017. Date of commencement of Sch 5.29, 8.1.2018, sec 2 and 2017 (666) LW 1.12.2017. | |
(649) | Public Health Amendment (Reporting) Regulation 2017. LW 24.11.2017. Date of commencement of Sch 1 [1], 1.12.2017, cl 2 (2); date of commencement of Sch 1 [2], [3] and [6], on publication on LW, cl 2 (1); date of commencement of Sch 1 [4] and [5], 1.4.2018, cl 2 (3). | |
(677) | Public Health Amendment (Legionella Control—Testing) Regulation 2017. LW 1.12.2017. Date of commencement, 1.1.2018, cl 2. | |
(176) | Public Health Amendment (Disclosure of Information on Former Pap Test Register) Regulation 2018. LW 27.4.2018. Date of commencement, 1.5.2018, cl 2. | |
(234) | Public Health Amendment (Fees) Regulation 2018. LW 1.6.2018. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
No 25 | Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2018. Assented to 15.6.2018. Date of commencement of Sch 1.21, assent, Sch 1.21. | |
(387) | Public Health Amendment (Quality Assurance Programs for Drinking Water Suppliers) Regulation 2018. LW 20.7.2018. Date of commencement, 1.10.2018, cl 2. | |
(427) | Public Health Amendment (Legionella Control) Regulation 2018. LW 10.8.2018. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(783) | Public Health Amendment (Exhumations) Regulation 2018. LW 21.12.2018. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(130) | Public Health Amendment (Exemption from Vaccination Requirements) Regulation 2019. LW 28.2.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(343) | Public Health Amendment (Fees) Regulation 2019. LW 19.7.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(109) | Public Health Amendment (Penalty Notices) Regulation 2020. LW 25.3.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(145) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation 2020. LW 9.4.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(237) | Public Health Amendment (Authorised Officers) Regulation 2020. LW 3.6.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(320) | Public Health Amendment (Scheduled Medical Conditions—Silicosis) Regulation 2020. LW 26.6.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(372) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation (No 2) 2020. LW 3.7.2020. Date of commencement, 7.7.2020, cl 2. | |
(392) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Border Control) Regulation 2020. LW 8.7.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(465) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Border Control—Transiting ACT Residents) Regulation 2020. LW 12.8.2020. Date of commencement, 13.8.2020, cl 2. | |
(576) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation (No 3) 2020. LW 25.9.2020. Date of commencement, 25.9.2020, cl 2. | |
(597) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Border Control) Regulation (No 2) 2020. LW 2.10.2020. Date of commencement, 2.10.2020, cl 2. | |
No 30 | Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2020. Assented to 27.10.2020. Date of commencement of amendments made by Sch 2.33, 11.12.2020, sec 2(3). | |
(728) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation (No 4) 2020. LW 16.12.2020. Date of commencement, 17.12.2020, cl 2. | |
(748) | Public Health Amendment (Scheduled Medical Conditions—Asbestosis) Regulation 2020. LW 18.12.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(1) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Mandatory Face Coverings) Regulation 2021. LW 2.1.2021. Date of commencement, 3.1.2021, cl 2. | |
(106) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation 2021. LW 12.3.2021. Date of commencement, 12.3.2021, cl 2. | |
(120) | Public Health Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2021. LW 19.3.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(164) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Mandatory Face Coverings) Regulation (No 2) 2021. LW 31.3.2021. Date of commencement, 1.4.2021, cl 2. | |
(251) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Spitting and Coughing) Regulation (No 2) 2021. LW 28.5.2021. Date of commencement, 28.5.2021, cl 2. | |
(326) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Mandatory Face Coverings) Regulation (No 3) 2021. LW 25.6.2021. Date of commencement, 26.6.2021, cl 2. | |
(401) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation 2021. LW 21.7.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(432) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Mandatory Face Coverings) Regulation (No 4) 2021. LW 30.7.2021. Date of commencement, 30.7.2021, cl 2. | |
(441) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 2) 2021. LW 11.8.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(452) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 3) 2021. LW 16.8.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(474) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Delta Outbreak) Regulation 2021. LW 21.8.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(522) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 4) 2021. LW 6.9.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(562) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19) Regulation 2021. LW 24.9.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(595) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 5) 2021. LW 8.10.2021. Date of commencement, 11.10.2021, sec 2. | |
(625) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 6) 2021. LW 27.10.2021. Date of commencement, 27.10.2021, sec 2. | |
(719) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences—Air Transportation Quarantine) Regulation 2021. LW 1.12.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(735) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation (No 7) 2021. LW 3.12.2021. Date of commencement, 4.12.2021 at 10pm, sec 2. | |
