National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 4) (Cth)
PB 38 of 2021
National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2021
(No. 4)
National Health Act 1953
________________________________________________________________________
I, THEA CONNOLLY, Assistant Secretary, Pricing and PBS Policy Branch, Technology Assessment and Access Division, Department of Health, delegate of the Minister for Health and Aged Care, make this Instrument under sections 84AF, 84AK, 85, 85A, 88 and 101 of the National Health Act 1953.
Dated 28 April 2021
THEA CONNOLLY
Assistant Secretary
Pricing and PBS Policy Branch
Technology Assessment and Access Division
Department of Health
Name of Instrument
(1)This Instrument is the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Amendment Instrument 2021 (No. 4).
(2)This Instrument may also be cited as PB 38 of 2021.
Commencement
This Instrument commences on 1 May 2021.
Amendment of National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 (PB 71 of 2012)
Schedule 1 amends the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 (PB 71 of 2012).
Schedule 1 Amendments
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Aciclovir
(a)omit:
| Eye ointment 30 mg per g, 4.5 g (Acivision) | Application to the eye | AciVision | DZ | MP NP | C5965 | 1 | 0 | 1 |
| AO | C5964 | 1 | 0 | 1 |
(b)insert as first entry:
| Eye ointment 30 mg per g, 4.5 g | Application to the eye | ViruPOS | AE | MP NP | C5965 | 1 | 0 | 1 |
| AO | C5964 | 1 | 0 | 1 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Amlodipine in each of the forms: Tablet 5 mg (as besilate); and Tablet 10 mg (as besilate)
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | NOUMED AMLODIPINE | VO | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Bimatoprost in the form Eye drops 300 micrograms per mL, 3 mL
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | Bimprozt | TY | AO MP | 1 | 5 | 1 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, after entry for Candesartan with hydrochlorothiazide in the form Tablet containing candesartan cilexetil 32 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg
insert:
| Cannabidiol | Oral liquid 100 mg per mL, 100 mL | Oral | Epidyolex | EU | MP | C11681 | 1 | 5 | 1 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Cyclophosphamide in the form Tablet 50 mg (anhydrous)
omit from the column headed “Responsible Person”: ZX substitute: GH
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 50 mg (as hyclate)
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | MP NP | C4475 C4529 C4539 | 25 | 5 | 25 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [Maximum Quantity: 7; Number of Repeats: 0]
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | PDP | 7 | 0 | 7 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [Maximum Quantity: 7; Number of Repeats: 1]
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | MP NP | 7 | 1 | 7 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [Maximum Quantity: 21; Number of Repeats: 0]
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | MP NP | P4485 | 21 | 0 | 7 |
| MP NP | P4485 | 21 | 0 | 21 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [Maximum Quantity: 28; Number of Repeats: 0]
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | MP NP | P4514 | 28 | 0 | 7 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [Maximum Quantity: 28; Number of Repeats: 5]
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| APX-Doxycycline | TX | MP | P6200 | 28 | 5 | 7 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Duloxetine in the form Capsule 30 mg (as hydrochloride)
omit:
| a | Andepra | EL | MP NP | C5650 | 28 | 0 | 28 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Duloxetine in the form Capsule 60 mg (as hydrochloride)
omit:
| a | Andepra | EL | MP NP | C5650 | 28 | 5 | 28 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Epirubicin in the form Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 50 mg in 25 mL
omit:
| Epirubicin ACT | JU | MP | See Note 3 | See Note 3 | 1 | D(100) |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Epirubicin in the form Solution for injection containing epirubicin hydrochloride 200 mg in 100 mL
omit:
| Epirubicin ACT | JU | MP | See Note 3 | See Note 3 | 1 | D(100) |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Erlotinib in each of the forms: Tablet 25 mg (as hydrochloride); Tablet 100 mg (as hydrochloride); and Tablet 150 mg (as hydrochloride)
(a)insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | Erlotinib APOTEX | TX | MP | C4473 C4600 C7446 | 30 | 3 | 30 |
(b)insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” for the brand “Erlotinib Sandoz”: a
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Levetiracetam in the form Oral solution 100 mg per mL, 300 mL
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | Levetiracetam GH | GQ | MP NP | C11077 | 1 | 5 | 1 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Lurasidone in each of the forms: Tablet containing lurasidone hydrochloride 40 mg; and Tablet containing lurasidone hydrochloride 80 mg
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | Lurasidone Sandoz | SZ | MP NP | C4246 | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Mesalazine in the form Tablet 800 mg (enteric coated)
omit from the column headed “Maximum Quantity”: 180 substitute: 90
Schedule 1, Part 1, after entry for Mesalazine in the form Tablet 1.2 g (prolonged release)
insert:
| Tablet 1.6 g (enteric coated) | Oral | Asacol | EU | MP NP | C9444 | 120 | 4 | 60 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Metoprolol in the form Tablet containing metoprolol tartrate 50 mg
