Non-Indigenous Animals Regulation 2012 (NSW)
This Regulation is the Non-Indigenous Animals Regulation 2012.
This Regulation commences on 1 September 2012 and is required to be published on the NSW legislation website.
This Regulation replaces the Non-Indigenous Animals Regulation 2006 which is repealed on 1 September 2012 by section 10 (2) of the Subordinate Legislation Act 1989.
In this Regulation:
(a) of a species whose members ordinarily pose a significant risk of death or injury to any person (such as a tiger, lion or bear), or
(b) that, because of its particular disposition, health or other condition, poses a significant risk of death or injury to any person.
(a) in connection with the sale or intended sale of the animal, or
(b) for animal research, within the meaning of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(c) in circumstances declared by a regulation under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 not to constitute an exhibition of the animal for the purposes of that Act.
(a) is able to be permanently implanted in an animal, and
(b) is designed to transmit stored information when activated by a reader, and
(c) complies with the requirements of Australian Standard AS 5019–2001, Electronic animal identification—Radiofrequency methods, and
(d) contains a unique identification number that:
(i) complies with the requirements of Australian Standard AS 5018–2001, Electronic animal identification—National coding scheme, and
(ii) the first 3 digits of which are the manufacturer’s code, allocated to the manufacturer of the device by the International Committee for Animal Recording.
In this Regulation, a reference to a non-indigenous animal of a particular category is a reference to an animal that is classified by Schedule 1 as an animal of that category.
Notes included in this Regulation do not form part of this Regulation.
The following categories of non-indigenous animals are prescribed for the purposes of section 6 (a) of the Act:
(a) category 1a (animals of extreme pest potential, the importation and keeping of which is generally not permitted),
(b) category 1b (animals that have not been classified as belonging to any particular category, the importation and keeping of which is generally not permitted),
(c) category 2 (animals that pose an extreme or more serious threat to the environment, agriculture or persons, and that are restricted to being kept in licensed animal display establishments or by:
(i) a corporation that is accredited as a research establishment under section 20 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(ii) an individual who holds an animal research authority issued under section 25 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(iii) a person who holds an animal supplier’s licence issued under section 39 of the Animal Research Act 1985),
(d) category 3a (animals that pose a less serious or moderate threat to the environment, agriculture or persons, and that are restricted to being kept in licensed animal display establishments or by:
(i) a corporation that is accredited as a research establishment under section 20 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(ii) an individual who holds an animal research authority issued under section 25 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(iii) a person who holds an animal supplier’s licence issued under section 39 of the Animal Research Act 1985),
(e) category 3b (animals that have the potential to establish in the wild a population that would present a new threat to the environment, agriculture or persons or aggravate an existing threat and that may only be kept under licence),
(f) category 4 (animals that would be unlikely to present a threat to the environment, agriculture or persons or greatly worsen an existing threat if they escaped into the wild, the importation and keeping of which are not restricted),
(g) category 5 (animals that are already widespread pests and which, if they escaped into the wild, would be unlikely to greatly worsen an existing threat).
Categories 1a, 1b, 2, 3a and 3b are identified as controlled categories for the purposes of section 6 (b) of the Act.
Categories 1a, 1b, 2 and 3a are identified as higher-risk categories for the purposes of section 6 (c) of the Act.
Category 3b is identified as a lower-risk category for the purposes of section 6 (c) of the Act.
In this clause:
Under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986,
For the purposes of section 6A (1) (e) of the Act, the welfare of the animals concerned, having regard to sections 11 (Keeping of animals) and 12 (Movement of animals) of the Act, is identified as a factor, in addition to those specified in section 6A (1) (a)–(d) of the Act, on which the classification of animals is to be based.
The classification of non-indigenous animals for the purposes of section 6 (d) of the Act is as set out in Schedule 1.
Any species of non-indigenous animal that is not listed in Schedule 1 is classified as a category 1b animal.
A non-indigenous animal that is classified as both a category 4 and category 5 animal:
(a) is a category 4 animal if it is one of the domestic members of that species, and
(b) is a category 5 animal if it is one of the wild (including feral) members of that species.
The scientific names of the non-indigenous animals referred to in Schedule 1 are based on the following publications:
(a) for all Orders of amphibians—Frost, DR (2011), Amphibian Species of the World 5.5, an Online Reference, an electronic database accessible at American Museum of Natural History, New York, United States of America,
(b) for reptiles in the Orders CROCODYLIA and SPHENODONTIDA and in the Order SQUAMATA, Sub-order LACERTILIA—Sokolov VE, (ed) (1988) Dictionary of animal names in five languages: Latin, Russian, English, German, French. 12126 names. V.1: Amphibians and reptiles, Russkij Yazyk Pub, Moscow, Russian Federation,
(c) for reptiles in the Order CHELONIA—IUCN/SSC Tortoise and Freshwater Turtle Specialist Group (1991) Tortoises and Freshwater Turtles: An Action Plan for their Conservation, 2nd edition, International Union for Conservation of Nature/Species Survival Commission, Gland, Switzerland,
(d) for reptiles in the Order SQUAMATA, Sub-order SERPENTES—Mehrtens JM (1987) Living snakes of the world, Sterling Publishing Co Inc, New York, United States of America,
(e) for all Orders of mammals—Wilson DE and Reeder DM (eds) (2005) Mammal Species of the World: A Taxonomic and Geographic Reference, 3rd edition, Johns Hopkins University Press, Maryland, United States of America,
(f) for all Orders of birds—Sibley CG and Monroe BL (1990) Distribution and Taxonomy of Birds of the World, Yale University Press, New Haven, United States of America.
The following bodies are prescribed for the purposes of section 6A (3) of the Act:
(a) Associated Birdkeepers of Australia Incorporated,
(b) The Canary and Cage Bird Federation of Australia Incorporated,
(c) Birdlife Australia Limited, trading as BirdLife Australia.
A licensee must ensure that any licensed accommodation where a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is securely fenced and that appropriate and reasonable management practices are put in place to prevent the following:
(a) the escape or accidental release of the animal,
(b) the intentional release of the animal by unauthorised persons,
(c) unauthorised entry to the licensed accommodation by any persons.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
Such precautions are not required if the Director-General has approved in writing that they are not required.
A licensee must ensure that a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept in an enclosure that is constructed so as to minimise the risks of the following:
(a) injury to the public,
(b) injury to animal attendants exercising due care while in the enclosure,
(c) injury to any controlled category animal in the enclosure,
(d) escape from the enclosure by any controlled category animal.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that vegetation or other material in or near an enclosure where a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is positioned in such a way that it cannot assist a controlled category animal to escape.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that an enclosure in which a digging or burrowing animal that is a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is constructed:
(a) with an enclosing fence of galvanised steel mesh, stainless steel mesh or concrete that extends below ground level to a depth of at least 1 metre and then (at that depth) extends horizontally within the enclosure at least 1 metre, or
(b) with a subterranean floor consisting of concrete, galvanised steel mesh or stainless steel mesh that covers the entire floor area of the enclosure and an enclosing fence of galvanised steel mesh, stainless steel mesh or concrete that extends below ground level to a depth of at least 0.6 metre, or
(c) in such other manner as the Director-General has approved in writing as offering a similar degree of resistance to escape by the animal.
A licensee must ensure that the ground or floor of an enclosure in which a digging or burrowing animal that is a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is covered by sufficient soil to enable the animal to dig or burrow without escaping.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that any gate or door on the perimeter of an enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept opens inwards to the enclosure.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that any gate or door, including any sliding gate or door, on the perimeter of an enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is designed in such a way that:
(a) an animal in the enclosure cannot lift the gate or door off its hinges, or lift the sliding gate or door off its tracks, and
(b) an animal in the enclosure cannot unfasten the device that secures the gate or door.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that entry to an enclosure in which a higher-risk category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is by means of a safety entrance through successive gates or doors (which may be sliding gates or doors).
