Plant Breeder's Rights Regulations 1994 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
The notes at the end of this compilation (the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the Register for the compiled law.
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the Register for the compiled law.
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
These regulations are the
Plant Breeder’s Rights Regulations 1994 .
(1) In these Regulations, unless the contrary intention appears:
Act means thePlant Breeder’s Rights Act 1994 .authorised testing establishment means an establishment authorised under regulation 3A.expedited dispatch means a means of supplying copies or documents that can reasonably be expected usually to be faster than ordinary post.(2) In Schedule 1, a reference to a section or subsection, is a reference to that section or subsection of the Act.
For the purposes of section 9B of the Act, this regulation prescribes that the Act extends to Norfolk Island.
(1) For the purposes of conducting a test growing of a plant variety under section 37 of the Act, the Registrar may authorise, in writing, an establishment to conduct the test growing.
(2) An establishment may be authorised only if the Registrar is satisfied that it is capable of conducting a test growing of a variety in a manner appropriate to give effect to the obligations of Australia under the Convention.
(3) The Registrar must notify the operator of the establishment of:
(a) the Registrar’s decision whether to authorise the establishment; and
(b) if the decision is a refusal—the reasons for that decision.
(4) Subject to the
Administrative Review Tribunal Act 2024 , application may be made to the Administrative Review Tribunal for review of a decision of the Registrar to refuse to authorise an establishment.
For the purposes of subsection 41B(1) of the Act, a notification in the
Plant Varieties Journal of an application under section 41A of the Act for a declaration of essential derivation must include the following information about the applicant and the application:
(a) a description of the initial variety and the second variety;
(b) details, as stated in the application, of:
(i) the eligible person (within the meaning of section 41A of the Act) making the application; and
(ii) any person (or persons) the applicant reasonably believes to be the breeder of the second variety;
(c) any other information about those plant varieties, or the application, that the Registrar considers appropriate to publish, other than information that the Registrar is satisfied is commercial‑in‑confidence;
(d) details of the opportunity for a person (an
interested person ) claiming to be the breeder of the second variety, or to have another interest in the second variety, to be heard in relation to the application under section 41C of the Act, including the requirement under subsection 41C(2) of the Act to give the Registrar an address for service;(e) a statement to the effect that the Registrar may draw an inference in deciding the application that is unfavourable to an interested person’s interest if:
(i) the interested person does not provide an address for service, within the hearing period, under subsection 41C(2) of the Act; or
(ii) the interested person declines the opportunity to be heard under subsection 41C(6) of the Act.
Scope (1) This regulation is made for the purposes of subsection 41C(4) of the Act.
When information is given in accordance with an opportunity to be heard (2) Information is given by an interested person in accordance with the person’s opportunity to be heard in relation to an application under section 41A of the Act for a declaration of essential derivation if:
(a) the person gives the information:
(i) in a written submission made in accordance with a request of the Registrar under paragraph (3)(a); or
(ii) in the course of a hearing convened by the Registrar under subregulation (4); and
(b) the person pays the fee (if any) prescribed under subsection 80(2) of the Act in relation to the opportunity to be heard; and
(c) the person complies with any other requirements under this regulation.
Notification to give written submissions or to appear at a hearing (3) The Registrar must, unless the interested person declines the opportunity to be heard by giving notice to the Registrar under paragraph 41C(6)(a) of the Act, give a notification to the interested person including any or all of the following:
(a) a request to the interested person to give written submissions in relation to the application to the Registrar within a period, stated in the notification, of no less than 10 business days after the notification is given;
(b) a statement that, on request to the Registrar, a hearing may be convened in relation to the application, beginning at a place, at a time and on a date determined by the Registrar by a further notification (a
hearing notice ) to the person no less than 10 business days after the hearing notice is given;(c) a statement (a
hearing notice ) that a hearing will be convened by the Registrar in relation to the application beginning at a notified time and place, and on a notified date no less than 10 business days after the notification is given.Note: A hearing notice mentioned in paragraph (b) or (c) may include requirements for the interested person in relation to the hearing (see paragraph (5)(d) and subregulation (6)).
Hearings (4) The Registrar may convene a hearing in relation to the application as mentioned in paragraph (3)(b) or (c).
