Health Insurance Regulations 1975 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
The notes at the end of this compilation
(the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Legislation Register ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
These Regulations are the
Health Insurance Regulations 1975 .
(1) In these Regulations:
ACRRM means the Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine.Appeal Committee means the General Practice Recognition Appeal Committee established under the Health Insurance (Vocational Registration of General Practitioners) Regulations.approved collection centre has the same meaning as in Part IIA of the Act.collaborative arrangement :(a) for a participating midwife—means a collaborative arrangement mentioned in regulation 2C; or
(b) for a participating nurse practitioner—means a collaborative arrangement mentioned in regulation 2F.
Complaints Unit means the Complaints Unit of the Department of Health of New South Wales.Health Department means the Department administered by the Minister responsible for administering these regulations.identification number , in relation to a licensed collection centre, means the identification number allocated to the centre under section 23DNF of the Act.investigation means:(a) in relation to the Chief Executive Medicare—the investigation by the Chief Executive Medicare of:
(i) a contravention, or possible contravention, of the Act or these regulations; or
(ii) the provision, or possible provision, of:
(A) excessive pathology services; or
(B) services that are excessive services within the meaning of Division 3 or 3A of Part V of the Act; or
(b) in relation to the Complaints Unit—the investigation by the Unit of a complaint under the
Medical Practitioners Act 1938 of New South Wales.
(K) item means an item of the diagnostic imaging services table that includes the symbol (K) at the end of the item.Medical Board means an authority specified in Part 4 or 5 of Schedule 3.National Law means the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law set out in the Schedule to theHealth Practitioner Regulation National Law Act 2009 (Qld).(NK) item means an item of the diagnostic imaging services table that includes the symbol (NK) at the end of the item.Nursing and Midwifery Board means the Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia established under section 31 of the National Law.obstetrician means a medical practitioner who is a specialist in the specialty of obstetrics and gynaecology (however described).obstetric specified medical practitioner means a medical practitioner mentioned in paragraph 2B(1)(a) or (b).paediatrician means a medical practitioner who is a specialist in the specialty of paediatrics and child health (however described).patient episode means a pathology service, or pathology services whether listed in 1 or more items in the Pathology Services Table, for a single patient whose need for which was determined under subsection 16A(1) of the Act on the same day, whether rendered by 1 or more approved pathology practitioners on 1 or more days.provider number means the number that:(a) is allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare to a practitioner, approved pathology practitioner, optometrist, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; and
(b) identifies the person and the places where the person practises his or her profession.
RACGP means the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners.referring practitioner , in relation to a referral, means:(a) in the case of all referrals—a medical practitioner; and
(b) if the referral is given to a specialist who is an ophthalmologist—an optometrist; and
(c) if the referral:
(i) arises out of a dental service given by a dental practitioner; and
(ii) is to a specialist (but not a consultant physician):
a dental practitioner; and
(d) if the referral:
(i) arises out of a midwifery service provided by a participating midwife; and
(ii) is to an obstetrician or paediatrician;
a participating midwife; and
(e) if the referral:
(i) arises out of a nurse practitioner service provided by a participating nurse practitioner; and
(ii) is to a specialist or consultant physician;
a participating nurse practitioner.
requester number means the identification number allocated by the Chief Executive Medicare to a chiropractor, osteopath, physiotherapist or podiatrist.servicing provider means a treatment provider rendering treatment on behalf of another treatment provider.specified medical practitioner :(a) for a participating midwife—means a medical practitioner mentioned in regulation 2B; or
(b) for a participating nurse practitioner—means a medical practitioner mentioned in regulation 2F.
the Act means theHealth Insurance Act 1973 .treatment provider means:(a) a practitioner; or
(b) an approved pathology practitioner; or
(c) an optometrist; or
(d) a participating midwife; or
(e) a participating nurse practitioner.
upgraded , for equipment, has the meaning given by the diagnostic imaging services table.usual general practitioner , for a patient, includes a medical practitioner nominated by the patient.Note: Several other words and expressions used in these Regulations have a meaning given by subsection 3(1) of the Act. For example:
· consultant physician
· eligible midwife
· eligible nurse practitioner
· general practitioner
· hospital‑substitute treatment
· hospital treatment
· medical practitioner
· midwife
· nurse practitioner
· participating midwife
· participating nurse practitioner
· practitioner
· private health insurer
· specialist.
