Liquor Regulation 2018 (NSW)
Cl 8A(4) of this Regulation (cl 8A(4) repeals cl 8A on 30.4.2025)
Cl 10(4) of this Regulation (cl 10(4) repeals cl 10(2)(c) and (d), (2A), (3) and (4) on 30.4.2025)
Cl 12(8) of this Regulation (cl 12(8) repeals cl 12(3A)(c) and (d), (3B), (7) and (8) on 30.4.2025)
Cl 115A(4) of this Regulation (cl 115A(4) repeals cl 115A on 1.6.2026)
Cl 135(5) of this Regulation (cl 135(5) repeals cl 135 on 2.7.2026)
(cf 2008 reg cl 1)
This Regulation is the Liquor Regulation 2018.
(cf 2008 reg cl 2)
This Regulation commences on 1 September 2018 and is required to be published on the NSW legislation website.
This Regulation replaces the Liquor Regulation 2008, which is repealed on 1 September 2018 by section 10(2) of the Subordinate Legislation Act 1989.
(cf 2008 reg cl 3)
In this Regulation—
(a) the period between midnight on any day of the week and such later time at which the premises are required to cease trading, or
(b) in the case of premises that are not required to cease trading at any time after midnight on any day of the week—the period between midnight and 7 am.
(a) an extended trading authorisation,
(b) a drink on-premises authorisation,
(c) any other authorisation that may be granted by the Authority under Part 3 of the Act (other than a licence),
(d) a minors area authorisation,
(e) a minors functions authorisation,
(f) a minors authorisation.
(a) licensed under an on-premises licence relating to a public entertainment venue, and
(b) used primarily for live performances or other creative or cultural events, and
(c) not a live music venue.
(a) development consent under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979, or
(b) an approval under Division 5.2 of that Act.
(a) monitoring responsible service of alcohol practices by staff members of licensed premises who are selling, supplying or serving liquor,
(b) engaging with those staff members, and with patrons on the premises, for the purposes of encouraging responsible attitudes and practices in relation to the promotion, sale, supply, service and consumption of liquor,
(c) monitoring alcohol consumption by patrons and their behaviour for signs of irresponsible, rapid or excessive consumption of alcohol and for signs of intoxication,
(d) intervening at any early stage to assist in the prevention of intoxication and anti-social behaviour (such intervention may include suggesting that patrons moderate their alcohol consumption by consuming food or non-alcoholic beverages).
(a) operating under an on-premises, hotel or club licence that relates to accommodation premises, and
(b) that provide accommodation in at least 20 rooms or self-contained suites (other than accommodation on a bed or dormitory-style basis rather than in separate rooms), and
(c) that provide beverages, meals and other associated services to temporary residents and their guests,
but does not include any tourist accommodation establishment bar area on the premises that permits entry or exit (including by way of a vestibule) directly to a public street.
(a) a dining area in the establishment, or
(b) any part of the establishment in which liquor is, otherwise than as authorised under section 17(6) of the Act, sold or supplied exclusively to residents.
The Act and the Interpretation Act 1987 contain definitions and other provisions that affect the interpretation and application of this Regulation.
For the purposes of this Regulation, references to
Notes included in this Regulation do not form part of this Regulation.
For the purposes of comparison, a number of provisions of this Regulation contain bracketed notes in headings drawing attention (
See Part 4 of Schedule 1 for the adjustment of fees for inflation.
(cf 2008 reg cl 4)
The application fees payable for the purposes of the Act are the fees specified in Schedule 1 (except as provided by clause 5).
The amount of the fee payable for an application is the amount specified under the heading “Total” in relation to the application concerned.
If an application specified in Schedule 1 (other than an application for a limited licence (single function)) is made by means of an electronic system approved by the Authority, the amount specified under the heading “Processing component” in respect of the application is reduced by 10% and the total amount payable under this clause is reduced accordingly.
If an application—
(a) is refused by the Authority, or
(b) is granted by the Authority but is subsequently withdrawn by the applicant before the licence or other authorisation concerned takes effect, or
(c) is treated by the Authority as having been withdrawn,
the fee that has been paid in connection with the application is to be refunded to the applicant, except for any amount specified under the heading “Processing component” (which is taken to be a fee to cover the costs incurred by the Authority in processing the application concerned).
If an application for a producer/wholesaler licence is made in conjunction with an application for a special drink on-premises authorisation but the authorisation is not granted, the applicant may vary the application so that it only relates to a producer/wholesaler licence (in which case the full producer/wholesaler licence fee specified in Schedule 1 is taken to apply).
(cf 2008 reg cl 5)
For the purposes of section 51(10) of the Act, the application fee to vary an extended trading authorisation is the same as the application fee would be for the extended trading authorisation (as varied) unless the variation reduces the number of trading hours in which case the application fee is nil.
For the purposes of section 59(2)(b) of the Act, the application fee for approval to remove a licence to other premises is the same fee as the licence application fee specified in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for the particular type of licence concerned.
(cf 2008 reg cl 71A)
For the purposes of section 60A(3)(b) of the Act, the following fees are prescribed—
(a) 3.79 fee units for a hotel licence or a packaged liquor licence,
(b) 0.54 fee units for a limited licence or a pop-up licence,
(c) 2.16 fee units for any other type of licence.
The fees payable in connection with matters under Part 5 are as follows—
Item | Fee payable to Secretary | Fee (in fee units) |
1 | Fee payable by approved training provider for issue of interim certificate certifying the completion of an approved training course (other than an advanced licensee training course) | 0.85 |
2 | Fee payable by approved training provider for issue of interim certificate certifying the completion of an advanced licensee training course | 0.4 |
3 | Fee payable by person for issue of recognised competency card with renewed or additional recognised competency card endorsement | 0.4 |
4 | Fee payable by person for issue of recognised competency card in replacement of a current recognised competency card that the Secretary is satisfied has been lost, stolen or damaged | 0.4 |
4A | Fee payable by person for issue of recognised competency card with an RSA endorsement issued on the basis of an interim certificate certifying the completion of an RSA bridging course or licensee training course | 0.85 |
5 | Fee payable by applicant to become approved training provider of approved training course— | |
| 15.3 | |
| 8.44 | |
6 | Fee payable by approved training provider for additional approval to provide training course online— | |
| 15.3 | |
| 8.44 |
A person is exempt from paying the fee described in item 3 of subclause (1) if—
(a) the renewed recognised competency card endorsement is an RSA endorsement, and
(b) the RSA endorsement is renewed by the completion of an RSA training course instead of an RSA refresher course.
Words and expressions used in this clause have the same meaning as in Part 5.
For the purposes of section 99(2)(c) of the Act, the following fees are prescribed—
(a) 0.24 fee units—fee for online training under clause 107G(4), including fee for knowledge test under clause 107G(3),
(b) 0.15 fee units—fee for knowledge test under clause 107G(3).
A person who is required to pay a fee under the Act may apply to the Secretary for the waiver, reduction, postponement or refund of that fee.
On receiving such an application, the Secretary may—
(a) waive, reduce, postpone or refund the fee, if the Secretary is satisfied that it is appropriate because—
(i) the applicant is suffering financial hardship, or
(ii) special circumstances exist, or
Example of ‘special circumstances’— circumstances involving a natural disaster or recovery from a natural disaster
(b) refuse to waive, reduce, postpone or refund any element.
However, a person may not apply under this clause for the waiver, reduction, postponement or refund of any or all elements of a periodic licence fee, or part of an element of a periodic licence fee, payable in respect of a licence.
The Secretary may waive, reduce, postpone or refund any fee payable under the Act, without having received an application under subclause (1), if the Secretary is satisfied it is appropriate because special circumstances exist.
circumstances involving a natural disaster or recovery from a natural disaster
(Repealed)
A licensee is exempt from the requirement under section 53(3)(b) or 54(2A)(b) of the Act to pay a fee in relation to an application made under section 53(2)(a) or 54(2) to vary or revoke a prescribed live music condition.
In this clause—
(a) prohibits or limits the playing of amplified music at licensed premises, or
(b) prohibits or restricts the playing or performing of live music, live music entertainment or live entertainment—
(i) in all or part of the licensed premises, or
(ii) at all times of the day or particular times of the day.
Without limiting clause 7A, the Secretary may reduce or refund a proportion, not exceeding 80%, of the total fee payable for an application for an ongoing extended trading authorisation of a type listed in Schedule 1, Part 2 for licensed premises that are live music venues or live performance venues and are—
(a) on the list of live music and performance venues at the time the application is made, or
(b) added to the list within 12 months after the application is made.
(cf 2008 reg cll 5A and 5B)
In this Division—
(a) in relation to a part year licence—the date on which the part year licence is granted, and
(b) in relation to any other licence—15 March in each assessment year.
(a) in relation to a part year licence—60 days after the day on which the Secretary sends a notice to the licensee liable to pay the fee under clause 15, and
(b) in relation to any other licence—29 May in each assessment year.
(Repealed)
(cf 2008 reg cl 5C)
The periodic licence fee for a licence is the sum of the following elements—
(a) the base fee element (determined and adjusted under clause 10),
(b) the compliance history risk loading element (determined under clause 11),
(c) the trading hours risk loading element (determined under clause 12),
(d) (Repealed)
(e) the patron capacity loading element (determined under clause 14), which is payable only if a compliance history risk loading element is payable.
Despite subclause (1), the periodic licence fee for a part year licence is only the base fee element (determined under clause 10), reduced as follows—
(a) if the part year licence is granted on or after 16 March but not later than 15 June—by 25%,
(b) if the part year licence is granted on or after 16 June but not later than 15 September—by 50%,
(c) if the part year licence is granted on or after 16 September but not later than 15 December—by 75%.
A periodic licence fee is not payable in respect of a part year licence granted on or after 16 December in an assessment year.
Subclauses (2) and (3) take effect on and from 16 March 2019.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5D)
The
(a) for a hotel licence (other than general bar licence)—8.86 fee units,
(b) for a general bar licence—4.44 fee units,
(c) for a club licence—8.86 fee units,
(d) for a small bar licence—2.83 fee units,
(e) for an on-premises licence—6.47 fee units,
(f) for a packaged liquor licence—
(i) where the licensee holds 3 or less such licences, or the licensee or a business owner has an interest in the business, or the profits of the business, carried on under packaged liquor licences at 3 or less premises—6.51 fee units, or
(ii) where the licensee holds more than 3, but not more than 9, such licences, or the licensee or a business owner has an interest in the business, or the profits of the business, carried on under packaged liquor licences at more than 3, but not more than 9, premises—13.01 fee units, or
(iii) where the licensee holds more than 9 such licences, or the licensee or a business owner has an interest in the business, or the profits of the business, carried on under packaged liquor licences at more than 9 premises—25.98 fee units, or
(iv) where a combination of any of the matters referred to in subparagraphs (i)–(iii) applies—the highest of the amounts so referred to,
(g) for a producer/wholesaler licence—3.14 fee units,
(h) for a multi-function limited licence—1.43 fee units.