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| b | NOUMED METOPROLOL | VO | MP NP | 100 | 5 | 100 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Metoprolol in the form Tablet containing metoprolol tartrate 100 mg
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| b | NOUMED METOPROLOL | VO | MP NP | 60 | 5 | 60 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Norethisterone with ethinylestradiol in the form Pack containing 21 tablets 1 mg-35 micrograms and 7 inert tablets
insert in the column headed “Schedule Equivalent” (all instances): a
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Norethisterone with ethinylestradiol
omit:
| Pack containing 21 tablets 1 mg-35 micrograms and 7 inert tablets USP | Oral | Pirmella 1/35 | DZ | MP NP | 4 | 2 | 3 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 2 mg
omit:
| NOUMED PERINDOPRIL | VO | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 4 mg
omit:
| NOUMED PERINDOPRIL | VO | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 8 mg
omit:
| NOUMED PERINDOPRIL | VO | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Rasagiline
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | Rasazil | GQ | MP NP | C5339 | 30 | 5 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Simvastatin in the form Tablet 10 mg
(a)omit:
| a | Ransim | RA | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
(b)omit:
| a | Ransim | RA | MP | P7598 | 30 | 11 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Simvastatin in the form Tablet 80 mg
(a)omit:
| a | Ransim | RA | MP NP | 30 | 5 | 30 |
(b)omit:
| a | Ransim | RA | MP | P7598 | 30 | 11 | 30 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Sotalol in each of the forms: Tablet containing sotalol hydrochloride 80 mg; and Tablet containing sotalol hydrochloride 160 mg
insert in the columns in the order indicated, and in alphabetical order for the column headed “Brand”:
| a | APX-Sotalol | TY | MP NP | C5664 | 60 | 5 | 60 |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Stiripentol in each of the forms: Capsule 250 mg; Capsule 500 mg; Powder for oral suspension 250 mg; and Powder for oral suspension 500 mg
omit from the column headed “Circumstances”: C10632 substitute: C11642
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Tenofovir with emtricitabine in the form Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg
substitute:
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg | Oral | CIPLA TENOFOVIR + EMTRICITABINE 300/200 | LR | MP NP | C11143 | 30 | 2 | 30 |
| Tenofovir/Emtricitabine 300/200 APOTEX | TX | MP NP | C11143 | 30 | 2 | 30 | ||
| CIPLA TENOFOVIR + EMTRICITABINE 300/200 | LR | MP NP | C6985 C6986 | 60 | 5 | 30 | C(100) | |
| Tenofovir/Emtricitabine 300/200 APOTEX | TX | MP NP | C6985 C6986 | 60 | 5 | 30 | C(100) |
Schedule 1, Part 1, entry for Trastuzumab emtansine in each of the forms: Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg; and Powder for I.V. infusion 160 mg
omit from the column headed “Circumstances”: C10273
Schedule 1, Part 2, omit entry for Codeine
Schedule 1, Part 2, entry for Cyproterone in the form Tablet containing cyproterone acetate 50 mg
omit:
| a | Cyprocur 50 | AS | MP | P5532 | 20 CN5532 | 5 CN5532 | 20 |
| MP | 100 | 5 | 50 |
Schedule 1, Part 2, entry for Cyproterone
omit:
| Tablet containing cyproterone acetate 100 mg | Oral | a | Cyprocur 100 | AS | MP | 50 | 5 | 50 |
Schedule 1, Part 2, omit entry for Paracetamol
Schedule 3
omit:
| ZX | Zenex Pharmaceuticals Pty Ltd | 51 603 281 509 |
Schedule 4, Part 1, entry for Bortezomib
substitute:
| Bortezomib | C7938 | Multiple myeloma Retreatment of Progressive disease - Initial PBS-subsidised treatment The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have progressive disease; AND Patient must have previously been treated with PBS-subsidised bortezomib; AND Patient must have experienced at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBS-subsidised bortezomib therapy; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised carfilzomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following: (a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) at least a 25% increase in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or (c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or (d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or (e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or (g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause). Oligo-secretory and non-secretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Details of the basis of the current diagnosis of progressive disease and nomination of which disease activity parameters that will be used to assess response, and diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response to the most recent course of PBS-subsidised bortezomib, if not previously documented must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or (b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or (c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or (d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or (e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CT-scan; or (g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration. As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7938 |
| C7939 | Multiple myeloma Retreatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing. A response assessment prior to cycle 5 must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7939 | |
| C7940 | Symptomatic multiple myeloma Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment Patient must have received an initial authority prescription for bortezomib for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma and be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have achieved a best confirmed response to bortezomib at the time of prescribing; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Continuing PBS-subsidised supply requires that the gap between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and this continuing treatment is no more than 6 months. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7940 | |