(5) For the purposes of the hearing:
(a) the interested person may appear in person, or participate by telephone or another means of telecommunication reasonably allowed by the Registrar; and
(b) the Registrar may adjourn the hearing from time to time or from place to place by notice to each interested person taking part; and
(c) the interested person must, if directed by the Registrar in a hearing notice, provide a written summary of submissions to be made at the hearing; and
(d) the interested person must, if required by a hearing notice, take reasonable steps to do any of the following before or at the hearing:
(i) perform an act;
(ii) file a document;
(iii) produce evidence; and
(e) the interested person must comply with any reasonable directions of the Registrar in relation to practice and procedure during the hearing.
(6) The Registrar may include a requirement for the purposes of paragraph (5)(d) in a hearing notice only if the Registrar reasonably believes it is necessary for the proper conduct of the hearing.
For subsection 59(3) of the Act, the Registrar may delegate all or any of the Registrar’s powers or functions under the Act or these Regulations, to an employee of the PBR office:
(a) holding, or performing the duties of, the position of Examiner of Plant Breeder’s Rights; or
(b) employed at any of the following levels:
(i) Executive level 1 or 2;
(ii) APS level 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6.
For subsection 59(4) of the Act, the class of employee to whom the Minister’s powers or functions may be delegated is an employee employed at Executive level 2.
Service by post is a prescribed means by which a document may be served on, or given or sent to, a person for the purposes of section 73 of the Act.
For subsection 76A(1) of the Act, the circumstance is that the act is done at:
(a) the PBR office; or
(b) the PBR sub‑office;
that was not open for business.
Note: Subsection 76A(1) provides as follows:
‘(1) If the last day of a period provided by this Act (except this section) or the regulations for doing an act is a day when the PBR office or a PBR sub‑office is not open for business, the act may be done in prescribed circumstances on the next day when the office or sub‑office is open for business.’.
(1) For paragraph 76A(2)(a) of the Act, the days on which the PBR office or PBR sub‑office is not open for business are:
(a) Saturday; and
(b) Sunday; and
(c) Australia Day; and
(d) Anzac Day.
(2) For paragraph 76A(2)(b) of the Act, the table sets out prescribed persons.
1 | The Director General of IP Australia |
2 | The Deputy Director General of IP Australia |
3 | Another person who: (a) is an SES employee of IP Australia; and
|
4 | Another person who: (a) is an SES employee of IP Australia; and
|
5 | Another person who: (a) is an SES employee of IP Australia; and
|
Note:
SES employee is explained in section 34 of thePublic Service Act 1999 . That meaning is applied generally to Commonwealth legislation by section 2B of theActs Interpretation Act 1901 .(3) For paragraph 76A(2)(b) of the Act, the prescribed way of publishing a declaration is in the Plant Varieties Journal.
For subsection 76A(7) of the Act, an act done in relation to proceedings in a court or a tribunal is prescribed.
Schedule 1 has effect.
Note: Schedule 1 prescribes fees, as mentioned in subsection 80(2) of the Act.
(1) This regulation applies if a request is made for a copy, or for the supply of documents, as mentioned in item 8, 12 or 12A of the table in clause 1 of Schedule 1.
(2) The Registrar must not supply the copy or documents by means of expedited dispatch unless:
(a) a request is made that the copy or document be supplied by means of expedited dispatch; and
(b) the fee mentioned in item 13 of that table for the request for expedited dispatch is paid.
The Registrar may exempt specified classes of persons from the payment of the whole or a part of a fee prescribed by Schedule 1 if the Registrar is reasonably satisfied that the exemption is justified, having regard to all the circumstances.
(1) If a person has paid, in respect of a matter, an amount greater than the prescribed fee for the matter, the Registrar may refund to the person so much of the amount as is excess to the fee.
(2) If a service in respect of which a person has paid a fee has not been provided, or has been provided only in part, the Registrar may refund the fee, or so much of the fee as is proportionate to the part of the service that has not been provided, as appropriate.
(3) If a person to whom a refund could be made under subregulation (1) or (2) agrees, the Registrar may remit, against a fee that the person subsequently becomes liable to pay, an amount equal to the amount that could be refunded.
(4) The Registrar must notify each person to whom subregulation (1) or (2) applies of:
(a) the Registrar’s decision whether to refund or remit an amount, a fee or part of a fee (as the case may be); and
(b) if the decision is a refusal—the reasons for that decision.