The base fee element must be reduced—
(a) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2024, if a demerit point has not been incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises for the licence, in the 3-year period preceding the assessment date—by 5%, or
(b) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2026, if a demerit point has not been incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises for the licence, in the 5-year period preceding the assessment date—by 10%, or
(c) by 80% for the following venues—
(i) live music venues,
(ii) live performance venues,
(iii) venues mentioned in clause 61B(1)(d), or
(d) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2022, if the licensed premises have participated in an incentivised event held in the 1-year period preceding the assessment date—by 80%.
Subclause (2)(c) and (d) apply only to licensed premises on the list of live music and performance venues on the assessment date.
See clause 61B.
(Repealed)
(cf 2008 reg cl 5E)
For an assessment year that commences before 15 March 2022, the
(a) 32.46 fee units—if 1 relevant demerit offence event has occurred during the relevant compliance period that relates to a demerit offence committed by the licensee or manager of the licensed premises, or
(b) 64.92 fee units—if—
(i) 2 relevant demerit offence events have occurred during the relevant compliance period that relate to demerit offences committed by the licensee or manager of the licensed premises, or
(ii) the licence was, at any time during the relevant compliance period, listed in Table 2 at the end of clause 1 of Schedule 4 to the Act when that list was replaced in its entirety during the assessment year ending on the relevant assessment date, or
(c) 97.39 fee units—if—
(i) 3 or more relevant demerit offence events have occurred during the relevant compliance period that relate to demerit offences committed by the licensee or manager of the licensed premises, or
(ii) the licence was, at any time during the relevant compliance period, listed in Table 1 at the end of clause 1 of Schedule 4 to the Act when that list was replaced in its entirety during the assessment year ending on the relevant assessment date, or
(d) if a combination of any of the circumstances specified in paragraphs (a)–(c) exist in relation to a licence—the highest of the amounts so specified.
For an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2022, the
No compliance history risk loading element is payable for a licence if—
(a) for an assessment year that commences before 15 March 2022—none of the circumstances specified in subclause (1) exist in relation to the licence, or
(b) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2022—no demerit points have been incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises, during the relevant compliance period.
For the purposes of this clause, a
(a) a court convicts a person of a demerit offence (whether or not it imposes any penalty), or
(b) an amount is paid under a penalty notice in respect of such an offence, or
(c) a penalty notice enforcement order under the Fines Act 1996 is made against the person in respect of such an offence.
However, if—
(a) the conviction is overturned on appeal, or
(b) the person elects, after an amount is paid under the penalty notice, to have the offence dealt with by a court, or
(c) the penalty notice, or the penalty notice enforcement order to the extent that it applies to the penalty notice, is withdrawn or annulled,
the relevant demerit offence event derived from the conviction, payment or making of the order is taken not to have occurred and so much of the compliance history risk loading element as comprises the amount based on the relevant demerit offence event is to be refunded by the Secretary to the licensee.
If more than one demerit offence is committed by the licensee or manager of the premises to which a licence relates within a single 24-hour period, no more than one relevant demerit offence event is, for the purposes of this clause, taken to have occurred in relation to that licence.
For the purposes of subclause (1A), the reference to a demerit point incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises, during the relevant compliance period for the assessment year includes a reference to a relevant demerit offence event that occurred on or after 1 January 2021 derived from an act or circumstance that occurred or existed before that date.
In this clause—
(cf 2008 reg cl 5F)
The
(a) if, on the relevant assessment date, the licensee is authorised to sell or supply liquor to patrons on the licensed premises on a regular basis between midnight and 1.30 am (but not after 1.30 am) on any day—27.05 fee units,
(b) if, on the relevant assessment date, the licensee is authorised to sell or supply liquor to patrons on the licensed premises on a regular basis between 1.30 am and 5 am on any day—54.05 fee units,
(c) if, on the relevant assessment date, a multi-occasion extended trading authorisation is in force in respect of the premises (whether or not liquor is being sold or supplied in accordance with the authorisation on that date)—10.82 fee units.
A trading hours risk loading element that applies to a producer/wholesaler licence endorsed with a drink on-premises authorisation is to be determined by reference to the period that the licensee is authorised to sell liquor by retail on the licensed premises, for consumption on the licensed premises, under the drink on-premises authorisation and not by reference to the period that the licensee is authorised to sell or supply liquor on the licensed premises on a regular basis under the producer/wholesaler licence.
An on-premises licence that relates to a vessel that is authorised under section 25(9)(a) of the Act to sell liquor by retail to passengers on board the vessel is taken for the purposes of this Division to authorise the licensee to sell or supply liquor on licensed premises on a regular basis between 1.30 am and 5 am on any day. The operation of this subclause is subject to any licence condition that restricts the times at which liquor may be sold or supplied.
The trading hours risk loading element must be reduced—
(a) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2024, if a demerit point has not been incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises for the licence, in the 3-year period preceding the assessment date—by 5%, or
(b) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2026, if a demerit point has not been incurred or imposed against the licence, or a licensee or manager of the licensed premises for the licence, in the 5-year period preceding the assessment date—by 10%, or
(c) by 80% for the following venues—
(i) live music venues,
(ii) live performance venues,
(iii) venues mentioned in clause 61B(1)(d), or
(d) for an assessment year that commences on or after 15 March 2022, if the licensed premises have participated in an incentivised event held in the 1-year period preceding the assessment date—by 80%.
Subclause (3A)(c) and (d) apply only to licensed premises on the list of live music and performance venues on the assessment date.
See clause 61B.
In this clause, a reference to the sale or supply of liquor to patrons does not include a reference to the sale or supply of liquor to—
(a) a resident of the licensed premises concerned or to a guest of such a resident while the guest is in the resident’s company, or
(b) an employee of the licensee, or
(c) a person referred to in section 29(3) of the Act.
A trading hours risk loading element is not payable in relation to the following licences—
(a) a producer/wholesaler licence that is not endorsed with a drink on-premises authorisation,
(b) a small bar licence,
(c) an on-premises licence that relates only to one or more of the following—
(i) accommodation premises,
(ii) a catering service,
(iii) an airport,
(iv) a restaurant where the licence is not endorsed under section 24(3) of the Act with an authorisation that allows liquor to be sold or supplied for consumption on the licensed premises,
(d) a multi-function limited licence,
(e) a packaged liquor licence,
(f) a hotel or club licence that relates to a tourist accommodation establishment, but only if the Secretary is satisfied that any tourist accommodation establishment bar area on the licensed premises is operated after midnight primarily for the use of residents and their guests or persons who are invited to attend a conference or function on the premises,
(g) a licence that relates to licensed premises that the Secretary is satisfied are situated in a regional or remote locality having a population of less than 1,000 persons and in respect of which the accessibility to goods, services and opportunities for social interaction is considered to be significantly restricted due to the remoteness of the locality.
Also, a trading hours risk loading element is not payable in relation to a licence for licensed premises if—
(a) either of the following apply—
(i) the premises are a dedicated live music and performance venue that trades past midnight on the nights on which live entertainment is provided at the venue,
(ii) the licence is subject to an occasional extended trading condition, and
(b) a trading hours risk loading element would not have been payable in relation to the licence if the trading hours had not been extended under the Act, section 12A.
(Repealed)
(Repealed)
(cf 2008 reg cl 5H)
The
(a) if, on the relevant assessment date, the patron capacity of the licensed premises is not more than 60 patrons—10.82 fee units,
(b) if, on the relevant assessment date, the patron capacity of the licensed premises is more than 60, but not more than 120, patrons—32.46 fee units,
(c) if, on the relevant assessment date, the patron capacity of the licensed premises is more than 120, but not more than 300, patrons—64.92 fee units,
(d) if, on the relevant assessment date, the patron capacity of the licensed premises is more than 300 patrons—86.57 fee units.
A patron capacity loading element that applies to a producer/wholesaler licence endorsed with a drink on-premises authorisation is to be determined by reference to that part of the licensed premises that is the subject of the drink on-premises authorisation and not by reference to the licensed premises under the producer/wholesaler licence.
A patron capacity loading element is not payable in relation to the following licences—
(a) a producer/wholesaler licence that is not endorsed with a drink on-premises authorisation,
(b) an on-premises licence that relates only to accommodation premises or a catering service (or both),
(c) a packaged liquor licence,
(d) a multi-function limited licence.
It is a condition of each licence (other than a packaged liquor licence or a multi-function limited licence) that the licensee must give the Secretary notice in writing of any change in the patron capacity of the licensed premises, with that notice being required to be given within 7 days of the change.
In this clause,
(a) if the patron capacity is established by a licence condition—that patron capacity, or
(b) if the patron capacity is not established by a licence condition—
(i) the patron capacity that the licensee has notified to the Secretary before the relevant assessment date, or
(ii) if the patron capacity is not notified to the Secretary before the relevant assessment date or if the Secretary is not satisfied that the patron capacity notified to the Secretary is accurate—the patron capacity determined by the Secretary.
In determining the patron capacity of licensed premises, any part of the premises that has been set aside exclusively for the purposes of accommodation of residents is taken not to be part of the licensed premises.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5I)
The Secretary is, as soon as is practicable after the assessment date for a periodic licence fee, but not less than 14 days before the due date for payment of the fee, to send a notice to the licensee liable to pay the fee.
The notice is to include—
(a) the total amount of the periodic licence fee payable, and
(b) the amount of each element of that fee that makes up that total amount, and
(c) the due date for payment of the fee, and
(d) for part year licences—information about the re-assessment of an unpaid periodic licence fee under clause 19A.
A failure by the Secretary to comply with this clause does not affect a licensee’s liability to pay a periodic licence fee, late payment fee or application for reinstatement fee.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5J)
For the purposes of sections 58B(2)(b) and 58C(3)(b)(ii) of the Act, a late payment fee of the following amount is payable if the periodic licence fee payable for a licence has not been paid before the expiration of 28 days after the due date for payment—
(a) for a multi-function limited licence—0.55 fee units,
(b) for any other type of licence—1.1 fee units.
The Secretary may waive or refund all or part of a late payment fee payable under this clause in any circumstances that the Secretary considers appropriate.
It is a condition of a licence that any late payment fee payable for the licence that has not been waived must be paid before the expiration of 28 days after the due date for payment of the periodic licence fee.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5K)
For the purposes of section 58C(3)(b)(iii) of the Act, an application fee of 2.71 fee units must accompany an application for the reinstatement of a licence cancelled under section 58B(3) of the Act.
The Secretary may waive or refund all or part of the fee that is required to accompany an application under section 58C(3)(b)(iii) of the Act for a reinstatement of a cancelled licence in any circumstances that the Secretary considers appropriate.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5L)
The Secretary may re-assess a periodic licence fee at the request of the licensee or on the Secretary’s own initiative. Any such request must be made no later than 56 days after 29 May (that is, no later than the date on which the licence would otherwise be cancelled for late payment under section 58B(3) of the Act).
If the Secretary is satisfied that an error was made in an assessment of the periodic licence fee (including an assessment based on an incorrect knowledge of the relevant circumstances), the Secretary may re-assess the periodic licence fee and send a further notice to the licensee concerned.
The further notice is to include the following—
(a) a statement as to the amount of re-assessed periodic licence fee,
(b) if the licensee has not paid the initially assessed periodic licence fee—the due date for the payment of the re-assessed periodic licence fee (being a date no later than 56 days after 29 May),
(c) if the licensee has paid the initially assessed periodic licence fee and the amount of the re-assessed fee is greater than the amount of the initially assessed fee—the due date for the payment of the difference in amounts (being a date no later than 56 days after 29 May).