| C7941 | Symptomatic multiple myeloma Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for newly diagnosed symptomatic multiple myeloma; AND Patient must have severe acute renal failure; AND Patient must have demonstrated at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4; AND The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND Patient must not receive more than 5 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. A copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology authority and diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are not being used to monitor disease activity, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Continuing PBS-subsidised supply requires that the gap between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and this continuing treatment is no more than 6 months. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7941 | |
| C7960 | Multiple myeloma Retreatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib in the current treatment course; AND Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction. Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing. A response assessment prior to cycle 9 must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7960 | |
| C7961 | Multiple myeloma Treatment of Progressive disease - Initial PBS-subsidised treatment The condition must be confirmed by a histological diagnosis; AND The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have progressive disease after at least one prior therapy; AND Patient must have undergone or be ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised carfilzomib, thalidomide or its analogues; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following: (a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) at least a 25% increase in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or (c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase in the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or (d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or (e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing or the development of a new soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or (g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause). Oligo-secretory and non-secretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein. Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following must be documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or (b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or (c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or (d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or (e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. MRI or CT-scan; or (g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration. As these parameters must be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be provided for all patients. Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7961 | |
| C7962 | Multiple myeloma Treatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have previously received 8 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 8 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND Patient must not have a gap of more than 10 months between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition following completion of 8 treatment cycles; AND Patient must not receive more than 3 cycles of bortezomib under this restriction. Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing. A response assessment prior to cycle 9 must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7962 | |
| C7974 | Multiple myeloma Treatment of Progressive disease - Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment The treatment must be as monotherapy; OR The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must have previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib for progressive disease; AND Patient must have demonstrated at the completion of cycle 4 at least a partial response to bortezomib; AND Patient must not have received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; AND Patient must not have a gap of more than 6 months between the initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition and continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Diagnostic reports demonstrating the patient has achieved at least a partial response must be documented in the patient's medical records. If serum M protein is measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein). If urine Bence-Jones protein levels are being used to monitor disease activity, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours. If serum M protein is unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels. If serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (b) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (c) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. MRI or CT-Scan); or (d) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L. Diagnostic reports must be no more than one month old at the time of prescribing. A response assessment prior to cycle 5 must be documented in the patient's medical records. Confirmation of complete response requires 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 7974 | |
| C10338 | Symptomatic multiple myeloma Patient must be newly diagnosed; AND Patient must be eligible for high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplantation; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND The treatment must be in combination with chemotherapy. Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10338 | |