A licensee must ensure that all of those gates or doors are kept locked, by key or combination, except when a person is in the enclosure.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that, if an entrance to an enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept is a safety entrance through successive gates or doors, the gates or doors open inwards to the enclosure.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
This clause does not apply to enclosures in which only slow moving large reptiles or amphibians are kept.
A licensee must ensure that any gate or door, including any sliding gate or door, of an enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept that is power-operated is also capable of manual operation (from both within and outside the enclosure) without risk to the operator.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that the location from which a gate or door, including any sliding gate or door, of an enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept, or any other means of access to such an enclosure, is operated:
(a) is safely accessible, and
(b) allows a clear view of the gate or door or other means of access and the immediate area of the gate or door or other means of access.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that any gate or door on the perimeter of premises in which a higher-risk category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept:
(a) is constructed so that it cannot be lifted off its hinges, and
(b) is kept securely locked when a person is not in attendance at the premises.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that any gate or door on any enclosure (including a yard or paddock) within ungated premises:
(a) is constructed so that it cannot be lifted off its hinges, and
(b) is kept securely locked when a person is not in attendance at the premises.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
In this clause:
(a) in which a higher-risk category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept, and
(b) where there is no gate on the perimeter of the premises or where there is a gate but it is impractical to lock it.
A licensee must ensure that any lock on a gate or door on the perimeter of premises or on an enclosure (including a yard or paddock) within those premises in which higher-risk category animals the subject of the licensee’s licence are kept is designed in a way that will inhibit its removal using bolt-cutters or a similar portable tool.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must, in respect of any enclosure in which a dangerous animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept that is so constructed that contact between the animal and any person outside the enclosure is possible, ensure that a barrier is provided that:
(a) prevents contact between the animal and any person outside the enclosure, and
(b) makes it as difficult as is reasonably practicable for a person outside the enclosure to evade the barrier.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that a sign is displayed on any enclosure in which a controlled category animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept that has an electrified fence.
The licensee must ensure that such a sign:
(a) warns of the dangers of the electrified fence, using words, symbols or both, and
(b) is sufficient in size and legibility to give reasonable warning of the dangers.
The licensee must ensure that more than one such sign is displayed if necessary to give reasonable warning of the dangers.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that a sign is displayed on any enclosure in which a dangerous animal the subject of the licensee’s licence is kept.
The licensee must ensure that such a sign:
(a) warns of the dangers of the animal, using words, symbols or both, and
(b) is sufficient in size and legibility to give reasonable warning of the dangers.
The licensee must ensure that more than one such sign is displayed if necessary to give reasonable warning of the dangers.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must not use a dwelling for the keeping of a controlled category animal (other than
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
This clause does not apply:
(a) to a sick animal that is kept in a dwelling for intensive nursing for a short period, or
(b) to reptiles kept in a dwelling in circumstances approved in writing by the Director-General.
A licensee must ensure that a non-indigenous animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence is identified:
(a) by a microchip inserted in the animal:
(i) in accordance with the requirements of the relevant breed society or of the Zoo and Aquarium Association Inc., or
(ii) subcutaneously, to the left of the spine in between the scapulae (shoulder blades) of the animal, or
(b) in the case of an animal of the Order PRIMATES, as an alternative to microchipping—by an alphanumeric tattoo being placed on the animal, or
(c) in the case of
Bison bison (commonly known as American Bison or Buffalo),Bubalus bubalis (commonly known as Domestic Water Buffalo),Bos javanicus (commonly known as Banteng) orCamelus dromedarius (commonly known as Dromedary Camel or Arabian Camel) as an alternative to microchipping—by the attachment of an ear tag to the animal.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
This clause does not apply:
(a) to amphibians of the Family Dendrobatidae, or
(b) to an animal of the Order PRIMATES that was the subject of a licence immediately before 1 September 2012 and in relation to which a veterinary practitioner has certified that it is not in the interests of the welfare of the animal for a tattoo to be placed on the animal or for the animal to be microchipped.
A person who held a licence immediately before 1 September 2012 in relation to particular animals is not required to comply with this clause until 1 September 2015 in relation to those animals.
A licensee must provide the Director-General with a certificate, in relation to each non-indigenous animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence and that has been microchipped, in which a veterinary practitioner:
(a) certifies that the animal has been microchipped, and
(b) certifies that the microchip was functioning after implantation, and
(c) states the location of the microchip in the animal, and
(d) states the number of the microchip implanted in the animal.
A licensee must provide the Director-General with:
(a) a certificate, in relation to each non-indigenous animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence and that has been ear tagged, in which a veterinary practitioner:
(i) certifies that an ear tag has been attached to the animal, and
(ii) states the number of the ear tag attached to the animal, or
(b) such other documents that provide evidence, to the satisfaction of the Director-General, in relation to each non-indigenous animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence and that has been ear tagged:
(i) that an ear tag has been attached to the animal, and
(ii) of the number of the ear tag attached to the animal.
A licensee must provide the Director-General with:
(a) a certificate, in relation to each animal of the Order PRIMATES that is the subject of the licensee’s licence and that has been tattooed, in which a veterinary practitioner:
(i) certifies that an identification tattoo has been placed on the animal, and
(ii) describes the tattoo placed on the animal, or
(b) such other documents that provide evidence, to the satisfaction of the Director-General, in relation to each animal of the Order PRIMATES that is the subject of the licensee’s licence and that has been tattooed:
(i) that an identification tattoo has been placed on the animal, and
(ii) that describes the tattoo placed on the animal.
The certificate or document must be provided to the Director-General:
(a) within 7 days of the microchip, ear tag or tattoo having been inserted in, attached to or placed on the animal, or
(b) in the case of an animal that was already microchipped, ear tagged or tattooed when the licensee applied for the licence—within 14 days of the issue of the licence.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must ensure that, if a non-indigenous animal that is the subject of a licence has any offspring:
(a) the offspring is identified (when appropriate for the age and size of the animal) in accordance with clause 25, and
(b) information is provided about that identification to the Director-General, in accordance with clause 26.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must not cause or permit a non-indigenous animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence to breed with any other species of animal unless that breeding is part of an international breed protection program to which Australia is a signatory.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
This clause does not apply to prohibit the cross breeding of:
(a) an animal of the species
Bison bison (commonly known as American Bison or Buffalo), or(b) a first cross animal bred from an animal of the species
Bison bison (commonly known as American Bison or Buffalo) and an animal of the speciesBos taurus orBos indicus .
This clause does not apply to permit the cross breeding of animals of the Order PRIMATES.
A licensee must not cause or permit an animal of the Order PRIMATES that is the subject of a licence to breed unless:
(a) the licensee also holds a licence under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the use of premises as an animal display establishment (within the meaning of that Act) in relation to the animal, or
(b) the breeding is part of an Australasian Species Management Program conducted by the Zoo and Aquarium Association Inc, or
(c) the breeding is part of an approved Cooperative Conservation Program registered with the Commonwealth Department of Sustainability, Environment, Water, Population and Communities or any subsequent Commonwealth Department responsible for such registration.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must notify the Director-General of the death of any non-indigenous animal the subject of the licensee’s licence.
That notice must be given within 7 days after the licensee becomes aware of the death of the animal.