(9) | Public Health Amendment (Rapid Antigen Tests) Regulation 2022. LW 19.1.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(53) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19) Regulation 2022. LW 24.2.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. Amended by Public Health Amendment (COVID-19) Regulation (No 2) 2022 (52). LW 24.2.2022. Date of commencement, immediately before the commencement of the Public Health Amendment (COVID-19) Regulation 2022, Sch 1[3], sec 2. | |
(63) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Penalty Notice Offences) Regulation 2022. LW 2.3.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(242) | Public Health Amendment (COVID-19 Air and Maritime Arrivals) Regulation 2022. LW 24.5.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. |
Cl 3 | Am 2016 (411), Sch 1 [1]. |
Part 2 | Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 4 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [2]. Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 5 | Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 6 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [3]; 2017 (152), cl 3 (1); 2018 (234), cl 3 (1). Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 7 | Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 8 | Am 2012 (659), Sch 1 [1]; 2016 (78), Sch 1 [4] [5]; 2017 (677), cl 3 (1). Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 9 | Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 9A | Ins 2017 (677), cl 3 (2). Rep 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 10 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [6]. Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cll 11–13 | Subst 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cll 13A–13C | Ins 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 13D | Ins 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. Am 2019 (343), cl 3 (1). |
Cll 13E–13Y | Ins 2018 (427), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 21 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [7]; 2017 (649), Sch 1 [1]. |
Part 5, Div 1 (heading) | Ins 2018 (387), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 34 | Subst 2018 (387), Sch 1 [1]. |
Part 5, Div 2 (cll 34A–34F) | Ins 2018 (387), Sch 1 [1]. |
Part 5, Div 3 (heading) | Ins 2018 (387), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 35 | Am 2018 (387), Sch 1 [3]. |
Cl 37 | Am 2015 (590), cl 3; 2020 (320), cl 3; 2020 (748), cl 3. |
Cl 39A | Ins 2012 (351), cl 3. |
Cl 39B | Ins 2012 (351), cl 3. Subst 2015 (557), Sch 1. |
Cl 39C | Ins 2015 (557), Sch 1. |
Cl 40 | Am 2017 (649), Sch 1 [2] [3]. |
Cl 42 | Subst 2013 (726), Sch 1 [1]. Am 2017 (649), Sch 1 [4]. |
Cl 42A | Ins 2013 (726), Sch 1 [1]. |
Cl 43 | Am 2013 (726), Sch 1 [2] [3]; 2017 (649), Sch 1 [5]. |
Cl 44 | Am 2013 (726), Sch 1 [4] [5]; 2017 (649), Sch 1 [5]. |
Cl 44A | Ins 2013 (726), Sch 1 [6]. Am 2017 No 43, Sch 2 [1] [2]; 2017 (649), Sch 1 [5]; 2019 (130), cl 3. |
Part 7, Div 2A (cll 44B, 44C) | Ins 2016 (411), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 46 | Am 2016 (411), Sch 1 [3]. |
Cl 49 | Am 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [1]. |
Cl 53 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [8]. |
Cl 54 | Am 2021 (562), sec 3(1). |
Cl 68 | Rep 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [2]. |
Cl 70 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [9]; 2017 (152), cl 3 (2); 2018 (234), cl 3 (2); 2018 (783), cl 3 (1); 2019 (343), cl 3 (2). |
Cl 71 | Am 2018 (783), cl 3 (2). |
Cl 73 | Am 2012 (659), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 81 | Am 2012 (659), Sch 1 [3]; 2016 (78), Sch 1 [10] [11]. |
Cl 82 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [12] [13]. |
Cl 84 | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [14]–[16]. |
Cl 86 | Rep 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [3]. |
Cl 87 | Rep 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [4]. |
Cl 89 | Am 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [5]–[7]. |
Cl 90 | Rep 2013 No 105, Sch 6.6 [8]. |
Cl 93 | Am 2020 No 30, Sch 2.33. |
Cl 93A | Ins 2016 (78), Sch 1 [17]. Am 2016 (428), cl 3; 2017 No 50, Sch 5.29 [1]. |
Cl 93B | Ins 2016 (751), cl 3. Am 2018 (176), cl 3 (1) (2). |
Cl 93C | Ins 2016 (751), cl 3. Am 2018 (176), cl 3 (3) (4). |
Cl 93D | Ins 2017 (649), Sch 1 [6]. |
Cl 95A | Ins 2014 (566), cl 3. |
Cl 99 | Am 2017 No 50, Sch 5.29 [2] [3]. |
Cl 99A | Ins 2020 (237), cl 3. Am 2021 (120), cl 3(1); 2021 (562), sec 3(2); 2022 (53), Sch 1[1] [2]. |
Cl 99B | Ins 2021 (562), sec 3(3). Rep 2012 (311), cl 99B(2). |
Sch 3 | Am 2012 (659), Sch 1 [4] [5]; 2017 No 50, Sch 5.29 [4]–[8]. |
Sch 4 | Am 2018 (427), Sch 1 [2] [3]; 2020 (109), cl 3; 2020 (145), cl 3; 2020 (372), cl 3; 2020 (392), cl 3; 2020 (465), cl 3; 2020 (576), cl 3; 2020 (597), cl 3; 2020 (728), cl 3; 2021 (1), cl 3; 2021 (106), cl 3; 2021 (120), cl 3(2) (3); 2021 (164), cl 3; 2021 (251), cl 3; 2021 (326), cl 3; 2021 (401), cl 3(1) (2); 2021 (432), cl 3; 2021 (441), cl 3; 2021 (452), cl 3(1) (2); 2021 (474), cl 3; 2021 (522), sec 3; 2021 (562), sec 3(4); 2021 (595), sec 3; 2021 (625), sec 3; 2021 (719), sec 3; 2021 (735), sec 3; 2022 (9), sec 3; 2022 (53), Sch 1[3] (am 2022 (52), sec 3) [4]; 2022 (63), sec 3; 2022 (242), sec 3. |
The whole Regulation | Am 2016 (78), Sch 1 [1] (“Director-General” and “Director-General’s” omitted wherever occurring, “Secretary” and “Secretary’s” inserted instead, respectively); 2018 No 25, Sch 1.21 (“water-cooling” omitted wherever occurring, “cooling water” inserted instead). |
0
0
0