| C10426 | Symptomatic multiple myeloma Initial PBS-subsidised treatment The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND Patient must have severe acute renal failure; AND Patient must require dialysis; OR Patient must be at high risk of requiring dialysis in the opinion of a nephrologist; AND The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. Details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, the name of the nephrologist who has reviewed the patient and the date of review, a copy of the current pathology reports reporting Glomerular Filtration Rate from an Approved Pathology Authority, and nomination of the disease activity parameter(s) that will be used to assess response must be documented in the patient's medical records. Disease activity parameters include current diagnostic reports of at least one of the following: (a) the level of serum monoclonal protein; or (b) Bence-Jones proteinuria - the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or (c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or (d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or (e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination i.e. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scan; or (g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration. As these parameters will be used to determine response, results for either (a) or (b) or (c) should be documented in the patient's medical records for all patients. Where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, either (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) should be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (current serum M protein less than 10 g per L) must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10426 | |
| C10454 | Multiple myeloma Triple combination therapy (bortezomib, lenalidomide and dexamethasone) The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND The treatment must be in combination with lenalidomide and dexamethasone; AND The treatment must not be in combination with PBS-subsidised thalidomide, pomalidomide or carfilzomib; AND The treatment must not be changing from dual combination therapy with lenalidomide and dexamethasone for symptomatic multiple myeloma to triple therapy with lenalidomide, bortezomib and dexamethasone; AND Patient must not receive more than 8 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10454 | |
| C10455 | Symptomatic multiple myeloma Initial PBS-subsidised treatment The condition must be newly diagnosed; AND Patient must be ineligible for high dose chemotherapy; AND Patient must not be receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised thalidomide or its analogues; AND The treatment must be in combination with a corticosteroid and melphalan or cyclophosphamide; AND Patient must not receive more than 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib under this restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 10455 | |
| C11099 | Multiple myeloma |
Schedule 4, Part 1, after entry for Candesartan with hydrochlorothiazide
insert:
| Cannabidiol | C11681 | Severe myoclonic epilepsy in infancy (Dravet syndrome) Patient must have (as an initiating patient)/have had (as a continuing patient), generalised tonic-clonic seizures or generalised clonic seizures that are not adequately controlled with at least two other anti-epileptic drugs; AND The treatment must be as adjunctive therapy to at least two other anti-epileptic drugs. Must be treated by a neurologist if treatment is being initiated; OR Must be treated by a neurologist if treatment is being continued or re-initiated; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician in consultation with a neurologist if treatment is being continued; OR Must be treated by a general practitioner in consultation with a neurologist if treatment is being continued. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Schedule 4, Part 1, after entry for Leflunomide
insert:
| Lenograstim | C6502 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in an infant or child with central nervous system tumours. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6502 |
| C6507 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6507 | |
| C6516 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in neuroblastoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6516 | |
| C6522 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving standard dose adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer; AND Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia (neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre); AND The treatment must be used in a patient for whom there is a clinical justification for wishing to continue chemotherapy with the same drug combination, dosage and treatment schedule; AND Patient must be anticipated to have a good response to treatment providing chemotherapy can be delivered as planned. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6522 | |
| C6523 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in germ cell tumours. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6523 | |
| C6532 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving first-line chemotherapy for Hodgkin disease; AND Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia (neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre); AND The treatment must be used in a patient for whom there is a clinical justification for wishing to continue chemotherapy with the same drug combination, dosage and treatment schedule; AND Patient must be anticipated to have a good response to treatment providing chemotherapy can be delivered as planned. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6532 | |