That notice must include any of the following evidence of the animal’s death:
(a) a certificate in which a veterinary practitioner certifies the animal is dead and states the number of the microchip, ear tag or tattoo (if any) for the animal,
(b) in the case of an animal identified with an ear tag that is killed at an abattoir—a copy of any record kept under the scheme for the identification of stock established under the Stock Diseases Act 1923,
(c) any other documents or items that provide evidence, to the satisfaction of the Director-General, of the death of the animal (for example, photographs confirming the animal is dead or the animal’s microchip or ear tag).
This clause does not apply to a category 3b animal.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee must notify the Director-General of the escape, theft or release of:
(a) a higher-risk category animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence—within 24 hours of the escape, theft or release of that animal, or
(b) a category 3b animal that is the subject of the licensee’s licence—within 7 days of the escape, theft or release of that animal.
That notice must include the following information:
(a) when the animal escaped, was stolen or was released,
(b) whether the animal has been recaptured,
(c) identification information relevant to the animal including the number of the microchip, ear tag or tattoo (if any) for the animal.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee who keeps only lower-risk category animals must inspect, or cause a person to inspect, the licensed accommodation at least once every 2 weeks to ensure that no animal has escaped or been stolen or released.
A licensee who keeps only lower-risk category animals and who attends, or causes another person to attend, the licensed accommodation only once every 2 weeks must keep, or cause to be kept, a record of every such inspection in a form that can be produced, on request, to the Director-General or an authorised officer.
This clause does not apply to a licensee who keeps only:
(a) category 3b animals that have been sterilised, or
(b) Camelus dromedarius (commonly known as Dromedary Camel or Arabian Camel) that are female or a mixture of females and animals that have been sterilised.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee who keeps any higher-risk category animals must inspect, or cause a person to inspect, the licensed accommodation at least once every 48 hours to ensure that no animal has escaped or been stolen or released.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A licensee who keeps any higher-risk category animals and who attends, or causes another person to attend, the licensed accommodation only once every 48 hours must keep, or cause to be kept, a record of every such inspection in a form that can be produced, on request, to the Director-General or an authorised officer.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
For the purposes of section 14 (1) of the Act, an application for the grant or renewal of a licence:
(a) must be in writing in the form approved by the Director-General for the purposes of section 14 (1), and
(b) must be accompanied by the supporting documentation (if any) required by the form or by the Director-General.
Section 307A of the Crimes Act 1900 makes it an offence to make a false or misleading statement (whether orally, in a document or in any other way) in connection with an application for a licence or permit.
For the purposes of section 15 (2) (g) of the Act, the following matters are prescribed as additional matters to which the Director-General must have regard in deciding whether to grant a licence or renewal:
(a) the life expectancy of any animal that is to be kept under the licence,
(b) the specialised care requirements of any animal that is to be kept under the licence,
(c) the general welfare of any animal that is to be kept under the licence,
(d) the security and care required for the animal that is to be kept under the licence,
(e) whether the number of licences in force that relate to certain species of animals should be restricted and, if it should be restricted, whether the grant of the licence or its renewal would violate that restriction,
(f) in the case of a licence to keep a higher-risk category animal where the applicant is an agent of the holder of a licence under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986:
(i) whether there is a written agreement between the agent and the institution that transfers the animal to the agent, and
(ii) whether the agreement contains a requirement that the agent must transfer the animal back to the institution on demand,
(g) in the case of an application for a licence to keep any higher-risk category animal:
(i) whether the applicant, immediately before 1 September 2012, held a licence under the Non-Indigenous Animals Act 1987 in relation to a higher-risk category animal, and
(ii) whether the applicant is accredited as a research establishment under the Animal Research Act 1985,
(h) whether the applicant is a party to a written lease agreement or other formal written arrangement with the owner of the licensed accommodation that provides the licensee with the following rights:
(i) the right to use the premises as accommodation for the animal kept under the authority of the licence,
(ii) the right to do anything on the premises that may be required under the Non-Indigenous Animals Act 1987 or this Regulation in relation to the use of the premises as licensed accommodation,
(iii) the right to invite authorised officers on to the premises,
(i) whether the applicant has made a statement or furnished information in connection with the application, or any previous application under section 14 of the Non-Indigenous Animals Act 1987, that was, in the opinion of the Director-General, false or misleading,
(j) whether the applicant resides in New South Wales or has a registered office in New South Wales,
(k) whether the applicant has previously held a licence that has been cancelled,
(l) whether the applicant has been convicted of an offence under:
(i) the Non-Indigenous Animals Act 1987 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(ii) the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1979 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(iii) any other law (whether of the State or of the Commonwealth or of another State or Territory) relating to the keeping or protection of animals.
In deciding whether to grant a renewal of a licence, the Director-General must also have regard to the following:
(a) whether the licensee has had an animal of the species to which the application relates in the licensee’s keeping at any time during the immediately preceding 12 months,
(b) whether the licensee has, in the opinion of the Director-General:
(i) failed to comply with a condition of the licence, or
(ii) failed to comply with, or ensure that the licensed accommodation complied with, a requirement or standard prescribed for the purposes of section 15 (2) (g) of the Act.
In deciding whether to grant a licence, in addition to the matters prescribed by subclause (1), the Director-General must have regard to whether the granting of the licence would be in accordance with the categories of non-indigenous animals prescribed by clause 4.
For the purposes of section 16 of the Act, the period prescribed as the period for which a licence is to be in force is the period from the day on which the licence is granted or renewed until the next licence expiry date.
In this clause:
For the purposes of section 18 (1) (b) of the Act, the holder of a licence must comply with the requirements and standards prescribed in Parts 3–5.
A licensee must, within 7 days after any of the following matters change, notify the Director-General of the change:
(a) the licensee’s contact details (including the licensee’s address and telephone numbers),
(b) the person in charge of any animal the subject of the licence,
(c) the contact details of the person in charge of an animal the subject of the licence (including the address and telephone numbers of the person in charge),
(d) the location of enclosures (including yards or paddocks) used to accommodate animals the subject of the licence in licensed accommodation,
(e) the construction or inclusion of new enclosures in licensed accommodation.
Maximum penalty: 10 penalty units.
A person is exempted from the operation of section 11 of the Act in relation to the keeping of a controlled category animal if the person holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the controlled category animal.
A person is exempted from the operation of section 11 of the Act in relation to the keeping of
(a) the animal has been implanted with a microchip or has an ear tag attached, and
(b) the animal is not kept in the Western Division established under the Crown Lands Act 1989.
For the purposes of section 19 (1) of the Act an application for the grant of a permit:
(a) must be in writing in the form approved by the Director-General for the purposes of section 19 (1), and
(b) must be accompanied by the supporting documentation (if any) required by the form or by the Director-General.
Section 307A of the Crimes Act 1900 makes it an offence to make a false or misleading statement (whether orally, in a document or in any other way) in connection with an application for a licence or permit.
The following persons, and persons acting on their behalf, are exempted from the operation of section 10 of the Act:
(a) in the case of the importation of a higher-risk category animal—a person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal,
(b) in the case of the importation of a category 3b animal:
(i) a person who owns the animal and who holds a completed transported stock statement (within the meaning of Part 9 of the Local Land Services Act 2013) in respect of the animal being imported, and
(ii) a person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal.
A person, and a person acting on the person’s behalf, is exempt from the operation of section 10 of the Act in the case of the importation of
(a) a corporation that is accredited as a research establishment under section 20 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(b) an individual who holds an animal research authority issued under section 25 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(c) a person who holds an animal supplier’s licence issued under section 39 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(d) a person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal.
A person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit a higher-risk category animal, and a person acting on behalf of such a person, is exempted from the operation of section 12 of the Act in the case of the movement or transportation of the higher-risk category animal.