If the licensee has paid the initially assessed periodic licence fee and the amount of the re-assessed periodic licence fee is less than the amount of the initially assessed fee, the Secretary is to refund the difference to the licensee.
(cf 2008 reg cl 5M)
A person who holds a licence may apply to the Secretary for the waiver, reduction, postponement or refund of any or all elements of the periodic licence fee, or part of an element of the periodic licence fee, payable in respect of the licence—
(a) no later than 7 days before the due date for payment, or
(b) if the person satisfies the Secretary that exceptional circumstances exist—no later than the date specified by the Secretary.
On receiving such an application, the Secretary may—
(a) waive, reduce, postpone or refund any or all elements of the periodic licence fee, or part of an element of the periodic licence fee, payable in respect of the licence, if the Secretary is satisfied that it is appropriate because—
(i) the applicant is suffering financial hardship, or
(ii) special circumstances exist, or
Example of ‘special circumstances’— circumstances involving a natural disaster or recovery from a natural disaster
(b) refuse to waive, reduce, postpone or refund any element or part of an element.
The Secretary may waive, reduce, postpone or refund any or all elements of a periodic licence fee, or part of an element of a periodic licence fee, payable in respect of a licence, without having received an application under subclause (1), if the Secretary is satisfied it is appropriate because special circumstances exist.
circumstances involving a natural disaster or recovery from a natural disaster
If the periodic licence fee for a part year licence is not paid before 15 March following the date on which the part year licence was granted (the
See Part 4 of Schedule 1 for the adjustment of fees for inflation.
For the purposes of this Division and section 58B of the Act, the due date for the re-calculated fee is taken to be 29 May following the re-assessment date.
The Secretary is to send a notice under clause 15 to the licensee as soon as practicable after the re-assessment date for a periodic licence fee, but no later than 15 May.
Section 58B of the Act does not apply to a periodic licence fee payable for a part year licence unless the fee is re-calculated under this clause on the re-assessment date.
(cf 2008 reg cl 6)
In this Division—
(a) an application for a licence,
(b) an application by a licensee for the revocation or variation of a condition of the licence or a condition of a licence-related authorisation (other than a revocation or variation that would result in reduced trading hours),
(c) an application to vary the business or activity, or the kind of premises, specified in an on-premises licence,
(d) an application for approval to remove a licence to other premises,
(e) an application by a licensee for a licence-related authorisation or for the variation of a licence-related authorisation (other than a variation that would result in reduced trading hours),
(f) an application to carry on business on temporary premises.
(a) an application for a hotel licence,
(b) an application for a club licence,
(c) an application for a small bar licence, other than an application for a relevant small bar licence that is not required to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects under clause 28A,
(d) an application for a packaged liquor licence, other than a licence that is limited to the sale or supply of liquor through an internet site or by other electronic means,
(e) an application for an on-premises licence that relates to a public entertainment venue, other than a cinema or a theatre,
(f) an application for an ongoing extended trading authorisation in relation to a licence referred to in paragraphs (a)–(d),
(g) an application under the Act, section 59 for approval to remove a licence referred to in paragraphs (a)–(d) to other premises,
(h) an application for an ongoing extended trading authorisation in relation to an on-premises licence if the authorisation operates to authorise the sale of liquor at any time between midnight and 5am,
(i) an application for an ongoing extended trading authorisation in relation to a producer/wholesaler licence if the authorisation operates to authorise the sale of liquor by retail, otherwise than to the residents of the licensed premises and their guests, at any time between midnight and 5am,
(j) an application that is required by the Authority under the Act, section 48(7), definition of
relevant application to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects.
(a) an application for a packaged liquor licence that is limited to the sale of liquor only by means of taking orders—
(i) over the telephone or by facsimile or mail order, or
(ii) through an internet site or by other electronic means,
(b) an application under the Act, section 59 for approval to remove a licence referred to in paragraph (a) to other premises,
(c) an application for a multi-occasion extended trading authorisation,
(d) an application for an authorisation under the Act, section 24(3),
(e) an application that is required by the Authority under the Act, section 48(7), definition of
relevant application to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects.
(a) for an application for which a statement of risks and potential effects is required to be submitted—a building situated on land within 100m of the proposed or current licensed premises to which the application applies,
(b) a building situated on land adjoining the boundary of the land on which the premises to which the application relates are or will be situated, or that would be land adjoining that boundary if it were not for a road separating the land,
(c) a building situated on land within 50m of the proposed or current licensed premises to which the application applies.
In this Division, a reference to the premises to which an application relates is, in the case of an application for approval to remove a licence to other premises, a reference to the premises to which it is proposed to remove the licence.
For the Act, section 48(5)(a), the applicant must notify the following non-government stakeholders of the making of a limited or full notification application—
(a) for a limited notification application—the occupier of neighbouring premises,
(b) for a full notification application—
(i) the occupier of neighbouring premises, and
(ii) the recognised leaders or representatives of the local Aboriginal community in the local government area, if any,
(iii) local Aboriginal community, medical, health and social service organisations, if any,
(iv) for an application for an extended trading authorisation in relation to a hotel licence—any organisation located in the local government area in which the hotel is situated that receives funding from the Responsible Gambling Fund under the Casino Control Act 1992 for the specific purpose of providing gambling-related counselling or treatment services, and
(v) the stakeholders determined by the Authority.
For the Act, section 48(5)(a), the Secretary must notify the following government stakeholders, if relevant, of the making of a limited or full notification application—
(a) for a limited notification application—
(i) the local consent authority, and
(ii) the local police, and
(iii) if the proposed licensed premises are, or will be, situated within 500m of the boundary of another local government area—the local consent authority for that other area, and
(iv) if the premises to which the application relates are, or will be, situated on Crown land within the meaning of the Crown Land Management Act 2016—the Minister administering that Act,
(b) for a full notification application—
(i) the local consent authority, and
(ii) the local police, and
(iii) the Centre for Alcohol and Other Drugs of the Ministry of Health, and
(iv) the local health district for the area in which the proposed licensed premises are situated, and
(v) the Department of Communities and Justice, and
(vi) Transport for NSW, and
(vii) if the proposed licensed premises are, or will be, situated within 500m of the boundary of another local government area—the local consent authority for that other area, and
(viii) if the premises to which the application relates are, or will be, situated on Crown land within the meaning of the Crown Land Management Act 2016—the Minister administering that Act.
The notice must—
(a) be given no later than 2 working days after the application is made, and
(b) include a link to the NSW Government website where the application documents are located and public submissions may be made, and
(c) be in the form, and given in the way, approved by the Authority.
An applicant for a packaged liquor licence, or for the removal of a packaged liquor licence, that is limited to the sale of liquor by the following means is not required to notify the occupier of neighbouring premises—
(a) by taking orders over the telephone,
(b) by facsimile or mail order,
(c) through an internet site,
(d) by other electronic means.
This clause applies to the following—
(a) an application by a licensee for the revocation or variation of a condition of the licence or a condition of a licence-related authorisation, other than a revocation or variation that would result in reduced trading hours,
(b) an application to vary the business or activity, or the kind of premises, specified in an on-premises licence,
(c) an application to carry on business on temporary premises,
(d) an application for a producer/wholesaler licence,
(e) an application for a pop-up licence,
(f) an application for a limited licence,
(g) an application for an extended trading authorisation, that is not a special occasion extended trading authorisation,
(h) an application for a drink on-premises authorisation,
(i) an application for a special drink on-premises authorisation,
(j) an application for an authorisation under the Act, section 24(3),
(k) an application for an on-premises licence that is not a full notification application,
(l) an application to remove an on-premises licence that is not a full notification application.
The applicant must notify the occupier of neighbouring premises of the making of an application to which this clause applies.
The Secretary must notify the following government stakeholders, if relevant, of the making of an application to which this clause applies—
(a) the local consent authority,
(b) the local police,
(c) if the premises to which the application relates are, or will be, situated on Crown land within the meaning of the Crown Land Management Act 2016—the Minister administering that Act,
(d) if the premises to which the application relates are, or will be, situated within 500m of the boundary of another local government area—the local consent authority for that other area.
Despite clause 21 or 22, the requirement to notify the occupier of neighbouring premises of an application does not apply in relation to an application for—
(a) a producer/wholesaler licence, unless the application is made in conjunction with an application for the following—
(i) a special drink on-premises authorisation, or
(ii) a drink on-premises authorisation, or
(b) a pop-up licence, or
(c) a limited licence, or
(d) an authorisation, unless the authorisation is—
(i) an extended trading authorisation that is not a special occasion extended trading authorisation, or
(ii) a special drink on-premises authorisation, or
(iii) a drink on-premises authorisation, or
(iv) made under the Act, section 24(3).
(cf 2008 reg cl 9)
If an application is made to the Authority, a notice relating to the application that is in the form approved by the Authority must, within 2 working days of making the application, be fixed by the applicant to the premises to which the application relates.
The notice must be fixed to the premises until such time as the application is determined by the Authority.
If premises have not been erected, the requirement to fix a notice relating to an application may be satisfied by fixing the notice to a notice board erected on the land on which it is proposed to erect the premises.
A notice is not fixed to premises or land in accordance with this clause unless—
(a) it is fixed to the premises or land in such a position that it is legible to members of the public passing the premises or land, and
(b) if the Authority has directed that it also be fixed in another specified position—it is also fixed in that other position.
This clause applies in relation to a licence-related authorisation only if it is—
(a) an extended trading authorisation, or
(b) a drink on-premises authorisation, or
(c) an authorisation under section 24(3) of the Act.
This clause does not apply in relation to an application for a limited licence.
(cf 2008 reg cl 9A)
This Division does not apply to or in respect of a small bar application if—
(a) development consent is required under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 to use the premises to which the application relates as a small bar or to sell liquor during the times to which the application relates, and
(b) the local police and the Secretary are, no more than 2 working days after the application for the required development consent, or any variation to that application, is made, notified by the applicant of the making of the application for development consent or of the variation to that application.
However, the Secretary must notify the local police of the making of a small bar application no later than 2 working days after the application is made.
A notice under subclause (2) must—
(a) include a link to the NSW Government website where the application documents are located and public submissions may be made, and
(b) be in the form, and given in the way, approved by the Authority.
In this clause—
(a) an application for a small bar licence,
(b) an application for approval to remove a small bar licence to other premises,
(c) an application for an extended trading authorisation for a small bar,
(d) an application to vary an extended trading authorisation for a small bar.
Without limiting subclause (1), this Division does not apply to or in respect of an application for a small bar licence if—
(a) the application relates to the same premises as the premises to which a general bar licence relates, and
(b) development consent has been obtained under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 to sell liquor during the times to which the application relates and those times are specified in the development consent.
(cf 2008 reg cl 9B)
This Division does not apply to or in respect of an application for an on-premises licence relating to a restaurant if the application results in the issuing of an interim restaurant authorisation under clause 36.
However, a person who makes any such licence application must notify the local police and the local consent authority of the making of the application no later than 2 working days after the application is made.