| C6535 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in relapsed Hodgkin disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6535 | |
| C6634 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in osteosarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6634 | |
| C6644 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in Ewing's sarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6644 | |
| C6653 | Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6653 | |
| C6654 | Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6654 | |
| C6657 | Assisting peripheral blood progenitor cell or bone marrow transplantation The treatment must be following marrow-ablative chemotherapy for non-myeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6657 | |
| C6673 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (intermediate or high grade). | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6673 | |
| C6682 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in rhabdomyosarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 6682 | |
| C9226 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in osteosarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9226 | |
| C9227 | Assisting peripheral blood progenitor cell or bone marrow transplantation The treatment must be following marrow-ablative chemotherapy for non-myeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9227 | |
| C9229 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in relapsed Hodgkin disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9229 | |
| C9230 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in an infant or child with central nervous system tumours. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9230 | |
| C9231 | Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a non-myeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9231 | |
| C9263 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in germ cell tumours. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9263 | |
| C9264 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (intermediate or high grade). | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9264 | |
| C9265 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving standard dose adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer; AND Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia (neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre); AND The treatment must be used in a patient for whom there is a clinical justification for wishing to continue chemotherapy with the same drug combination, dosage and treatment schedule; AND Patient must be anticipated to have a good response to treatment providing chemotherapy can be delivered as planned. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9265 | |
| C9266 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in neuroblastoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9266 | |
| C9314 | Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9314 | |
| C9324 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9324 | |
| C9325 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in rhabdomyosarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9325 | |
| C9326 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving first-line chemotherapy for Hodgkin disease; AND Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia (neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre); AND The treatment must be used in a patient for whom there is a clinical justification for wishing to continue chemotherapy with the same drug combination, dosage and treatment schedule; AND Patient must be anticipated to have a good response to treatment providing chemotherapy can be delivered as planned. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9326 | |
| C9327 | Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia Patient must be receiving treatment with aggressive chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or substantial remission in Ewing's sarcoma. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 9327 |
Schedule 4, Part 1, entry for Obinutuzumab
(a)omit entry for Circumstances Code “C7935” and substitute:
| Obinutuzumab | C7935 | Stage II bulky or Stage III/IV follicular lymphoma Maintenance therapy Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug under the previously untreated initial restriction; OR Patient must have previously received PBS subsidised treatment with this drug under the previously untreated grandfather restriction; AND The condition must be CD20 positive; AND Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBS subsidised induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS subsidised treatment for this condition; AND The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
(b)omit entry for Circumstances Code “C7950” and substitute:
| C7950 | Follicular lymphoma Maintenance therapy Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug under the rituximab refractory initial restriction; OR Patient must have previously received PBS subsidised treatment with this drug under the rituximab refractory grandfather restriction; AND The condition must be CD20 positive; AND The condition must have been refractory to treatment with rituximab; AND Patient must have demonstrated a partial or complete response to PBS-subsidised re-induction treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must be maintenance therapy; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS subsidised treatment for this condition; AND The treatment must not exceed 12 doses or 2 years duration of treatment, whichever comes first, under this restriction; AND Patient must not have developed disease progression while receiving PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