A person, and a person acting on the person’s behalf, is exempt from the operation of section 12 of the Act in the case of the movement or transportation of
(a) the person has an animal of that species that needs to be moved or transported for the purpose of obtaining urgent veterinary treatment, or
(b) the person has an animal of that species that is microchipped and holds a certificate in which a veterinary practitioner certifies that the animal has been microchipped and sterilised, with such certificate being in the possession of the person at all times while the animal is being moved or transported, or
(c) the person:
(i) holds a licence under the Act in respect of the animal being moved or transported and that animal is being moved or transported to new licensed accommodation, and
(ii) has notified the Director-General of the following matters:
(A) that the animal is being moved to new licensed accommodation,
(B) the address of the new licensed accommodation,
(C) the date when the animal is being moved, or
(d) the person holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal.
A person, and a person acting on the person’s behalf, is exempt from the operation of section 12 of the Act in the case of the movement or transportation of
(a) a corporation that is accredited as a research establishment under section 20 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(b) an individual who holds an animal research authority issued under section 25 of the Animal Research Act 1985, or
(c) a person who holds an animal supplier’s licence issued under section 39 of the Animal Research Act 1985,
(d) a person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal.
The following persons, and persons acting on their behalf, are exempt from the operation of section 12 of the Act in the case of the movement or transportation of a category 3b animal:
(a) a person who owns the animal and who holds a completed transported stock statement (within the meaning of Part 9 of the Local Land Services Act 2013) in respect of the animal being moved or transported,
(b) a person who holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit the animal.
The prescribed qualifications for the purposes of section 7 (4) (g) of the Act are:
(a) that the person:
(i) keeps a prescribed collection of non-indigenous animals, or
(ii) is a member of an association or society that is involved in the keeping of non-indigenous animals and has been a member of such a body for at least 5 years, or
(iii) has a degree, conferred by a tertiary institution recognised by the Minister, in zoology or a related discipline, and
(b) that the person does not exhibit any animals, and
(c) that the person has no convictions for an offence under:
(i) the Non-Indigenous Animals Act 1987 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(ii) the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(iii) the National Parks and Wildlife Act 1974 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(iv) the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1979 (including any regulations under that Act), or
(v) any other law (whether of the State or of the Commonwealth or of another State or Territory) relating to the keeping or protection of animals.
In this clause:
(a) that includes classified animals in a category set out in clause 4, but not if all such animals are category 4 or 5 animals, and
(b) that is, in the opinion of the Minister, a substantial collection, and
(c) that is of a kind that the person has kept for at least 5 years.
The following organisations are prescribed for the purposes of section 7 (4) (h) of the Act:
(a) Associated Birdkeepers of Australia Incorporated,
(b) The Canary and Cage Bird Federation of Australia Incorporated.
For the purposes of section 14 (1A) of the Act, the prescribed fee relating to an application for a licence or the renewal of a licence, and the manner of paying that fee, is:
(a) in relation to an application that relates to higher-risk category animals that have not been sterilised (whether or not it also relates to category 3b animals), or that relates to a
Funambulus pennantii , commonly known as Northern Palm Squirrel, that is not the subject of a certificate in which a veterinary practitioner has certified that the animal has been microchipped or sterilised:(i) $600 for an initial licence (with $300 payable on the lodgment of the application for a licence and $300 payable for the issue of the licence), or
(ii) $360 for a renewed licence (with $180 payable on the lodgment of an application for renewal of a licence and $180 payable for the issue of a renewed licence), and
(b) in relation to an application that relates to higher-risk category animals (other than Northern Palm Squirrels) that the Director-General is satisfied have all been sterilised (whether or not it also relates to category 3b animals):
(i) $300 for an initial licence (with $200 payable on the lodgment of the application for a licence and $100 payable for the issue of the licence), or
(ii) $120 for a renewed licence (with $80 payable on the lodgment of an application for renewal of a licence and $40 payable for the issue of a renewed licence), and
(c) in relation to an application that relates to a Northern Palm Squirrel that is the subject of a certificate in which a veterinary practitioner certifies that the animal has been microchipped or sterilised:
(i) $180 for an initial licence (with $120 payable on the lodgment of the application for a licence and $60 payable for the issue of the licence), or
(ii) $120 for a renewed licence (with $80 payable on the lodgment of an application for renewal of a licence and $40 payable for the issue of a renewed licence), and
(d) in relation to an application that relates only to category 3b animals where the Director-General is satisfied that all animals that are to be the subject of the licence have been sterilised, or if all animals that are to be the subject of the licence are
Camelus dromedarius (commonly known as Dromedary Camel or Arabian Camel), that all of the animals are female or a mixture of animals that are female and animals that have been sterilised:(i) $120 for an initial licence (with $80 payable on the lodgment of the application for a licence and $40 payable for the issue of the licence), or
(ii) $90 for a renewed licence (with $60 payable on the lodgment of an application for renewal of a licence and $30 payable for the issue of a renewed licence), and
(e) in relation to an application that relates only to category 3b animals and to which paragraph (d) does not apply:
(i) $160 for an initial licence (with $100 payable on the lodgment of the application for a licence and $60 payable for the issue of the licence), or
(ii) $100 for a renewed licence (with $62.50 payable on the lodgment of an application for renewal of a licence and $37.50 payable for the issue of a renewed licence).
A fee payable under this clause for the issue of a licence (but not its renewal) is to be discounted by:
(a) one third, if the licence period is 1 year or more but less than 2 years, or
(b) two thirds, if the licence period is less than 1 year.
If a licence is not issued or renewed, only the fee for lodgment of the application for issue or renewal is payable and not the fee for the issue or renewal of the licence.
An application under section 19 (1) of the Act for a permit must be accompanied by a fee of $110.
The Director-General may waive or refund the whole or any part of a fee prescribed by clause 50 if the application relates to any higher-risk category animal and:
(a) the applicant holds an authority under the Exhibited Animals Protection Act 1986 that authorises the person to exhibit a controlled category animal, or
(b) the Director-General so decides.
For the purposes of section 21 of the Act, the kind of information to be contained in a return furnished by a licensee is the following:
(a) the numbers and species of animals kept by the licensee at the start of the period specified in the notice served on the licensee,
(b) the numbers and species of animals transferred by the licensee during that period,
(c) the names and licence numbers of the persons to whom the animals were transferred,
(d) the numbers and species of animals transferred to the licensee during that period,
(e) the names and licence numbers of the persons from whom the animals were transferred,
(f) the numbers and species of animals kept by the licensee that were born during that period,
(g) the numbers and species of animals kept by the licensee that died during that period,
(h) the microchip numbers, ear-tag numbers or tattoo numbers, (if any) of all animals listed on the return, including those of animals that died during that period.
Section 307B of the Crimes Act 1900 makes it an offence to give false or misleading information to a public authority where that information is given in compliance with a law of the State.
For the purposes of section 27A of the Act:
(a) each offence arising under a provision specified in Column 1 of Schedule 2 is prescribed as a penalty notice offence, and
(b) the prescribed penalty for such an offence is:
(i) in the case of an individual—the amount specified in Column 2 of Schedule 2 opposite the relevant provision, or
(ii) in the case of a corporation—the amount specified in Column 3 of Schedule 2 opposite the relevant provision.
For the purposes of section 28 of the Act, the following are prescribed as addresses for the service of notices required or authorised to be given to the Minister:
(a) The Minister
Non-Indigenous Animals Licensing
Department of Primary Industries
161 Kite Street
Orange NSW 2800
(b)
A notice or report required or authorised by the Act or this Regulation to be given to the Director-General may be delivered to either of the following addresses:
(a) The Director-General
Non-Indigenous Animals Licensing
Department of Primary Industries
161 Kite Street
Orange NSW 2800
(b)
Any act, matter or thing that, immediately before the repeal of the Non-Indigenous Animals Regulation 2006, had effect under that Regulation continues to have effect under this Regulation.