(5) Subject to the
Administrative Review Tribunal Act 2024 , application may be made to the Administrative Review Tribunal for review of a decision of the Registrar:(a) to refuse to refund:
(i) an amount paid in excess of a prescribed fee; or
(ii) a fee for a service that has not been provided; or
(iii) so much of a fee as is proportionate to the part of a service that has not been provided; or
(b) to refuse to remit an amount equal to an amount that could be refunded
Part 5 — Application, transitional and saving provisions 6 Application, saving and transitional provisions— Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Productivity Commission Response Part 1 and Other Measures) Regulations 2018 Amendments made by Part 2 of Schedule 2 (1) The amendments of regulations 3A and 5 made by Part 2 of Schedule 2 to the
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Productivity Commission Response Part 1 and Other Measures) Regulations 2018 apply in relation to notifications occurring on or after the commencement of that Part.Amendments made by Part 3 of Schedule 2 (2) The repeal of regulation 4A, and the amendment of items 4 and 15 of the table in clause 1 of Schedule 1, made by Part 3 of Schedule 2 to the
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Productivity Commission Response Part 1 and Other Measures) Regulations 2018 apply in relation to fees paid on or after the commencement of that Part.Amendments made by Part 11 of Schedule 2 (3) A thing done by, or in relation to, the Secretary under these Regulations before the commencement of Part 11 of Schedule 2 to the
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Productivity Commission Response Part 1 and Other Measures) Regulations 2018 has effect on and after that commencement as if it had been done by, or in relation to, the Registrar.
Note: See regulation 4.
The following table prescribes fees that are payable in relation to matters specified in the table.
1A | Designation of an approved person under section 8 | $350 |
1B | Renewal of designation of an approved person | $350 |
1 | On making a request under subsection 19(4), whether or not the request includes a request under subsection 19(10) | $500 |
2 | On making a request for a certificate under subsection 19(11) | $100 |
4 | On lodgment of an application under section 26: | |
(a) fee paid by preferred means; | $400 | |
(b) fee paid by another means | $600 | |
6 | On lodgment of a detailed description under section 34 for:
| |
| $1,400 | |
| $2,000 | |
| $2,000 | |
| $1,600 | |
7 | On lodgment of an objection under section 35 | $100 |
8 | On making a request for a copy of an application, an objection or a detailed description under subsection 36(2) | $50 |
9 | On lodgment of an application for a declaration of essential derivation under section 40 or 41A | $850 |
10 | Grant of PBR in a plant variety under section 44 | $500 |
11 | On lodgment of an application for: | |
| $500 | |
| $500 | |
12 | On making a request for a copy of an entry in the register under subsection 62(2) | $50 |
12A | On making a request for the supply of 4 or more documents relating to a single application for PBR in a plant variety or a single PBR in a plant variety | $200 for each request |
13 | If a request is made for a copy, or for the supply of documents, as mentioned in item 8, 12 or 12A—on making a request that the copy or documents be supplied by means of expedited dispatch | $20 for each request for a copy, or for supply of documents |
15 | For annual maintenance of a PBR—on each anniversary of the grant: | |
(a) fee paid by preferred means; | $600 | |
(b) fee paid by another means | $650 |
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
The
If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe how an amendment is to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, then the misdescribed amendment can be incorporated through an editorial change made under section 15V of the
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the amendment is not incorporated and “(md not incorp)” is added to the amendment history.
ad = added or inserted | o = order(s) |
am = amended | Ord = Ordinance |
amdt = amendment | orig = original |
c = clause(s) | par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
Ch = Chapter(s) | pres = present |
def = definition(s) | prev = previous |
Dict = Dictionary | (prev…) = previously |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | Pt = Part(s) |
Div = Division(s) | r = regulation(s)/rule(s) |
ed = editorial change | reloc = relocated |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | renum = renumbered |
effect | rep = repealed |
F = Federal Register of Legislation | rs = repealed and substituted |
gaz = gazette | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
LA = |
Sch = Schedule(s) | |