(c)omit entry for Circumstances Code “C7959” and substitute:
| C7959 | Follicular lymphoma Re-induction treatment Patient must not have previously received PBS-subsidised obinutuzumab; AND The condition must be CD20 positive; AND The condition must be refractory to treatment with rituximab for this condition; AND The condition must be symptomatic; AND The treatment must be for re-induction treatment purposes only; AND The treatment must be in combination with bendamustine; AND The treatment must not exceed 8 doses for re-induction treatment with this drug for this condition. The condition is considered rituximab-refractory if the patient experiences less than a partial response or progression of disease within 6 months after completion of a prior rituximab-containing regimen. A patient may only qualify for PBS subsidised initiation treatment once in a lifetime under: i) the previously untreated induction treatment restriction; or ii) the rituximab-refractory re-induction restriction; or iii) the previously untreated grandfather restriction; or iv) the rituximab-refractory grandfather restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Schedule 4, Part 1, entry for Stiripentol
substitute:
| Stiripentol | C11642 | Severe myoclonic epilepsy in infancy (Dravet syndrome) Patient must have (as an initiating patient)/have had (as a continuing patient), generalised tonic-clonic seizures or generalised clonic seizures that are not adequately controlled with at least two other anti-epileptic drugs; AND The treatment must be as adjunctive therapy to at least two other anti-epileptic drugs. Must be treated by a neurologist if treatment is being initiated; OR Must be treated by a neurologist if treatment is being continued or re-initiated; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician in consultation with a neurologist if treatment is being continued; OR Must be treated by a general practitioner in consultation with a neurologist if treatment is being continued. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 11642 |
Schedule 4, Part 1, entry for Trastuzumab emtansine
omit:
| C10273 | Early HER2 positive breast cancer Grandfather adjuvant treatment Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug as adjuvant treatment of early HER2 positive breast cancer prior to 1 April 2020; AND The treatment must have been prescribed within 12 weeks after surgery prior to commencing treatment with this drug; AND Patient must have, prior to commencing treatment with this drug, evidence of residual invasive cancer in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery, as demonstrated by a pathology report; AND Patient must have completed systemic neoadjuvant therapy that included trastuzumab and taxane-based chemotherapy prior to surgery; AND Patient must not receive PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug if progressive disease develops while on this drug; AND The treatment must not be used in a patient with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than 45% and/or with symptomatic heart failure; AND The treatment must not extend beyond 42 weeks (14 cycles) duration using non-PBS-subsidised and PBS-subsidised drug supply obtained under the grandfather restriction and the continuing treatment restrictions combined. Authority applications for grandfather treatment must be made in writing and must include: (a) a completed authority prescription form; and (b) a completed Early Breast Cancer - PBS Supporting Information Form which includes details from the pathology report from an approved pathology authority demonstrating evidence of residual invasive carcinoma in the breast and/or axillary lymph nodes following completion of surgery and the number of non-PBS-subsidised cycles of treatment received by the patient. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Schedule 5, entry for Adalimumab
substitute:
| Adalimumab | GRP-25058 | Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL pre-filled syringe | Injection | Humira |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled syringe | Injection | Amgevita Hadlima Humira Hyrimoz Idacio | ||
| GRP-25059 | Injection 20 mg in 0.2 mL pre-filled syringe | Injection | Humira | |
| Injection 20 mg in 0.4 mL pre-filled syringe | Injection | Amgevita Humira | ||
| GRP-25060 | Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL pre-filled pen | Injection | Humira | |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled pen | Injection | Amgevita Hadlima Humira Hyrimoz Idacio |
Schedule 5, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 100 mg (as hyclate) [GRP-14639]
insert in alphabetical order in the column headed “Brand”: APX-Doxycycline
Schedule 5, entry for Doxycycline in the form Tablet 50 mg (as hyclate) [GRP-15635]
insert in alphabetical order in the column headed “Brand”: APX-Doxycycline
Schedule 5, omit entry for Norethisterone with ethinylestradiol
Schedule 5, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 4 mg [GRP-15442]
omit from the column headed “Brand”: NOUMED PERINDOPRIL
Schedule 5, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 8 mg [GRP-15525]
omit from the column headed “Brand”: NOUMED PERINDOPRIL
Schedule 5, entry for Perindopril in the form Tablet containing perindopril erbumine 2 mg [GRP-15965]
omit from the column headed “Brand”: NOUMED PERINDOPRIL
Schedule 5, entry for Tenofovir with emtricitabine in the form Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg [GRP-21638]
insert in alphabetical order in the column headed “Brand”: CIPLA TENOFOVIR + EMTRICITABINE 300/200
0
0
0