(cf 2008 reg cl 9C)
An applicant is taken to have complied with any of the requirements under this Division in relation to an application if the Authority is satisfied that the applicant has made all reasonable efforts to comply with the requirement.
The Authority may also determine that a failure to comply with a requirement under this Division is to be disregarded for the purposes of this Division if the Authority is satisfied that the failure is of a minor or technical nature.
For the Act, section 48(7), definition of
(a) limited notification applications,
(b) full notification applications,
(c) an application, or one of a class of applications, required by the Authority to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects.
For an application for an extended trading authorisation for a hotel licence, the matters to be addressed by a statement of risks and potential effects are to include matters relating to gambling activities on the licensed premises during the period the authorisation is proposed to be in force.
A relevant small bar licence application is not required to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects if—
(a) development consent is required under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 to use the premises to which the application relates as a small bar or to sell liquor during the times to which the application relates, and
(b) the local police and the Secretary are, no more than 2 working days after the application for the required development consent, or any variation to that application, is made, notified by the applicant of the making of the application for development consent or of the variation to that application.
An excluded application is not required to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects.
In this clause—
(a) an application for a small bar, other than an application under the Act, Schedule 1, clause 39, where—
(i) the application relates to the same premises as the premises to which a general bar licence relates, and
(ii) development consent has been obtained under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 to sell liquor during the times to which the application relates and those times are specified in the development consent,
(b) an application for a multi-occasion extended trading authorisation under the Act, section 49B where—
(i) the extended trading authorisation of the kind referred to in section 49(5)(a) is in force in relation to the licensed premises, or
(ii) the application is made in relation to club premises that have unrestricted trading hours in accordance with the Registered Clubs Act 1976, Schedule 2, clause 94,
(c) an application for a multi-occasion extended trading authorisation under the Act, section 49B, relating to club premises where, within the period of 6 months before the application is made—
(i) the trading hours of the club premises have been reduced by a condition under the Act, section 54, or a request has been made by the club for a condition to be imposed under that section that would result in reduced trading hours, or
(ii) an ongoing extended trading authorisation in relation to the club premises has, on application by the club, been revoked or varied so as to reduce the trading hours to no later than 1:30am, or an application has been made to reduce the trading hours to no later than 1:30am,
(d) an application for a multi-occasion extended trading authorisation relating to any other licensed premises where the trading hours of the premises at the time the application is made are equal to or more than the trading hours under the proposed extended trading authorisation.
(a) an application for a small bar licence,
(b) an application for approval to remove a small bar licence to other premises,
(c) an application for an extended trading authorisation for a small bar, other than if the authorisation would result in trading on a regular basis at any time between 2am and 5am,
(d) an application to vary an extended trading authorisation for a small bar, other than if the variation would result in trading on a regular basis at any time between 2am and 5am.
For the Act, section 48(2)(b)(i), in preparing a statement of risks and potential effects, the applicant may, if the applicant considers it appropriate, consult with local consent authorities, community organisations and members of the public.
(cf 2008 reg cl 12)
Any person may, subject to this clause, make a submission to the Authority in relation to any application that is made to the Authority under the Act.
Any such submission must—
(a) specify details of the application to which the submission relates, and
(b) be made within 30 days of the date on which the application was made, or such shorter period as the Authority may determine in any particular case.
In the case of an application for an on-premises licence relating to a restaurant that is made online and is not required to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects under the Act, section 48, submissions must be made within 14 days of the date on which the application was made.
In the case of an application for any of the following licences, submissions must be made within 14 days of the date on which the application was made, or such shorter period as the Authority may determine in any particular case—
(a) a limited licence or a pop-up licence,
(b) a special occasion extended trading authorisation,
(c) an authorisation under section 14(6) of the Act (relating to hotel functions on other premises),
(d) a drink on-premises authorisation that is, in the opinion of the Authority, of a temporary nature.
Despite subclauses (2)–(4), the Authority may, in such cases as the Authority thinks fit, extend the period in which persons may make submissions in relation to any particular application or class of applications.
This clause does not apply in relation to an application for an on-premises licence relating to a restaurant if the application results in the issuing of an interim restaurant authorisation under clause 36.
(Repealed)
(cf 2008 reg cl 13)
The Authority is not, under section 42 of the Act, required to refer any of the following applications to the Secretary—
(a) an application for a single function limited licence,
(b) an application that is to be determined by a designated Public Service employee (within the meaning of section 3(1) of the Gaming and Liquor Administration Act 2007) acting under a delegation given by the Authority in respect of the application.
(cf 2008 reg cl 14)
If an application (other than an application to which Division 1 applies) is made to the Authority, the Authority may require the application to be advertised in such manner as the Authority considers appropriate.
The Authority may refuse to determine any such application unless it has been advertised in accordance with any requirement.
(cf 2008 reg cl 15)
This clause applies in relation to an application for any of the following—
(a) an extended trading authorisation (other than a special occasion extended trading authorisation),
(b) a drink on-premises authorisation,
(c) an authorisation under section 24(3) of the Act.
An application to which this clause applies must demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the Authority, that—
(a) practices are in place, and will remain in place, at the licensed premises to which the application relates that ensure, as far as reasonably practicable, that liquor is sold, supplied or served responsibly on the premises and that all reasonable steps are taken to prevent intoxication on the premises, and
(b) if a planning approval is required to use the licensed premises in accordance with the licence-related authorisation concerned—the required planning approval is in force.
(cf 2008 reg cl 16)
Section 41 of the Act does not apply in relation to an application for a limited licence.
A person who applies for a small bar licence is, when the application is made, to be issued with an interim small bar authorisation by the Secretary if—
(a) the application is made online, and
(b) the application is not required to be accompanied by a statement of risks and potential effects under the Act, section 48, and
(c) the application is, except to the extent provided by this clause, made in accordance with sections 40 and 41 of the Act, and
(d) any planning approval required to use the premises for the purposes of a small bar is in force, and
(e) the application for the planning approval was subject to a public consultation process under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 and indicated that the premises are intended to operate as a small bar.
However, the applicant is not to be issued with an interim small bar authorisation in respect of the premises to which the application relates if—
(a) any interim small bar authorisation issued under this clause in respect of the premises has been revoked during the period of 12 months before the date on which the licence application is made, or
(b) an application for a small bar licence in respect of the premises has been refused during that 12-month period.
The Secretary may, by notice in writing to the applicant, require the applicant to provide any information the Secretary requires in relation to the matters referred to in subclause (1).
If the applicant does not comply with a request by the Secretary under subclause (3) within 30 days from the giving of the notice, the Secretary may revoke the interim small bar authorisation issued to the applicant.
The Secretary may issue an applicant with an interim small bar authorisation if—
(a) the applicant’s application for a small bar licence was made in accordance with the Act but not determined before the commencement of this clause, and
(b) any planning approval required to use the premises for the purposes of a small bar is in force, and
(c) the application for the planning approval was subject to a public consultation process under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 that indicated that the premises were intended to operate as a small bar.
An interim small bar authorisation is to be in the form approved by the Secretary.
While an interim small bar authorisation is in force, the person to whom the authorisation is issued, and any employee or agent of that person, is exempt from section 7 of the Act to the extent that the section prohibits the person, employee or agent from selling liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates.
Subclause (1) is subject to the following requirements—
(a) the sale of liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates and the operation of those premises must comply with the licence conditions under the Act and this Regulation that would apply in relation to the premises if they were a small bar,
(b) any person selling liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates must hold a recognised competency card with a current RSA endorsement under Part 5,
(c) for an interim small bar authorisation issued under clause 35A(5), liquor cannot be sold on the premises unless the local police and the local consent authority have been given at least the following period of notice before trading starts—
(i) 2 days,
(ii) the longer period stated in the authorisation.
For the purposes of the Act and this Regulation, while an interim small bar authorisation is in force—
(a) the premises to which the authorisation relates are taken to be licensed premises, and
(b) the person to whom the authorisation is issued is taken to be the licensee of those premises.
Subclause (3) does not apply in relation to Division 3 of Part 4 of the Act or to any other provisions of the Act or this Regulation that the Secretary may determine by written order.
The 6-hour closure period under section 11A of the Act that, in accordance with subclause (2)(a), applies to the premises to which an interim small bar authorisation relates is the period from 4 am to 10 am.
Unless the authorisation is revoked by the Secretary, an interim small bar authorisation continues to be in force until the licence application in relation to which the authorisation was issued is determined by the Authority in accordance with the Act.
The Secretary may revoke an interim small bar authorisation at any time if the Secretary is satisfied that—
(a) the requirements or other matters referred to in clause 35A(1) or (5) were not complied with, or were not applicable to the licence application, at the time the authorisation was issued, or
(b) any requirement referred to in clause 35B(2) has not been complied with in respect of the premises to which the authorisation relates.
(cf 2008 reg cl 16A)
A person who makes an application for an on-premises licence relating to a restaurant is, when the application is made, to be issued with an interim restaurant authorisation by the Secretary if—
(a) the application is made online, and
(b) the application is not required to be accompanied by statement of risks and potential effects under the Act, section 48, and
(c) the application is, except to the extent provided by this clause, made in accordance with sections 40 and 41 of the Act, and
(d) any planning approval required to use the premises for the purposes of a restaurant is in force, and
(e) the application for the planning approval was subject to a public consultation process under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 and indicated that the premises are intended to operate as a licensed restaurant.
However, the person making the licence application is not to be issued with an interim restaurant authorisation in respect of the premises to which the application relates if—
(a) any interim restaurant authorisation issued under this clause in respect of the premises has been revoked during the period of 12 months before the date on which the licence application is made, or
(b) an application for an on-premises licence in respect of the premises has been refused during that 12-month period.
The Secretary may, by notice in writing to the person making the licence application, require the person to provide such information as the Secretary requires in relation to matters referred to in subclause (1). If any such information is not provided within 30 days from the giving of the notice the Secretary may revoke the interim restaurant authorisation issued to the person.
If—
(a) an application for an on-premises licence relating to a restaurant was made in accordance with the Act before the commencement of this clause but was not determined before that commencement, and
(b) the application was not required to be accompanied by statement of risks and potential effects under the Act, section 48, and
(c) any planning approval required to use the premises for the purposes of a restaurant is in force, and
(d) the application for the planning approval was subject to a public consultation process under the Environmental Planning and Assessment Act 1979 and indicated that the premises are intended to operate as a licensed restaurant,
the Secretary may issue the licence applicant with an interim restaurant authorisation.
An interim restaurant authorisation under this clause is to be in the form approved by the Secretary.
While an interim restaurant authorisation under this clause is in force, the person to whom the authorisation is issued, and any employee or agent of that person, is exempt from so much of section 7 of the Act as would prohibit the person, employee or agent from selling liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates.
Subclause (6) is subject to the following requirements—
(a) the sale of liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates and the operation of those premises must comply with the licence conditions under the Act and this Regulation that would apply in relation to the premises if they were a licensed restaurant,
(b) any person selling liquor on the premises to which the authorisation relates must hold a recognised competency card with a current RSA endorsement under Part 5,
(c) in the case of an interim restaurant authorisation issued under subclause (4), liquor cannot be sold on the premises unless the local police and the local consent authority have been given at least the following notice before trading starts—
(i) 2 days,
(ii) the longer period stated in the authorisation.