(Clause 6)
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
Cane Toad | 2 | |
Green Poison-arrow Frog; Green-and-black Poison Frog | 2 | |
Dyeing Poison-arrow Frog | 2 | |
African Clawed Frog | 2 | |
African Bullfrog | 3a | |
Romer’s Tree-frog | 2 | |
Axolotl | 4 | |
Japanese Salamander; Giant Salamander | 2 | |
Japanese Fire-bellied Newt; Red-bellied Newt | 2 | |
Rough-skinned Newt | 1a | |
Warty Newt; Crested Newt | 2 | |
Common Newt; Smooth Newt | 2 |
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
American Alligator | 2 | |
Brown Caiman | 2 | |
Philippine Crocodile | 2 | |
False Gavial; False Gharial; Malayan Gharial; Tomistoma | 1a | |
Cook Strait Tuatara; Stephen Island Tuatara | 2 | |
Common Snapping-turtle; Common Snapper | 2 | |
Alligator Snapping-turtle; Alligator Snapper | 2 | |
Reeve’s Turtle; Chinese Three-keeled Turtle | 2 | |
Painted Turtle | 2 | |
Yellow-margined Box-turtle | 2 | |
Spotted Turtle | 2 | |
Wood Turtle | 2 | |
Pacific Pond-turtle; Western Pond-turtle | 2 | |
Malayan Box-turtle | 2 | |
Chinese Three-striped Box-turtle | 2 | |
Common Map-turtle | 2 | |
False Map-turtle; Eastern Map-turtle | 2 | |
Texas Map-turtle | 2 | |
Spiny Turtle; Spiny Terrapin | 2 | |
Caspian Turtle | 2 | |
Common Cooter; Florida Slider | 2 | |
Painted Wood-turtle; Mexican Wood-turtle | 2 | |
Common Box-turtle | 2 | |
Ornate Box Turtle; Western Box Turtle | 1a | |
Red-eared Slider; Common Slider; Yellow-bellied Slider | 2 | |
Yellow Mud-turtle | 2 | |
Common Mud-turtle | 2 | |
Mexican Musk-turtle; Mexican Mud-turtle | 2 | |
Loggerhead Musk-turtle; Musk Turtle | 2 | |
Aldabra Tortoise; Aldabra Giant Tortoise | 3a | |
Bowsprit Tortoise | 3a | |
Chaco Tortoise | 2 | |
Brazilian Giant Tortoise; Forest Tortoise; South American Tortoise; South American Yellow-footed Tortoise; Yellow-footed Tortoise | 1a | |
Indian Star-tortoise | 3a | |
Galapagos Tortoise | 3a | |
Leopard Tortoise | 3a | |
Radiated Tortoise | 3a | |
African Spurred Tortoise | 3a | |
Desert Tortoise | 3a | |
Elongated Tortoise | 2 | |
Bell’s Hinged-back Tortoise | 3a | |
Giant Tortoise; Asian Tortoise; Burmese Brown Tortoise | 3a | |
Spur-thighed Tortoise; Greek Tortoise | 3a | |
Hermann’s Tortoise | 3a | |
Horsfield’s Tortoise; Russian Tortoise | 2 | |
Florida Softshell Turtle | 2 | |
Chinese Softshell Tortoise | 2 | |
Matamata | 2 | |
South American Snake-necked Turtle | 1a | |
Twist-necked Turtle | 2 | |
Philippine Water-lizard; Sail-fin Lizard | 2 | |
Veiled Chameleon | 2 | |
Jackson’s Chameleon | 2 | |
Giant Plated Lizard | 2 | |
Leopard Gecko; Fat-tailed Gecko | 2 | |
Bavay’s Gecko | 1a | |
Tokay; Tokay Gecko | 2 | |
Lined Gecko; Striped Gecko | 1a | |
Guadalcanal Bow-fingered Gecko | 1a | |
Cheechak; House Gecko | 2 | |
Indopacific Gecko; Spiny Gecko | 1a | |
Pelagic Gecko | 1a | |
Madagascar Gecko | 2 | |
Eared Caledonian Gecko; New Caledonian Bumpy Gecko | 2 | |
Guichenot’s Giant Gecko | 1a | |
Cuvier’s Caledonian Gecko; New Caledonian Giant Gecko | 2 | |
Roux’s Giant Gecko | 1a | |
Gila Monster | 3a | |
Double-crested Basilisk | 2 | |
Fijian Iguanas | 2 | |
Rhinoceros Iguana | 3a | |
Common Iguana; Green Iguana | 3a | |
Jewelled Lizard; Ocellated Lizard | 2 | |
Green Lizard; Emerald Lizard | 2 | |
Yellow-throated Emo Skink | 1a | |
Greer’s Island Skink | 1a | |
Scincid Skink; Meiers Skink | 1a | |
Green Tree Skink | 1a | |
Scincid Skink; Elegant Forest Skink | 1a | |
Giant Blue-tongued Skink | 1a | |
Crocodile Skink | 1a | |
Scincid Lizard | 1a | |
New Caledonian Scincid Lizard | 1a | |
Peachthroat Monitor; Schmidt’s Monitor; Sepik Monitor | 1a | |
Komodo Dragon | 3a | |
Salvadori’s Monitor; Papuan Monitor | 2 | |
Javan File-snake | 2 | |
Boa Constrictor | 3a | |
Pacific Boas | 2 | |
Emerald Tree Boa | 2 | |
Garden Boa; Tree Boa; Cook’s Tree Boa | 2 | |
Rainbow Boa | 2 | |
Anaconda; Green Anaconda | 3a | |
Yellow Anaconda | 3a | |
Papuan Olive Python | 1a | |
Bismarck Ringed Python | 2 | |
Black Python; Boelen’s Python | 1a | |
Blood Python; Short Python | 2 | |
Indian Python | 2 | |
Ball Python | 2 | |
Reticulated Python | 2 | |
African Rock Python | 2 | |
Timor Python | 1a | |
Mangrove Snake | 2 | |
Indigo Snake | 2 | |
Taiwan Stink Snake | 1a | |
Corn Snake; Red Rat-snake | 2 | |
Black Rat-snake | 2 | |
Four-lined Rat-snake | 2 | |
Russian Rat-snake | 2 | |
Taiwan Beauty Snake; Stripe-tailed Rat-snake | 2 | |
Southern Hog-nosed Snake | 1a | |
Grey-banded Kingsnake | 1a | |
King Snake | 2 | |
Grey-banded King Snake; Mexican King Snake | 2 | |
Milk Snake; Scarlet King Snake | 2 | |
Common Wolf Snake | 1a | |
Pine Snake; Pine Gopher Snake | 2 | |
Ringhal’s Cobra | 2 | |
Crocker’s Sea Snake | 1a | |
Orange-banded Snake; Solomons Small-eyed Snake | 1a | |
Pacific Coral Snake | 1a | |
Egyptian Cobra | 2 | |
Forest Cobra; White-lipped Cobra | 2 | |
Mozambique Spitting Cobra | 2 | |
Indian Cobra | 2 | |
Monocled Cobra | 2 | |
King Cobra | 2 | |
Hediger’s Snake | 1a | |
Papuan Brown Snake | 1a | |
Flat-tailed Sea Snake | 2 | |
Solomon Islands Brown Snake; Solomons Coral Snake | 1a | |
Cantil | 2 | |
Northern Copperhead | 2 | |
Water Moccasin; Cottonmouth | 2 | |
Eye-lash Viper | 2 | |
Puff Adder | 1a | |
Gaboon Viper | 2 | |
Rhinoceros Viper | 2 | |
Eastern Diamondback Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Western Diamondback Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Mexican Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Rock Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Red Diamond Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Uracoan Rattlesnake | 1a | |
Prairie Rattlesnake | 2 | |
Russel’s Viper | 2 | |
Urutu | 2 | |
Massasauga | 2 | |