LIA = | Sdiv = Subdivision(s) |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
effect | SR = Statutory Rules |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
cannot be given effect | SubPt = Subpart(s) |
mod = modified/modification | |
No. = Number(s) | commenced or to be commenced |
352, 1994 | 18 Oct 1994 | 10 Nov 1994 (r 2) | |
353, 1994 | 18 Oct 1994 | 1 Jan 1995 (r 1.1) | — |
290, 1995 | 10 Oct 1995 | 10 Oct 1995 | — |
83, 1999 | 4 June 1999 | 4 June 1999 (r 2) | — |
355, 2006 | 15 Dec 2006 (F2006L03971) | Sch 3: 1 Mar 2007 (r 2) | — |
40, 2007 | 23 Mar 2007 (F2007L00650) | Sch 5: 27 Mar 2007 (r 2(a)) | — |
62, 2011 | 16 May 2011 (F2011L00773) | Sch 5: 1 July 2011 (r 2) | — |
217, 2011 | 29 Nov 2011 (F2011L02480) | Sch 1 (Pt 4): 27 Dec 2011 (r 2(a)) | — |
66, 2012 | 14 May 2012 (F2012L01031) | Sch 4 (Pt 1): 1 July 2012 (s 2(a)(v)) Sch 4 (Pt 2): 1 Oct 2012 (s 2(b)) | — |
Intellectual Property Legislation Amendment (Fee Review) Regulation 2016 | 19 Aug 2016 (F2016L01306) | Sch 1 (items 52–59): 10 Oct 2016 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Intellectual Property Legislation Amendment (Single Economic Market and Other Measures) Regulation 2016 | 14 Nov 2016 (F2016L01754) | Sch 3 (item 6): 24 Feb 2017 (s 2(1) item 2) Sch 6 (item 9): 1 July 2017 (s 2(1) item 5) | — |
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Productivity Commission Response Part 1 and Other Measures) Regulations 2018 | 16 Oct 2018 (F2018L01435) | Sch 1 (items 1, 2) and Sch 2 (items 59, 60, 139–141, 223–229): 24 Feb 2019 (s 2(1) items 2, 6, 7, 13) Sch 2 (item 235): 17 Oct 2018 (s 2(1) item 14) | — |
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Fee Exemptions) Regulations 2020 | 12 June 2020 (F2020L00703) | Sch 1 (item 1): 13 June 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Intellectual Property Laws Amendment (Fee Amounts and Other Measures) Regulations 2020 | 7 Aug 2020 (F2020L00997) | Sch 1 (items 36–49): 1 Oct 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Intellectual Property Legislation Amendment (Fee Amounts and Other Measures) Regulations 2024 | 2 Sept 2024 (F2024L01093) | Sch 1 (item 29): 1 Oct 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Administrative Review Tribunal Legislation Consequential Amendments (2024 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2024 | 11 Oct 2024 (F2024L01299) | Sch 9 (items 19–22): 14 Oct 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Part 1 heading............................. | ad F2020L00997 |
r 1............................................. | rs No 83, 1999 |
r 2............................................. | rep LA s 48D |
r 3............................................. | am No 290, 1995; No 66, 2012; F2016L01306; F2018L01435; F2020L00997 |
r 3AA........................................ | ad F2016L01754 |
Part 2 heading............................. | ad F2020L00997 |
r 3A........................................... | ad No 290, 1995 |
am No 83, 1999; F2018L01435; F2024L01299 | |
r 3BA......................................... | ad F2018L01435 |
r 3BB......................................... | ad F2018L01435 |
Part 3 heading............................. | ad F2020L00997 |
r 3B........................................... | ad No 40, 2007 |
r 3C........................................... | ad No 40, 2007 |
r 3D........................................... | ad No 40, 2007 |
rep F2018L01435 | |
Part 4 heading............................. | ad F2020L00997 |
Division 1 heading...................... | ad F2020L00997 |
r 3DA........................................ | ad F2016L01754 |
r 3E........................................... | ad No 40, 2007 |
r 3F............................................ | ad No 40, 2007 |
am No 62, 2011; No 217, 2011 | |
r 3G........................................... | ad No 40, 2007 |
Division 2 heading...................... | ad F2020L00997 |
r 4............................................. | am F2016L01306 |
rs F2020L00997 | |
r 4AA........................................ | ad F2020L00997 |
r 4 (second occurring).................. | ad No 290, 1995 |
rep No 83, 1999 | |
r 4A........................................... | ad No 66, 2012 |
am F2016L01306 | |
rep F2018L01435 | |
ad F2020L00703 | |
am F2020L00997 | |
r 5............................................. | ad No 83, 1999 |
am F2018L01435; F2024L01299 | |
Part 5 heading............................. | ad F2020L00997 |
r 6............................................. | ad F2018L01435 |
Schedule heading........................ | rs F2016L01306 |
renum F2016L01306 | |
Schedule.................................... | rs No 353, 1994 |
am No 290, 1995; No 355, 2006 | |
rs No 66, 2012 | |
Schedule 1 heading...................... (prev Schedule heading) | ad F2016L01306 |
Schedule 1.................................. | am F2016L01306; F2018L01435; F2020L00997; F2024L01093 |
0
0
0