The Secretary may revoke an interim restaurant authorisation at any time if the Secretary is satisfied that—
(a) the requirements or other matters referred to in subclause (1) or (4) (as the case requires) were not complied with, or were not applicable to the licence application, at the time the authorisation was issued, or
(b) any requirement referred to in subclause (7) has not been complied with in respect of the premises to which the authorisation relates.
While an interim restaurant authorisation is in force—
(a) the premises to which the authorisation relates are taken to be licensed premises, and
(b) the person to whom the authorisation is issued is taken to be the licensee of those premises,
for the purposes of the Act and this Regulation.
Subclause (9) does not apply in relation to Division 3 of Part 4 of the Act or to such other provisions of the Act or this Regulation as the Secretary may determine by order in writing.
Unless it is revoked by the Secretary, an interim restaurant authorisation continues to be in force until the licence application in respect of which the authorisation was issued is determined by the Authority in accordance with the Act.
The 6-hour closure period under section 11A of the Act that, in accordance with subclause (7)(a), applies to the premises to which an interim restaurant authorisation relates is the period from 4 am to 10 am.
The Authority may, on an application under section 50 of the Act for a drink on-premises authorisation relating to a micro-brewery or small distillery, grant the authorisation subject to a condition that the authorisation authorises the licensee to sell liquor by retail on the licensed premises, for consumption on the licensed premises, if all of the following apply—
(a) the applicant carries on business as a producer of beer, cider or spirits,
(b) the liquor is not sold on any day of the week (other than on 31 December in any year until 2 am on the next succeeding day, or on a restricted trading day)—
(i) outside the standard trading period for that day, or
(ii) if the licensee holds an extended trading authorisation in relation to the licence—
(A) outside the period authorised by the authorisation, and
(B) between 2 am and 5 am, despite the authorisation and despite section 50(2)(a) of the Act,
(c) food of a nature and quantity consistent with the responsible sale, supply and service of alcohol is made available whenever liquor is sold or supplied under the authorisation,
(d) the number of patrons on the premises does not exceed 120,
(e) any spirits sold for consumption on the premises are the licensee’s product (within the meaning of section 33 of the Act),
(f) if the licensee is a producer of beer or cider (or both)—any beer or cider sold for consumption on the premises is the licensee’s product (within the meaning of section 33 of the Act).
No application fee is payable in respect of an application under this clause made before 1 September 2020.
(Repealed)
In this clause,
(a) a limited licence in respect of a function that is a trade fair,
(b) a limited licence for a special event,
(c) an authorisation under section 14(6) of the Act to sell liquor on other premises.
If a large-scale commercial event application is made later than 28 days before the relevant function or event is to begin—
(a) a late application fee of 1.1 fee units is payable in addition to the relevant application fee, and
(b) the Authority may grant the licence or authorisation only if the Authority is satisfied that it has sufficient time to consider the merits of the application.
(cf 2008 reg cl 17A)
For the purposes of section 20C(1) of the Act, the prescribed number is 120.
(cf 2008 reg cl 17)
It is a condition of a general bar licence or a small bar licence that the licensed premises cannot be used—
(a) to conduct a totalizator, or to conduct any betting activity, under the authority of a licence granted under the Totalizator Act 1997, or
(b) to conduct a public lottery (within the meaning of the Public Lotteries Act 1996) authorised under that Act.
Note— Keno is a form of public lottery.
(cf 2008 reg cl 22)
Sections 123–126 of the Act do not apply to or in respect of a licensed public entertainment venue that is a cinema or a theatre.
(cf 2008 reg cl 27)
For the purposes of section 56(2)(d) of the Act, the following are prescribed as incidents that must be recorded in the incident register required to be maintained under that section—
(a) any incident that results in a patron of the relevant licensed premises requiring medical assistance,
(b) any incident that involves the possession or use on the premises of any substance that the licensee suspects of being a prohibited plant or a prohibited drug.
(cf 2008 reg cl 28)
For the purposes of section 84(5) of the Act, the Authority cannot require the closure of premises for a period of more than 6 months.
(cf 2008 reg cl 36)
This clause applies to any staff member of licensed premises who—
(a) sells, supplies or serves liquor on the licensed premises, or
(b) carries on any security activity (such as a crowd controller or bouncer) on or about the licensed premises, or
(c) exercises any functions under the Act or this Regulation.
It is a condition of a licence that a copy of each of the following are available at all times for the information of the staff members of the licensed premises to which this clause applies—
(a) the licence,
(b) any licence-related authorisation held in relation to the licence,
(c) any conditions imposed by the Authority or the Secretary on the licence or the authorisation.
For the purposes of the definition of
It is a condition of a small bar licence that the licensed premises cannot be used to operate as a facility regularly used for adult relaxation entertainment (including adult entertainment of a sexual nature).
(Repealed)
(cf 2008 reg cl 18)
For the purposes of section 21 of the Act, premises that operate primarily as premises providing entertainment by way of amusement machines (such as pinball machines or video games), pool tables, games of poker using playing cards or juke boxes are prescribed—
(a) as premises in respect of which an on-premises licence must not be granted, or
(b) if an on-premises licence has been granted for the premises—as premises in respect of which the authorisation conferred by the licence does not apply.
(cf 2008 reg cl 20)
In this clause—
(a) for functions, occasions or events that are by invitation only, or
(b) for fee, gain or reward.
A relevant authorisation may be granted by the Authority only for the purposes of authorising the licensee to sell liquor—
(a) in the case of a licensee who carries on a commercial catering business—on any premises in respect of which the licensee provides catering services, or
(b) to a person who is participating in a commercial tour operated by the licensee or a related corporation of the licensee.
A relevant authorisation is subject to the condition that food of a nature consistent with the responsible sale, supply and service of alcohol is made available whenever liquor is sold or supplied on any premises in accordance with the authorisation.
A relevant authorisation that is held by a licensee who carries on a commercial catering business is subject to the following conditions—
(a) the licensee must give written notice of any proposal to provide catering services at a function to be held under the authorisation to the Secretary, the local police and the local council for the area in which the function is to be held,
(b) the notice must include the following details—
(i) the address of the premises on which the function is to be held,
(ii) the name of the occupier of those premises,
(iii) the nature of the function,
(iv) the number of persons for whom catering services are to be provided at the function,
(v) the date on which, and the hours during which, the function is to be held,
(c) the notice must be given—
(i) in the case of a function that is open to the public and at which catering services are to be provided to 2,000 persons or more on any day—not less than 28 days before the date on which the function is to be held, and
(ii) in any other case—not less than 14 days before the date on which the function is to be held,
(d) the licensee must not sell or supply liquor on any premises in respect of which an application by any person for any of the following has been refused by the Authority within the previous 2 years—
(i) a licence,
(ii)
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LIQO624015081 | K1 Karaoke Lounge |
LIQH400101252 | Kent St. Hotel |
LIQH400106262 | Kinselas Hotel |
LIQH400122470 | Kittyhawk |
LIQO660010294 | Lantern By Wagaya |
LIQH400108613 | Laughing Buddha Bar |
LIQH400105940 | Le Pub |
LIQO624006625 | Limelight on Oxford |
LIQH400103573 | Lord Nelson Hotel |
LIQH400103603 | Lord Roberts Hotel |
LIQH400106114 | Maloney’s Hotel |
LIQH400113374 | Martin Place Bar |
LIQO624006152 | Men’s Gallery Sydney |
LIQH400103840 | Mercantile Hotel |
LIQH400114443 | Merivale at the Angel |
LIQH400103883 | Metropolitan Hotel |
LIQO624006286 | Miind Nightclub |
LIQH400102941 | Mountbatten Hotel |
LIQH400101864 | Mr B’s Hotel |
LIQO624006653 | Nevermind Nightclub |
LIQC300229009 | New South Wales Leagues Club |
LIQH400106599 | New Windsor Hotel |
LIQH400104340 | Observer Hotel |
LIQH400104359 | Occidental Hotel |