Sand Adder; Sand Viper | 2 | |
Lataste’s Viper | 1a |
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
Long-beaked Echidnas; Long-nosed Echidnas | 2 |
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
Grey Short-tailed Opossum; South American Short-tailed Opossum | 1a | |
Black-tailed Antechinus | 1a | |
Long-nosed Antechinus | 1a | |
New Guinea Quoll | 2 | |
Short-haired Marsupial Mouse; Short-furred Dasyure | 1a | |
Three-striped Dasyure | 1a | |
Speckled Dasyure | 1a | |
Narrow-striped Marsupial Shrew | 1a | |
Striped Bandicoot | 1a | |
Doria’s Tree-kangaroo | 3a | |
Goodfellow’s Tree-kangaroo | 3a | |
Matschie’s Tree-kangaroo | 3a | |
Grey Dorcopsis | 3a | |
Great-tailed Triok | 1a | |
Sugar Glider | 2 | |
Ground Cuscus | 2 |
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
Aardvark | 2 | |
Rock Hyrax | 1a | |
Asian Elephant; Asiatic Elephant | 3a | |
African Elephant; African Bush Elephant | 3a | |
Big Hairy Armadillo | 3a | |
Long-nosed Armadillo; Nine-banded Armadillo | 2 | |
Two-toed Sloth; Hoffmann’s Two-toed Sloth | 3a | |
Giant Anteater | 2 | |
Northern Treeshrew | 1a | |
Common Tree shrew | 2 | |
Northern Night-monkey; Three-striped Night Monkey | 2 | |
Long-haired Spider-monkey; White-bellied Spider-monkey | 2 | |
Brown-headed Spider-monkey | 2 | |
Black-handed Spider-monkey | 3a | |
Black Spider-monkey | 2 | |
Common Marmoset | 3a | |
Pygmy Marmoset | 2 | |
Brown Pale-fronted Capuchin; White-fronted Capuchin | 2 | |
Black-capped Capuchin; Tufted Capuchin | 2 | |
Golden Lion Tamarin | 3a | |
Saddle-backed Tamarin; Brown-mouthed Tamarin | 2 | |
Emperor Tamarin | 3a | |
Red-bellied Tamarin; White-lipped Tamarin | 2 | |
Red-handed Tamarin; Golden-handed Tamarin | 3a | |
Moustached Tamarin | 2 | |
Cotton-top Tamarin | 3a | |
Bolivian Squirrel-monkey | 2 | |
Common Squirrel-monkey | 2 | |
Diana Monkey | 2 | |
Blue Monkey; Diademed Monkey; Gentle Monkey; Sykes’s Monkey | 1a | |
De Brazza’s Monkey | 3a | |
Lesser Spot-nosed Guenon | 2 | |
Savannah Monkey; Vervet; Green Monkey; Grivet | 2 | |
Patas Monkey | 2 | |
Black Mangabey; Crested Mangabey; White-cheeked Mangabey | 2 | |
Bear Macaque; Stump-tailed Macaque | 3a | |
Crab-eating Macaque; Long-tailed Macaque | 3a | |
Japanese Macaque | 3a | |
Moor Macaque; Celebes Macaque | 3a | |
Rhesus Macaque | 2 | |
Pig-tailed Macaque; Pigtail Macaque | 3a | |
Celebes Ape; Celebes Black Macaque; Crested Macaque | 3a | |
Bonnet Macaque | 2 | |
Liontail Macaque; Lion-tailed Macaque | 3a | |
Tonkean Macaque | 1a | |
Mandrill | 2 | |
Talapoin | 3a | |
Baboon; Hamadryas Baboon; Olive Baboon; Yellow Baboon; Guinea Baboon; Chacma Baboon | 3a | |
Gelada; Gelada Baboon | 3a | |
Eastern Black-and-white Colobus; Abyssinian Guereza; Guereza |
3a | ||
Banded Leaf-monkey | 1a | |
Entellus Langur; Hanuman Langur | 2 | |
Ebony Langur; Ebony Leaf-monkey; Javan Lutung | 1a | |
Silvered Leaf-monkey; Silvered Langur | 2 | |
François’s Langur; François’s Leaf-monkey; Tonkin Leaf Monkey | 3a | |
Dusky Leaf-monkey | 2 | |
Purple-faced Leaf-monkey | 2 | |
Northern Lesser Bushbaby | 2 | |
Thick-tailed Bushbaby; Brown Greater Galago | 2 | |
Gorilla | 3a | |
Chimpanzee | 3a | |
Orangutan; Orang-utan; Orang-hutan | 3a | |
Hoolock Gibbon; White-browed Gibbon | 2 | |
Dark-handed Gibbon; Agile Gibbon | 2 | |
Kloss’s Gibbon | 2 | |
White-handed Gibbon; Common Gibbon | 3a | |
Javan Gibbon; Silvery Gibbon | 3a | |
Bornean Gibbon; Muller’s Gibbon | 3a | |
Black Gibbon; Crested Gibbon | 2 | |
White-cheeked Gibbon | 3a | |
Siamang | 3a | |
Brown Lemur | 2 | |
Black Lemur | 2 | |
Mongoose Lemur | 3a | |
Ring-tailed Lemur | 3a | |
Ruffed Lemur | 3a | |
Slender Loris | 2 | |
Slow Loris; Sunda Loris | 2 | |
American Beaver | 2 | |
Domestic Guinea-pig | 4 | |
Patagonian Cavy | 3a | |
Common Hamster | 1a | |
Golden Hamster | 1a | |
Azara’s Agouti | 2 | |
Brazilian Agouti | 3a | |
Capybara | 2 | |
African Porcupine; Crested Porcupine | 2 | |
Indian Crested Porcupine | 2 | |
Cairo Spiny Mouse | 1a | |
House Mouse | 4 &5 | |
Brown Rat | 4 &5 | |
Black Rat | 4 &5 | |
Spring Hare | 1a | |
Giant Squirrels; Beautiful Squirrels | 2 | |
Black-tailed Prairie-dog | 2 | |
Northern Palm Squirrel | 2 | |
Chipmunks | 2 | |
European Hare | 5 | |
European Rabbit | 4 &5 | |
European Hedgehog; West European Hedgehog; Eurasian Hedgehog | 2 | |
Coyote | 2 | |
Wolf | 2 | |
Domestic Dog | 4 &5 | |
Black-backed Jackal | 2 | |
Maned Wolf | 3a | |
Dhole; Red Dog | 3a | |
Hunting Dog; African Hunting Dog | 2 | |
Raccoon Dog | 2 | |
Red Fox; European Red Fox | 5 | |
Fennec Fox | 3a | |
Cheetah | 3a | |
Caracal | 2 | |
Asian Golden Cat | 2 | |
Jungle Cat | 2 | |
Domestic Cat | 4 &5 | |
Jaguaroundi | 2 | |
Ocelot | 2 | |
Margay | 2 | |
Serval | 2 | |
Eurasian Lynx | 2 | |
Bobcat | 2 | |
Geoffroy’s Cat | 2 | |
Pallas’s Cat | 2 | |
Leopard Cat | 2 | |
Fishing Cat | 2 | |
Puma | 2 | |
Clouded Leopard | 2 | |
Lion | 3a | |
Jaguar | 2 | |
Leopard | 2 | |
Tiger | 3a | |
Snow Leopard | 3a | |
Dwarf Mongoose | 2 | |
Slender-tailed Meerkat | 3a | |
Spotted Hyena; Spotted Hyaena | 2 | |
Striped Hyena; Striped Hyaena | 2 | |
Striped Skunk | 2 | |
Oriental Small-clawed Otter | 3a | |
North American Otter | 2 | |
Smooth-coated Otter | 2 | |
Tayra | 2 | |
Eurasian Badger; Old World Badger | 2 | |
Ferret | 4 | |
Californian Sea-lion | 3a | |
Harbour Seal | 3a | |
Kinkajou | 2 | |
Coati | 2 | |
Common Raccoon; Northern Raccoon | 2 | |
Red Panda; Lesser Panda | 3a | |
Giant Panda | 3a | |
Sun Bear | 3a | |
American Black Bear | 3a | |
Brown Bear | 3a | |
Polar Bear | 3a | |
Asiatic Black Bear | 3a | |
Binturong | 2 | |
Three-striped Palm-civet; Small-toothed Palm-civet | 2 | |
Rusty-spotted Genet | 2 | |