LIQH400104413 | Orient Hotel |
LIQO624014771 | Oxford Art Factory |
LIQH400104480 | Oxford Hotel |
LIQH400104553 | Palace Hotel Sydney Since 1877 |
LIQO624008073 | Palms on Oxford Nightclub |
LIQO624004559 | Paradiso Terrace |
LIQH400104596 | Paragon Hotel |
LIQH400105592 | Pavillion Tavern |
LIQH440018953 | PJ O’ Brien’s Irish Pub |
LIQH424007134 | Pontoon Bar |
LIQH400121709 | QT Sydney |
LIQO624007139 | Quay Bar |
LIQH400105606 | Ryan’s Bar |
LIQO624006549 | Salon de Thé Restaurant |
LIQH400110480 | Sanctuary Hotel |
LIQH440010015 | Scary Canary |
LIQH400110200 | Scruffy Murphy’s Hotel |
LIQH400105495 | Shark Hotel |
LIQH424008188 | Shelbourne Hotel |
LIQH400113595 | Ship Inn |
LIQH424009765 | Side Bar |
LIQO624015707 | Simmer on the Bay |
LIQH400105614 | Sir John Young Hotel |
LIQO624013940 | Slide Lounge |
LIQH400101562 | Slip Inn |
LIQH400101120 | St James Hotel |
LIQH400103441 | Star Bar & Grill |
LIQH400105746 | Star Hotel |
LIQH400100671 | Stilo Bar Deli Cafe |
LIQH424006252 | Stonewall Hotel |
LIQH400105819 | Strand Hotel |
LIQO624015145 | Strike KSW |
LIQH400104154 | Surry Hills Hotel |
LIQH400104162 | Swine and Co |
LIQH400100035 | Sydney Hilton Hotel |
LIQH400105894 | Syds Champagne Bar |
LIQH400102534 | The 3 Wise Monkeys Pub |
LIQH400100868 | The Albion Place Hotel |
LIQH400100191 | The Argyle Sydney |
LIQH400102038 | The Arthouse Hotel |
LIQH400100418 | The Basement |
LIQO624009952 | The Bavarian Beerhaus |
LIQH440010080 | The Baxter Inn |
LIQH400100558 | The Beresford Hotel |
LIQH424009949 | The Blacket Hotel |
LIQO624006608 | The Cliff Dive Pty Ltd |
LIQH400104448 | The Colombian Hotel |
LIQH400100140 | The Cuckoo’s Perch |
LIQH400100086 | The Flinders Hotel, Darlinghurst |
LIQH400106424 | The Flynn |
LIQO600407544 | The Governors Pleasure Restaurant |
LIQH400110081 | The Haymarket Hotel |
LIQH424015318 | The Heritage Belgian Beer Cafe |
LIQH400102887 | The Langham, Sydney |
LIQH400108672 | The Local Taphouse (Darlinghurst) Pty Ltd |
LIQO624004483 | The Metro Theatre |
LIQH400100825 | The Morrison Bar & Oyster Room |
LIQH400104855 | The Office Hotel |
LIQH400105681 | The Porterhouse |
LIQH400106203 | The Republic Hotel |
LIQC300230120 | The Rugby Club Foundation Limited |
LIQO624013867 | The Scary Canary |
LIQH400104138 | The Sussex Hotel |
LIQH424006304 | The Vault Bar |
LIQO624006970 | The Velvet Underground Sydney |
LIQH400106246 | The Verandah Bar & Bistro |
LIQH400104987 | Triple 8 Hotel |
LIQH400104383 | Universal Hotel |
LIQH400105533 | V Bar Sydney |
LIQH400103646 | Woolloomooloo Bay Hotel |
Licence number | Name of licensed premises |
LIQO600400396 | 360 Degrees Bar & Dining Room |
LIQO624007411 | 6 Head (1788) |
LIQO624008623 | Adria Bar Restaurant |
LIQH424008103 | Amora Hotel Jamison Sydney |
LIQO624013506 | Appethai Restaurant |
LIQO624007948 | Aria Restaurant |
LIQO660010214 | Arisun 34 |
LIQO624006375 | At Bangkok |
LIQC300225313 | Australian Club |
LIQO624007233 | Blackbird Cafe Restaurant |
LIQO660010032 | Bopp & Tones |
LIQO624001282 | Cafe Museum |
LIQO624008570 | Casa Ristorante Italiano |
LIQO624009701 | City Dae Jang Kum |
LIQO624000940 | City Extra Restaurant |
LIQO624008993 | City Recital Hall |
LIQC300226522 | Combined Services RSL Club Co Operative Ltd |
LIQO624007969 | Dendy Cinema Opera Quays |
LIQC324008772 | Dugout Bar and Restaurant |
LIQO624006171 | East Ocean Restaurant |
LIQO600495877 | Emperors Garden Restaurant |
LIQO600432077 | Employees Only Sydney |
LIQO624005706 | Fratelli Alfresco |
LIQH400101406 | Four Seasons Hotel |
LIQC300227375 | Gallipoli Memorial Club |
LIQO624003105 | Golden Century Restaurant |
LIQO600498442 | Golden Harbour Restaurant |
LIQC300227650 | Hellenic Club Limited |
LIQH400121822 | Holiday Inn Darling Harbour |
LIQO624013898 | Hotel Lobby |
LIQH400103476 | Hyatt Regency Sydney |
LIQO624002320 | Indigo Restaurant |
LIQH400116152 | Intercontinental Sydney |
LIQO624009855 | Jamie’s Italian by Jamie Oliver |
LIQO600487858 | Jang Po |
LIQO624003705 | Law Society of NSW |
LIQO624006386 | Low302 |
LIQO624009653 | Manjits @ the Wharf |
LIQH400103832 | Menzies Hotel |
LIQO624005152 | Museum of Sydney |
LIQO624014892 | Myung Jang |
LIQO624008394 | Nick’s Bar and Grill |
LIQO600494005 | Nine Dragons |
LIQC300229025 | NSW Masonic Club |
LIQO600462960 | O Bar and Dining |
LIQH400106432 | Old Sydney Holiday Inn |
LIQO660031204 | Old Town Asian Restaurant |
LIQO600779774 | Opera Bar |
LIQO624014728 | Ottoman Cuisine |
LIQO600411908 | Pancakes On The Rocks |
LIQH424002828 | Park Hyatt Sydney |
LIQH400102631 | Park Royal Darling Harbour, Sydney |
LIQO624013679 | Parliament of New South Wales |
LIQO600408400 | Patron Restaurant by Rockpool |
LIQO624004022 | Pearl by Lotus |
LIQO624015578 | Pendolino |
LIQH400102232 | Pier One Sydney Harbour |
LIQH424007367 | Pullman Quay Grand Sydney Harbour |
LIQO600700795 | Qantas Credit Union Arena |
LIQO624001399 | Quay Restaurant |
LIQO624000526 | Queen Victoria Building |
LIQH400101627 | Radisson Hotel & Suites |
LIQO624009176 | Redoak Boutique Beer Cafe |
LIQO624002497 | Restaurant Hubert |
LIQO660010182 | Rockpool Bar & Grill |
LIQO624012499 | Roslyn Packer Theatre Walsh Bay |
LIQC300230015 | Royal Automobile Club of Australia |
LIQO624014658 | Sea Life Sydney Aquarium, Wild Life Sydney and Madame Tussauds Sydney |
LIQO624008960 | Seoulria |
LIQH400105878 | Shangri-La Hotel Sydney |
LIQH400104057 | Sheraton on the Park |
LIQO660010295 | Shinara |
LIQO624000769 | Sienna Marina Brasserie |
LIQH400102674 | Sir Stamford at Circular Quay |
LIQO624009265 | SMC Conference & Function Centre |
LIQH424012737 | Sofitel Sydney Wentworth |
LIQO660010178 | Spice Temple |
LIQH424007933 | Swissotel Sydney on Market Street |
LIQH400101767 | Sydney Harbour Marriott |
LIQO624014046 | Sydney Madang Restaurant |
LIQO600780918 | Sydney Town Hall |
LIQO624005645 | Sydney Town Hall |
LIQO624008962 | Tailored Events |
LIQC300230678 | Tattersalls Club |
LIQO624015157 | The Art Gallery of New South Wales |
LIQO624012964 | The Bulgogi Sydney CBD |
LIQC300226328 | The Catholic Club Ltd |
LIQO660011131 | The Cuban Place |
LIQH400118074 | The Grace Hotel |
LIQO624012349 | The DYC Sydney |
LIQH424013942 | The Mercure Hotel Sydney |
LIQC300229688 | The Queen’s Club Ltd |
LIQH400110103 | The Radisson Blu Plaza Hotel Sydney |
LIQC324002268 | The Royal Exchange of Sydney |
LIQO600703530 | The State Theatre |
LIQH400106572 | The Sydney Boulevard Hotel |
LIQO600702380 | The Sydney Mint Building & Hyde Park Barracks Museum |
LIQO600702593 | The Theatre Bar at the End of the Wharf |
LIQH424007684 | The Westin Sydney |
LIQO600780144 | Theatre Royal |
LIQO624012870 | Tropicana Caffe |
LIQC300230716 | Union, University & Schools Club of Sydney |
LIQC300230724 | Union, University & Schools Club of Sydney |
LIQO600404693 | Vibe Hotel Goulburn Street |
LIQH400111029 | Vibe Hotel Rushcutters Sydney |
LIQO600498426 | Waterfront Restaurant |
City of Sydney local government area
clause 90(2)(f)
(When this Regulation was made this Part was blank)
Licence number | Premises or part of premises |
LIQO600462839 | Argyle Tavern |
LIQO624008199 | Play Karaoke |
LIQO624009952 | Bavarian Beer Cafe York |
LIQO624007136 | Dockside |
LIQO624008450 | King St Brewhouse & Restaurant |
LIQO624006549 | Salon de Thé Restaurant |
LIQO624006152 | Men’s Gallery Sydney |
LIQO624014771 | Oxford Art Factory |
LIQO624004559 | Paradiso Terrace |
LIQO624007501 | Pure Platinum |
LIQO624007139 | Quay Bar |
LIQO600407544 | Governor’s Pleasure Restaurant |
LIQO624004483 | Metro Theatre |
LIQH400121709 | Part of QT Sydney known as “Gilt Bar” as at 29 March 2014 |
LIQH400100035 | Part of Sydney Hilton Hotel known as “Zeta Bar” as at 29 March 2014 |
LIQH400101465 | Part of Coronation Hotel known as “Smoking Panda Bar” as at 19 July 2016 |
(Section 13 of the Act)
For a special event specified in Column 1 of the table below, the period specified in Column 2 is prescribed as a period during which liquor may be sold or supplied for consumption on the premises to which a hotel or club licence relates.
If a class of hotel or club premises is specified in Column 3 in relation to a special event, the extended trading period only applies to that class of hotel or club premises.
Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 |
Special event | Extended trading period | Class of hotel or club premises to which extended trading period applies |
ICC Men’s One Day International World Cup 2023—Semi-Final 1 | Midnight on Wednesday 15 November 2023 to 4am on Thursday 16 November 2023 | Hotel or club premises providing a live broadcast of the match before or during the extended trading period |
ICC Men’s One Day International World Cup 2023—Semi-Final 2 | Midnight on Thursday 16 November 2023 to 4am on Friday 17 November 2023 | Hotel or club premises providing a live broadcast of the match before or during the extended trading period |
ICC Men’s One Day International World Cup 2023—Final | 10pm on Sunday 19 November 2023 to 4am on Monday 20 November 2023 | Hotel or club premises providing a live broadcast of the match before or during the extended trading period |
For the purposes of section 150 of the Act—
(a) each offence specified in this Schedule is an offence for which a penalty notice may be issued, and
(b) the amount payable under any such penalty notice is the amount specified in this Schedule for the offence.
Column 1 | Column 2 |
Provision | Penalty |
Section 7(1) | $1,100 |
Section 8(1) | $1,100 |
Section 8(2) | $55 |
Section 9 | $1,100 |
Section 11(2) | $1,100 |
Section 66(1) | $550 |
Section 66(2) | $1,100 |
Section 69(1) | $550 |
Section 73(1) or (2) | $1,100 |
Section 73(3) | $550 |
Section 74(1)–(4) | $550 |
Section 75(3) | $1,100 |
Section 77(4), (6) or (8) | $550 |
Section 78(8) | $550 |
Section 82(6) | $2,200 |
Section 84(7) | $2,200 |
Section 86(2) | $2,200 |
Section 88(1) | $550 |
Section 92(1) or (2) | $550 |
Section 93 | $550 |
Section 95(1), (2) or (4) | $55 |
Section 97(5) | $220 |
Section 100(2) | $550 |
Section 101(7) | $550 |
Section 102(3) | $550 |
Section 102A(2) | $550 |
Section 103 | $550 |
Section 104(1) | $55 |
Section 104(5) | $220 |
Section 105(1) | $55 |
Section 106(1) | $550 |
Section 107(1) | $55 |
Section 108(1) | $1,100 |
Section 109(1) | $1,100 |
Section 110(1) | $550 |
Section 111(1) | $110 |
Section 112 | $110 |
Section 113(1) | $220 |
Section 114(1), (2), (3) or (7) | $220 |
Section 114(8) | $330 |
Section 114B— | |
| $2,750 |
| $550 |
Section 114C— | |
| $2,750 |
| $550 |
Section 114D— | |
| $2,750 |
| $550 |
Section 114H | $1,100 |
Section 114I(1) | $550 |
Section 114J | $550 |
Section 114K(1) | $330 |
Section 114L(1) | $1,100 |
Section 114M(1) | $330 |
Section 114M(2) | $330 |
Section 114M(3) | $330 |
Section 114N(2) | $550 |
Section 114O(3) | $330 |
Section 114O(4) | $330 |
Section 114P(1) | $550 |
Section 116F(5) | $550 |
Section 116G(8) | $2,200 |
Section 117(1), (2), (4), (6) or (8) | $1,100 |
Section 117(5B) | $1,100 |
Section 118(1) | $220 |
Section 118(2) | $1,100 |
Section 119 | $550 |
Section 120(1) | $330 |
Section 122(5) | $220 |
Section 123(1) | $220 |
Section 124(1) | $1,100 |
Section 124(2) | $1,100 |
Section 125(1) | $330 |
Section 126 | $550 |
Section 128(2) | $220 |
Section 129 | $220 |
Section 138(5) | $1,100 |
Schedule 1, clause 18(1) or (2) | $330 |
Schedule 1, clause 18(3) | $550 |
Schedule 1, clause 19 | $330 |
Schedule 1, clause 20 | $330 |
Clause 50(1) | $220 |
Clause 51(1) | $220 |
Clause 52(2) | $220 |
Clause 53(1), (2) or (3) | $220 |
Clause 54(1) or (2) | $220 |
Clause 63(1)— | |
| $440 |
| $220 |
Clause 63(2), (3), (4) or (5) | $1,100 |
Clause 64(1)— | |
| $440 |
| $220 |
Clause 64(2) | $550 |
Clause 65(1)— | |
| $440 |
| $220 |
Clause 65(2) | $550 |
Clause 75(2) | $55 |
Clause 76(8) | $550 |
Clause 76(9) | $220 |
Clause 84(4) | $1,100 |
Liquor Regulation 2018 (473). LW 24.8.2018. Date of commencement, 1.9.2018, cl 2. This Regulation has been amended as follows—
(640) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 3) 2018. LW 16.11.2018. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(781) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2018. LW 21.12.2018. Date of commencement, 21.12.2018, cl 2. | |
(7) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation 2019. LW 18.1.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(87) | Liquor Amendment (Special Licence Conditions) Regulation 2019. LW 22.2.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(125) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2019. LW 28.2.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(126) | Liquor Amendment (Music Festivals) Regulation 2019. LW 28.2.2019 (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(194) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 2) 2019. LW 17.5.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(204) | Liquor Amendment (Special Licence Conditions) Regulation (No 2) 2019. LW 24.5.2019. Date of commencement, 1.6.2019, cl 2. | |
(317) | Liquor Amendment (Tiered Industry Training Framework) Regulation 2019. LW 5.7.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(463) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation (No 2) 2019. LW 20.9.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(589) | Liquor Amendment (Night Time Economy) Regulation 2019. LW 6.12.2019. Date of commencement, 14.1.2020, cl 2. | |
(640) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 3) 2019. LW 20.12.2019. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(34) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2020. LW 7.2.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(138) | Liquor Amendment (Waiver of Fees) Regulation 2020. LW 8.4.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(227) | Liquor Amendment (COVID-19 Licence Endorsements and Temporary Freezes) Regulation 2020. LW 29.5.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(610) | Liquor Amendment (COVID-19 and Managed Alcohol Program) Regulation 2020. LW 14.10.2020. Date of commencement, 15.10.2020, cl 2. | |
No 30 | Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2020. Assented to 27.10.2020. Date of commencement of Sch 3, assent, sec 2(1); date of commencement of amendments made by Sch 4, 22.1.2021, sec 2(4). | |
No 40 | Liquor Amendment (Night-time Economy) Act 2020. Assented to 27.11.2020. Date of commencement of Sch 1.2, 1.1.2021, sec 2(1) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020; date of commencement of Sch 2.2[1] and 4.2[4] and [22], 30.4.2021, sec 2(1) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020; date of commencement of Sch 2.2[2] [3], assent, sec 2(3); date of commencement of Sch 3.2[1], to the extent it inserts cl 107G, and [2], to the extent it inserts the entry relating to sec 114P(1), 1.12.2021, sec 2(1) and (2) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020; date of commencement of Sch 3.2[1], to the extent it inserts cll 107E and 107F, and [2], except to the extent it inserts the entry relating to sec 114P(1), 1.7.2021, sec 2(1) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020; date of commencement of Schs 3.2[1], to the extent it inserts the heading to Part 7B and cl 107D, and 4.2[1]–[3] [5] [6] [13] [18] [20] [21] [23] and [24], 11.12.2020, sec 2(1) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020; date of commencement of Sch 4.2[7]–[12] [14]–[17] and [19], 18.1.2021, sec 2(1) and 2020 (713) LW 11.12.2020. The amendments made by Sch 4.2[8] were without effect as the provisions being amended were amended by the Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2020. | |
(687) | Liquor Amendment (Liquor Licence Freeze) Regulation 2020. LW 27.11.2020. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. | |
(61) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2021. LW 19.2.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, cl 2. The amendment made by Sch 1[4] was without effect as the provision being amended was substituted by the Liquor Amendment (Night-time Economy) Act 2020. | |
(77) | Liquor Amendment (Kings Cross Special Licence Conditions) Regulation 2021. LW 26.2.2021. Date of commencement, 8.3.2021, cl 2. | |
(324) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation (No 2) 2021. LW 25.6.2021. Date of commencement of Sch 1[1] [5] and [8], 1.12.2021, cl 2(1); date of commencement of Sch 1[3] and [4], 1.6.2022, cl 2(4); date of commencement of Sch 1[2] [6], except to the extent it inserts cl 107H(1)(b), and [7], 1.7.2021, cl 2(1); date of commencement of Sch 1[6], to the extent that it inserts cl 107H(1)(b), 1.1.2022, cl 2(3). | |
(593) | Liquor Amendment (Outdoor Dining) Regulation 2021. LW 8.10.2021. Date of commencement, 8.10.2021, sec 2. | |
(594) | Liquor and Gaming Legislation Amendment Regulation 2021. LW 8.10.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
No 32 | Customer Service Legislation Amendment Act 2021. Assented to 29.11.2021. Date of commencement of Sch 1.9, assent, sec 2(1). | |
(734) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation 2021. LW 3.12.2021. Date of commencement of Sch 1[1], on publication on LW, sec 2(2); date of commencement of Sch 1[2], on publication on LW, sec 2(1). | |
(764) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 2) 2021. LW 17.12.2021. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(25) | Liquor Amendment (COVID Support) Regulation 2022. LW 3.2.2022. Date of commencement, 3.2.2022, sec 2. | |
(41) | Liquor Amendment (Outdoor Dining) Regulation 2022. LW 18.2.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(264) | Liquor Amendment (Online Age Verification Requirements) Regulation 2022. LW 1.6.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
No 26 | Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 2022. Assented to 16.6.2022. Date of commencement, assent, sec 2. | |
(318) | Liquor Amendment (Outdoor Dining) Regulation (No 2) 2022. LW 29.6.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
No 59 | Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act (No 2) 2022. Assented to 26.10.2022. Date of commencement, 13.1.2023, sec 2. | |
(683) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation 2022. LW 16.11.2022. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(862) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2022. LW 20.12.2022. Date of commencement of Sch 1[1], to the extent it inserts cl 63(4A)(a), [2] and [3], 1.2.2023, sec 2(a); date of commencement of Sch 1[1], except to the extent it inserts cl 63(4A)(a), and [4]–[7], on publication on LW, sec 2(b). | |
(45) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation 2023. LW 15.2.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(251) | Liquor Amendment (Alternative Age Verification) Regulation 2023. LW 17.5.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(391) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 2) 2023. LW 12.7.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. |
(558) | Liquor Amendment (Special Events Extended Trading) Regulation (No 3) 2023. LW 4.10.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(611) | Liquor Amendment (ICC Men’s One Day International World Cup) Regulation 2023. LW 15.11.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(621) | Liquor Amendment (Miscellaneous) Regulation 2023. LW 24.11.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
No 53 | 24-Hour Economy Legislation Amendment (Vibrancy Reforms) Act 2023. Assented to 12.12.2023. Date of commencement of Sch 3[1]–[8] [16] [18]–[20] and [22]–[34], assent, sec 2(b); date of commencement of Sch 3[9]–[15] [17] and [21], 1.7.2024, sec 2(a)(ii) and 2024 (211) LW 21.6.2024. | |
(707) | Liquor Amendment (Savings and Transitional Arrangements) Regulation 2023. LW 27.12.2023. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
(66) | Liquor Amendment (Licence Fees) Regulation 2024. LW 13.3.2024. Date of commencement, 15.3.2024, sec 2. | |
(177) | Liquor Amendment (Same Day Liquor Delivery) Regulation 2024. LW 29.5.2024. Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2. | |
No 25 | Better Regulation, Fair Trading and Other Legislation Amendment Act 2024. Assented to 31.5.2024. Date of commencement, assent, sec 2. | |
(250) | Gaming Machines and Liquor Amendment (Harm Minimisation Measures) Regulation 2024. LW 28.6.2024. Date of commencement of Sch 1[1], on publication on LW, sec 2(g); date of commencement of Sch 1[2], 1.7.2024, sec 2(a). | |
(254) | Liquor Amendment (Vibrancy Reforms) Regulation 2024. LW 28.6.2024. Date of commencement, immediately after the commencement of the 24-Hour Economy Legislation Amendment (Vibrancy Reforms) Act 2023, Sch 3[9]–[15], [17] and [21] (ie 1.7.2024), sec 2 and 2024 (211) LW 21.6.2024. | |
No 76 | 24-Hour Economy Legislation Amendment (Vibrancy Reforms) Act 2024. Assented to 31.10.2024. Date of commencement of Sch 5.3, assent, sec 2(b). |
Cl 3 | Am 2019 (125), Sch 1 [1]; 2019 (126), Sch 1 [1] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019); 2019 (463), Sch 1 [1]; 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[1]; 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[1]; 2021 (594), Sch 2[1] [2]; 2022 No 59, Sch 3.40[1]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[1]; 2024 (177), Sch 1[1]. |
Cl 4 | Am 2019 (463), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 6 | Am 2019 (125), Sch 1 [2]; 2019 (126), Sch 1 [2] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Cl 7 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [1]; 2019 (317), Sch 1 [1]; 2019 (463), Sch 1 [3]; 2023 (621), Sch 1[1]–[3]. |
Cl 7AA | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[1]. |
Cl 7A | Ins 2020 (138), Sch 1[1]. Am 2021 (594), Sch 2[3]. |
Cl 7B | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[2]. |
Cl 7C | Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[4]. |
Cl 8 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[1]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[2]. |
Cl 8A | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[2]. Rep 2024 No 76, Sch 5.3[1]. |
Cl 9 | Am 2023 No 53, Sch 3[3]. |
Cl 10 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[3]; 2021 (594), Sch 2[5]–[8]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[4] [5]; 2024 (66), Sch 1[1]–[10]. |
Cl 11 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[4]–[9]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[1]; 2024 (66), Sch 1[11]. |
Cl 12 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[10] [11]; 2021 (594), Sch 2[9]–[13]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[6] [7]; 2024 No 76, Sch 5.3[2]. |
Cl 13 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[8]. |
Cl 15 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 19 | Am 2020 (138), Sch 1[2]–[5]. |