Donkey | 4 | |
Common Zebra; Burchell’s Zebra; Plains Zebra | 2 | |
Domestic Horse | 4 &5 | |
Przewalski’s Horse | 3a | |
Grevy’s Zebra | 2 | |
Onager | 2 | |
White Rhinoceros | 3a | |
Black Rhinoceros | 3a | |
Indian Rhinoceros | 2 | |
Malayan Tapir | 2 | |
Brazilian Tapir | 3a | |
Springbok; Angolan Springbuck | 1a | |
Blackbuck | 3b | |
Addra Gazelle; Dama Gazelle | 2 | |
Grant’s Gazelle | 2 | |
American Bison; Buffalo; includes first generation cross-breeds of | 3b | |
Domestic Yak | 2 | |
Banteng | 3b | |
Domestic Cattle | 4 &5 | |
Nilgai | 3a | |
Domestic Water Buffalo | 3b | |
Congo Buffalo; African Buffalo | 2 | |
Common Eland | 3a | |
Lowland Nyala | 2 | |
Bongo | 2 | |
Sitatunga | 2 | |
Greater Kudu | 2 | |
Barbary Sheep | 3a | |
Domestic Goat | 4 &5 | |
Himalayan Tahr | 3a | |
Domestic Sheep | 4 &5 | |
Chamois | 2 | |
Addax | 2 | |
Sable Antelope | 2 | |
Scimitar-horned Oryx | 3a | |
Gemsbok | 2 | |
Arabian Oryx | 2 | |
Waterbuck | 2 | |
Kafue Lechwe | 2 | |
Dromedary Camel; Arabian Camel | 3b | |
Domestic Llama; Llama | 4 | |
Guanaco | 3b | |
Domestic Alpaca; Alpaca | 4 | |
Spotted Deer; Chital | 4 &5 | |
Hog Deer | 4 &5 | |
Red Deer; Wapiti; Elk | 4 &5 | |
Sika Deer | 1a | |
Rusa Deer; Timor Deer | 4 &5 | |
Sambar | 4 &5 | |
Fallow Deer | 4 &5 | |
Muntjak; Indian Muntjak | 3a | |
White-tailed Deer | 2 | |
Giraffe | 3a | |
Pygmy Hippopotamus | 2 | |
Common Hippopotamus | 2 | |
Babyrusa | 3a | |
Wild Boar | 5 | |
Domestic Pig | 4 &5 | |
Collared Peccary | 2 |
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Scientific name | Common name | Category |
Mandarin Duck | 4 | |
Wood Duck | 4 | |
Egyptian Goose | 4 | |
Mallard and all strains of domestic duck | 4 | |
Greylag goose and all domestic strains of geese | 4 | |
Chinese Goose; Swan Goose | 4 | |
New Zealand Scaup | 4 | |
Canada Goose | 4 | |
Muscovy Duck | 4 | |
Mute Swan | 4 | |
Ruddy Shelduck | 4 | |
Paradise Shelduck | 4 | |
Andean Condor | 4 | |
Nicobar Pigeon | 4 | |
Rock Pigeon; Common Pigeon | 4 | |
Talpacoti Dove; Ruddy Ground-dove | 4 | |
White Bibbed Ground-dove | 4 | |
Luzon Bleeding-heart Pigeon | 4 | |
Victoria Crowned Pigeon | 4 | |
New Zealand Pigeon | 4 | |
Masked Dove; Harlequin Dove; Namaqua Dove | 4 | |
Ringed Turtle Dove; Barbary Dove | 4 | |
Spotted Dove | 4 | |
Laughing Dove | 4 | |
Red Collared-dove | 4 | |
Razor-billed Curassow | 4 | |
Helmeted Guineafowl | 4 | |
Northern Bobwhite | 4 | |
California Quail | 4 | |
Chukar Partridge | 4 | |
Lady Amherst’s Pheasant | 4 | |
Golden Pheasant | 4 | |
King Quail; Chinese Painted Quail | 4 | |
Common Quail | 4 | |
Japanese Quail | 4 | |
Black Francolin | 4 | |
Red Junglefowl and all strains of domestic chicken | 4 | |
Himalayan Monal | 4 | |
Siamese Fireback Pheasant | 4 | |
Edward’s Pheasant | 4 | |
Kalij Pheasant | 4 | |
Silver Pheasant | 4 | |
Swinhoe’s Pheasant | 4 | |
Turkey | 4 | |
Indian Peafowl | 4 | |
Green Peafowl | 4 | |
Common Pheasant | 4 | |
Reeve’s Pheasant | 4 | |
Common Skylark | 4 | |
Red-headed Finch | 4 | |
Cut-throat Finch | 4 | |
Red Avadavat | 4 | |
Bombay Avadavat | 4 | |
Green Avadavat | 4 | |
Zebra Waxbill | 4 | |
Red-headed Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Tawny-breasted Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Fiji Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Pin-tailed Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Red-throated Parrotfinch; Red headed Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Blue-faced Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Tricolored Parrotfinch | 4 | |
Blue-faced Parrotfinch x Tricolored Parrotfinch | 4 | |
St Helena Waxbill; Common Waxbill | 4 | |
Orange-cheeked Waxbill | 4 | |
Black-rumped Waxbill | 4 | |
Dybowski’s Twinspot | 4 | |
Peters’s Twinspot | 4 | |
African Firefinch | 4 | |
Red-billed Firefinch | 4 | |
Red-backed Munia | 4 | |
Silverbill | 4 | |
Bengalese Mannikin; Society Finch | 4 | |
Grey-headed Silverbill | 4 | |
White-bellied Munia; Javan Munia | 4 | |
White-headed Munia | 4 | |
White-throated Silverbill | 4 | |
Southern Black-headed Munia | 4 | |
Chestnut Munia | 4 | |
Indian Black-headed Munia | 4 | |
Spice Finch; Scaly-breasted Munia | 4 | |
White-rumped Munia | 4 | |
Green-backed Twinspot | 4 | |
Java Sparrow | 4 | |
Eurasian Linnet | 4 | |
European Goldfinch | 4 | |
European Greenfinch | 4 | |
Red Siskin | 4 | |
Common Redpoll | 4 | |
Hooded Siskin | 4 | |
Black-headed Siskin | 4 | |
Oriental Greenfinch | 4 | |
Yellow-breasted Greenfinch | 4 | |
Eurasian Siskin | 4 | |
Yellow-rumped Siskin | 4 | |
House Finch | 4 | |
Purple Finch | 4 | |
Red-crested Finch | 4 | |
Yellowhammer | 4 | |
Chaffinch | 4 | |
Red-crested Cardinal | 4 | |
Southern Yellow-rumped Seedeater | 4 | |
Canary | 4 | |
White-bellied Canary | 4 | |
White-bellied Canary x Abyssinian Yellow-rumped Seedeater | 4 | |
Yellow Canary | 4 | |
White-rumped Seedeater | 4 | |
Yellow-fronted Canary | 4 | |
European Serin | 4 | |
Abyssinian Yellow-rumped Seedeater | 4 | |
Saffron Finch | 4 | |
Cuban Grassquit | 4 | |
Blue-black Grassquit | 4 | |
White-rumped Shama | 4 | |
Oriental Magpie Robin | 4 | |
Eurasian Blackbird | 4 | |
Song Thrush | 4 | |
House Sparrow | 4 | |
Plain-backed Sparrow | 4 | |
Sudan Golden Sparrow | 4 | |
Eurasian Tree Sparrow | 4 | |
Yellow-winged Pytilia; Red-faced Aurora Finch | 4 | |
Green-winged Pytilia; Melba Finch | 4 | |
Red-winged Pytilia; Aurora Finch | 4 | |
Blue-breasted Cordonbleu | 4 | |
Red-cheeked Cordonbleu | 4 | |
Blue-capped Cordonbleu | 4 | |
Common Grenadier | 4 | |
Purple Grenadier | 4 | |
Yellow-crowned Bishop | 4 | |
Red-shouldered Whydah, Fan-tailed Widow-bird | 4 | |
Orange Bishop Weaver | 4 | |