Cl 19A | Ins 2018 (781), Sch 1 [3]. |
Cl 20 | Am 2023 No 53, Sch 3[9]; 2024 (254), Sch 1[1]. |
Cl 21 | Am 2019 (125), Sch 1 [3]; 2019 (126), Sch 1 [3] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019); 2019 (463), Sch 1 [4]. Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[10]. Am 2024 (254), Sch 1[2] [3]. |
Cl 22 | Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[10]; 2024 (254), Sch 1[4]. |
Cl 22A | Ins 2023 No 53, Sch 3[10]. Subst 2024 (254), Sch 1[5]. |
Cl 23 | Am 2019 (126), Sch 1 [4] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Cl 24 | Am 2024 (254), Sch 1[6]. |
Part 3, Div 2 | Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[11]. |
Cl 27 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[3]. Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[11]. Am 2024 (254), Sch 1[7] [8]. |
Cl 28 | Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[11]. |
Cl 28A | Ins 2023 No 53, Sch 3[11]. Am 2024 (254), Sch 1[9]–[11]. |
Cl 29 | Am 2019 (463), Sch 1 [5]; 2020 No 30, Schs 3.26[2], 4.36. Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[11]. |
Cl 30 | Am 2019 (125), Sch 1 [2]; 2019 (126), Sch 1 [5] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019); 2023 No 53, Sch 3[12]. |
Cl 31 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[13]. |
Cl 35 | Subst 2019 (126), Sch 1 [6] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Part 3, Div 4, Subdiv 1 | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[4]. |
Cl 35A | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [7] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019); 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[4]. Am 2023 No 53, Sch 3[14]. |
Cll 35B, 35C | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[4]. |
Part 3, Div 4, Subdiv 2, heading | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[4]. |
Cl 36 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4]; 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[5]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[15]. |
Cl 37 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [5]; 2019 (463), Sch 1 [6]–[8]; 2019 (589), Sch 1[1]; 2020 (610), Sch 1[1]. |
Cl 39 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 44A | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [8] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[6]. |
Cl 44B | Ins 2021 (61), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 44C | Ins 2024 (254), Sch 1[12]. Rep 2024 No 76, Sch 5.3[3]. |
Cl 46 | Am 2023 No 53, Sch 3[16]. |
Cl 46A | Ins 2023 No 53, Sch 3[17]. |
Cl 47 | Am 2021 (324), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 47A | Ins 2019 (463), Sch 1 [9]. |
Part 4, Div 2A | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. |
Cl 48A | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. Am 2020 (610), Sch 1[2] [3]. |
Cl 48B | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. Am 2020 (610), Sch 1[4]–[6]. |
Cl 48C | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. Am 2020 (610), Sch 1[7]–[13]. |
Cl 48D | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. Am 2020 (610), Sch 1[14]–[16]; 2022 No 26, Sch 2.17. |
Cl 48E | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. Rep 2020 (610), Sch 1[17]. |
Cl 48F | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [4]. |
Cl 50 | Am 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]; 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[7] [9]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[3]. |
Cl 51 | Subst 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[10]. |
Cl 52 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [6]; 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]; 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[11] [12]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[3]. |
Cl 53 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [6]; 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]. Subst 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[13]. Am 2022 No 59, Sch 3.40[2]. |
Cl 54 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [6]; 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]; 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[14]–[16]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[3]. |
Cl 55 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[17]; 2022 No 59, Sch 3.40[2]. |
Cl 55A | Ins 2024 (254), Sch 1[13]. |
Cl 59 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[18]. |
Part 4, Div 7 | Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[14]. |
Cl 61A | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [9] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[14]. |
Cl 61B | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [9] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[14]. Am 2023 No 53, Sch 3[19] [20]. |
Part 4A | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [9] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Cll 61C–61ZG | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [9] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Part 5, heading | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [7]. |
Part 5, Div 1, heading | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [8]. |
Cl 62 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [9]–[13]; 2019 (87), cl 3 (1); 2019 (125), Sch 1 [5]–[7]; 2019 (317), Sch 1 [2]. |
Cl 62A | Ins 2018 (781), Sch 1 [14]. Am 2019 (317), Sch 1 [3]. Rep 2023 (621), Sch 1[4]. |
Part 5, Div 2, heading | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [15]. |
Cl 63 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [16] [17]; 2019 (125), Sch 1 [8]; 2022 (862), Sch 1[1] [2]. |
Cl 64 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [18]. |
Cl 65 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [19]. |
Cl 66 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [20] [21]; 2019 (125), Sch 1 [9]. |
Cl 67 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [20]. |
Cll 67A–67C | Ins 2019 (126), Sch 1 [10] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019). |
Cl 68 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [20]. |
Cl 69 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [20]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[1]. |
Cl 70 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [22]. |
Cl 71 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [23]; 2019 (317), Sch 1 [4]; 2023 (621), Sch 1[5]. |
Cl 72 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [20] [24]; 2019 (317), Sch 1 [5]; 2019 (463), Sch 1 [10] [11]; 2020 (34), cl 3(1); 2022 (862), Sch 1[3]; 2023 (621), Sch 1[6]. |
Cl 73 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [20] [25]. |
Cl 73A | Ins 2020 (227), Sch 1[1]. Subst 2023 (621), Sch 1[7]. |
Cl 74 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [26]; 2019 (317), Sch 1 [6]; 2019 (463), Sch 1 [12]; 2023 (621), Sch 1[8] [9]. |
Cl 74A | Ins 2022 (25), Sch 1[1]. Am 2022 (318), Sch 1[1] [2]. Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[21]. |
Cl 75 | Am 2022 (862), Sch 1[4] [5]. |
Cl 76 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [27] [28]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[22]–[28]. |
Part 5, Div 4, heading | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [29]. |
Cl 77 | Subst 2018 (781), Sch 1 [30]. |
Cl 78 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [31]–[34]. |
Cl 79 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [20]. |
Cl 80 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [4] [20] [35] [36]. |
Cl 81 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [37]; 2022 (862), Sch 1[6]; 2024 (250), Sch 2[1]. |
Cl 82 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [38]. |
Cl 83 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [39]–[41]; 2019 (125), Sch 1 [10]–[12]. |
Cl 83A | Ins 2018 (781), Sch 1 [42]. |
Cl 83B | Ins 2019 (125), Sch 1 [13]. |
Cl 89 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[3] [4]. Rep 2021 (77), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 89A | Ins 2019 (87), cl 3 (2). Rep 2019 (589), Sch 1[5]. |
Cl 90 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[6]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[3] [4]; 2024 (254), Sch 1[14]. |
Cl 91 | Am 2021 (77), Sch 1[5] [6]. |
Cl 92 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[7]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[7]. |
Cl 94 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [43]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[8] [9]. |
Cl 95 | Rep 2021 (77), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 96 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [44]. |
Cl 102 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[8]. Rep 2021 (77), Sch 1[2]. Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[15]. |
Part 7, Div 3 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Cl 103 | Subst 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[18]. Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Cl 104 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Cl 105 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Cl 106 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Part 7, Div 4 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Cl 107 | Rep 2023 No 53, Sch 3[29]. |
Part 7A (cll 107A–107C) | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[12]. |
Part 7B | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[1]. |
Cl 107CA | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[3]. Am 2024 (177), Sch 1[2]. |
Cl 107D | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[1]. |
Cl 107DA | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[4]. |
Cl 107DB | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[4]. Am 2023 (251), sec 3; 2024 (177), Sch 1[3]. |
Cl 107DC | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[4]. Am 2023 (251), sec 3; 2024 (177), Sch 1[4]. |
Cl 107E | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[1]. |
Cl 107F | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[1]. |
Cl 107G | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[1]. Am 2021 (324), Sch 1[5]. |
Cl 107H | Ins 2021 (324), Sch 1[6]. |
Cl 107I | Ins 2022 (264), Sch 1. Am 2023 (251), sec 3; 2024 (177), Sch 1[5] [6]. |
Cl 108 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[19]; 2024 (254), Sch 1[15]. |
Cl 115 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [6]; 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[3]. |
Cl 115A | Ins 2020 (610), Sch 1[18]. |
Cl 117 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[9] [10]. Rep 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[20]. |
Cl 117A | Ins 2018 (781), Sch 1 [45]. |
Cl 118 | Rep 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[20]. |
Cl 122A | Ins 2019 (463), Sch 1 [13]. |
Cl 122B | Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[16]. |
Cl 123 | Am 2019 (204), Sch 2; 2019 (589), Sch 1[11]; 2020 (227), Sch 1[2] [3]; 2020 (687), Sch 1[1]. Rep 2020 No 40, Sch 2.2[1]. Ins 2023 No 53, Sch 3[30]. |
Cll 123A, 123B | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 2.2[2]. |
Cl 128 | Subst 2023 No 53, Sch 3[31]. |
Cl 130AA | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[21]. Rep 2021 (594), Sch 2[17]. |
Cl 130 | Am 2020 No 40, Sch 1.2[13]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[10]. |
Cl 130A | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 4.2[22]. |
Cl 130B | Ins 2020 (610), Sch 1[19]. Am 2021 (61), Sch 1[5]–[9]; 2021 (593), Sch 1[1]–[4]; 2021 (594), Sch 2[18] [19]. Subst 2021 No 32, Sch 1.9[1]. Am 2022 (41), sec 3; 2022 (318), Sch 1[3]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[32]; 2024 (254), Sch 1[16]. |
Cl 130C | Ins 2021 (594), Sch 2[20]. Rep 2021 No 32, Sch 1.9[2]. Ins 2024 (254), Sch 1[17]. |
Part 11, heading | Ins 2019 (589), Sch 1[12]. |
Cl 131 | Am 2019 (463), Sch 1 [14]; 2019 (589), Sch 1[13] [14]. |
Cl 132 | Am 2024 (66), Sch 1[12]. |
Cl 132A | Ins 2020 (138), Sch 1[6]. |
Cl 132B | Ins 2023 (707), Sch 1. Rep 2024 No 25, Sch 8.2. |
Cl 135 | Ins 2019 (589), Sch 1[15]. Rep 2021 (77), Sch 1[2]. Ins 2024 (250), Sch 2[2]. |
Sch 1, heading | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [46]. |
Sch 1 | Am 2019 (125), Sch 1 [14]; 2019 (126), Sch 1 [11] (disallowed, Legislative Council, 26.9.2019); 2019 (463), Sch 1 [15]; 2020 (34), cl 3(2); 2020 No 40, Schs 1.2[14], 4.2[23]; 2021 (734), Sch 1[1]. |
Sch 2 | Am 2020 No 30, Sch 3.26[3]. |
Sch 3 | Am 2019 (317), Sch 1 [7]–[14]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[10]–[13]. |
Sch 3A | Ins 2020 No 40, Sch 2.2[3]. |
Sch 4, heading | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[16]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[11]. |
Sch 4 | Am 2019 (589), Sch 1[17]; 2021 (77), Sch 1[12] [13]. |
Sch 5 | Am 2018 (640), cl 3; 2019 (7), Sch 1; 2019 (194), Sch 1; 2019 (640), Sch 1; 2020 (610), Sch 1[20]; 2020 (687), Sch 1[2]; 2021 (61), Sch 1[14] [15]; 2021 (324), Sch 1[7]; 2021 (734), Sch 1[2]; 2021 (764), Sch 1; 2022 (25), Sch 1[2]–[5]; 2022 (318), Sch 1[4]; 2022 (683), sec 3; 2022 (862), Sch 1[7]; 2023 (45), Sch 1[1] [2]; 2023 (391), sec 3; 2023 (558), Sch 1; 2023 (611), Sch 1. |
Sch 6 | Am 2018 (781), Sch 1 [47] [48]; 2020 No 40, Sch 3.2[2] and Sch 4.2[24]; 2021 (324), Sch 1[8]; 2023 No 53, Sch 3[33] [34]. |
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