Red Bishop Weaver; Grenadier Weaver | 4 | |
Red-headed Fody | 4 | |
Madagascar Fody | 4 | |
Red-whiskered Bulbul | 4 | |
Common Myna | 4 | |
Common Starling | 4 | |
Silver-eared Mesia | 4 | |
Red-billed Leiothrix | 4 | |
Pin-tailed Whydah | 4 | |
Chilean Flamingo | 4 | |
Greater Flamingo | 4 | |
Fischer’s Lovebird | 4 | |
Lilian’s Lovebird | 4 | |
Black-cheeked Lovebird | 4 | |
Yellow-collared Lovebird | 4 | |
Peach-faced Lovebird | 4 | |
Moluccan King-parrot | 4 | |
Blue-fronted Parrot | 4 | |
White-fronted Parrot | 4 | |
Orange-winged Parrot | 4 | |
Yellow-naped Parrot | 4 | |
Red-lored Parrot | 4 | |
Lilac-crowned Parrot | 4 | |
Cuban Parrot | 4 | |
Yellow-crowned Parrot | 4 | |
Yellow-headed Parrot | 4 | |
Red-spectacled Parrot | 4 | |
Red-crowned Parrot | 4 | |
Yellow-faced Parrot | 4 | |
Hyacinth Macaw | 4 | |
Great Green Macaw | 4 | |
Blue-and-gold Macaw | 4 | |
Blue-and-gold Macaw x Red-and-green Macaw | 4 | |
Yellow-collared Macaw | 4 | |
Red-and-green Macaw | 4 | |
Scarlet Macaw | 4 | |
Red-bellied Macaw | 4 | |
Blue-winged Macaw | 4 | |
Military Macaw | 4 | |
Red-shouldered Macaw | 4 | |
Red-fronted Macaw | 4 | |
Chestnut-fronted Macaw | 4 | |
Blue-crowned Parakeet | 4 | |
Peach-fronted Parakeet | 4 | |
Golden-capped Parakeet | 4 | |
Golden-capped Parakeet x Jandaya Parakeet | 4 | |
Jandaya Parakeet | 4 | |
Sun Parakeet | 4 | |
Dusky-headed Conure | 4 | |
Barred Parakeet | 4 | |
White Cockatoo | 4 | |
Tanimbar Cockatoo | 4 | |
Salmon-crested Cockatoo | 4 | |
Yellow-crested Cockatoo | 4 | |
Black Lory | 4 | |
Black Lory x Rainbow Lorikeet | 4 | |
Cardinal Lory | 4 | |
Cardinal Lory x Rainbow Lorikeet | 4 | |
Brown Lory | 4 | |
Yellow-streaked Lory | 4 | |
Papuan Lorikeet | 4 | |
Burrowing Parakeet | 4 | |
Yellow-fronted Parakeet | 4 | |
Red-fronted Parakeet; Red-crowned Parakeet | 4 | |
Antipodes Island Parakeet | 4 | |
Red-fan Parrot | 4 | |
Eclectus Parrot | 4 | |
Red-sided Eclectus Parrot | 4 | |
Solomon Island Eclectus Parrot | 4 | |
Vosmaer’s Eclectus | 4 | |
Red Lory | 4 | |
Black-winged Lory | 4 | |
Red-and-blue Lory | 4 | |
Blue-streaked Lory | 4 | |
Blue-eared Lory | 4 | |
Violet-necked Lory | 4 | |
Pacific Parrotlet | 4 | |
Golden Parakeet | 4 | |
Blue-crowned Hanging-parrot | 4 | |
Yellow-bibbed Lory | 4 | |
Purple-naped Lory | 4 | |
Chattering Lory | 4 | |
Black-capped Lory | 4 | |
Monk Parakeet | 4 | |
Nanday Parakeet | 4 | |
Yellow-billed Lorikeet | 4 | |
Kea | 4 | |
Collared Lory | 4 | |
White-bellied Parrot | 4 | |
Black-headed Parrot | 4 | |
Bronze-winged Parrot | 4 | |
White-crowned Parrot | 4 | |
Red-fronted Parrot | 4 | |
Meyers Parrot | 4 | |
Brown-necked Parrot | 4 | |
Red-bellied Parrot | 4 | |
Senegal Parrot | 4 | |
Masked Shining-parrot | 4 | |
Red Shining-parrot | 4 | |
Dusky Lory | 4 | |
Red-breasted Parakeet | 4 | |
Malabar Parakeet | 4 | |
Plum-headed Parakeet | 4 | |
Derbyan Parakeet | 4 | |
Alexandrine Parakeet | 4 | |
Slaty-headed Parakeet | 4 | |
Indian Ring-necked Parakeet; Rose-ringed Parakeet | 4 | |
Blossom-headed Parakeet | 4 | |
African Grey Parrot | 4 | |
Goldie’s Lorikeet | 4 | |
Blue-throated Conure | 4 | |
Fiery-shouldered Parakeet | 4 | |
Maroon-bellied Parakeet | 4 | |
White-eared Parakeet | 4 | |
Maroon-tailed Parakeet | 4 | |
Green-cheeked Parakeet | 4 | |
Pearly Parakeet | 4 | |
Painted Parakeet | 4 | |
Crimson-bellied Parakeet | 4 | |
Black-capped Parakeet | 4 | |
Thick-billed Parrot | 4 | |
Olive-headed Lorikeet | 4 | |
Rainbow Lorikeet | 4 | |
Mindanao Lorikeet | 4 | |
Ornate Lorikeet | 4 | |
Brown Kiwi | 4 | |
Greater Rhea | 4 | |
Ostrich | 4 |
(Clause 64)
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Offence | Penalty (individuals) | Penalty (corporations) |
Section 10 (1) | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 10 (2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 11 (1) | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 11 (2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 12 (1) | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 12 (2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 13 (1) | $550 | $1,100 |
Section 13 (2) | $220 | $440 |
Section 13 (3) | $220 | $440 |
Section 21 (2) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 8 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 9 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 10 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 11 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 12 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 13 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 14 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 15 (1) | $110 | $220 |
Clause 16 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 17 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 18 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 19 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 20 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 21 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 22 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 23 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 24 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 25 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 26 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 27 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 28 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 29 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 30 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 31 | $220 | $440 |
Clause 32 | $110 | $220 |
Clause 33 (1) | $220 | $440 |
Clause 33 (2) | $110 | $220 |
Clause 38 | $110 | $220 |
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