(2) For subsection 3(20) of the Act,
specialist trainee means a medical practitioner who is enrolled in and undertaking a training program with a medical college, within the meaning of section 3GC of the Act.
For paragraph (c) of the definition of
general practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, a medical practitioner for whom a determination is in force under regulation 6DA recognising that he or she meets fellowship standards of the ACRRM is specified.
(1) For the definition of
participating midwife in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following kinds of medical practitioner are specified:(a) an obstetrician;
(b) a medical practitioner who provides obstetric services;
(c) a medical practitioner employed or engaged by a hospital authority and authorised by the hospital authority to participate in a collaborative arrangement.
(2) For the definition of
participating nurse practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, all kinds of medical practitioner are specified.(3) In this regulation:
hospital authority has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of theNational Health Act 1953 .
(1) For the definition of
participating midwife in subsection 3(1) of the Act, each of the following is a kind of collaborative arrangement for an eligible midwife:(a) an arrangement under which the midwife:
(i) is employed or engaged by one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners, or by an entity that employs or engages one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners; or
(ii) has an agreement, in writing, with an entity, other than a hospital, that employs or engages one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners;
(b) a patient is referred in writing to the midwife for midwifery treatment by a specified medical practitioner;
(c) an agreement mentioned in regulation 2D for the midwife;
(d) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2E for the midwife;
(e) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2EA for the midwife.
(2) For subregulation (1), the arrangement must provide for:
(a) consultation between the midwife and an obstetric specified medical practitioner; and
(b) referral of a patient to a specified medical practitioner; and
(c) transfer of a patient’s care to an obstetric specified medical practitioner.
(3) A collaborative arrangement, other than an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2E, may apply to more than 1 patient.
(4) However, an acknowledgement mentioned in paragraph 2E(1)(c) may apply for more than 1 patient.
(5) To avoid doubt, a collaborative arrangement may involve a specified medical practitioner who is in private practice or in the public sector.
(1) An agreement may be made between:
(a) an eligible midwife; and
(b) 1 or more specified medical practitioners.
(2) The agreement must be in writing and signed by the eligible midwife and the other parties mentioned in paragraph (1)(b).
(1) An eligible midwife must record the following for a patient in the midwife’s written records:
(a) the name of at least 1 specified medical practitioner who is, or will be, collaborating with the midwife in the patient’s care (a
named medical practitioner );(b) that the midwife has told the patient that the midwife will be providing midwifery services to the patient in collaboration with 1 or more specified medical practitioners in accordance with this regulation;
(c) acknowledgement by a named medical practitioner that the practitioner will be collaborating in the patient’s care;
(d) plans for the circumstances in which the midwife will do any of the following:
(i) consult with an obstetric specified medical practitioner;
(ii) refer the patient to a specified medical practitioner;
(iii) transfer the patient’s care to an obstetric specified medical practitioner.
(2) The midwife must also record the following in the midwife’s written records:
(a) any consultation or other communication between the midwife and an obstetric specified medical practitioner about the patient’s care;
(b) any referral of the patient by the midwife to a specified medical practitioner;
(c) any transfer by the midwife of the patient’s care to an obstetric specified medical practitioner;
(d) when the midwife gives a copy of the hospital booking letter (however described) for the patient to a named medical practitioner—acknowledgement that the named medical practitioner has received the copy;
(e) when the midwife gives a copy of the patient’s maternity care plan prepared by the midwife to a named medical practitioner—acknowledgement that the named medical practitioner has received the copy;
(f) if the midwife requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient—when the midwife gives the results of the services to a named medical practitioner;
(g) that the midwife has given a discharge summary (however described) at the end of the midwife’s care for the patient to:
(i) a named medical practitioner; and
(ii) the patient’s usual general practitioner.
(1) For paragraph 2C(1)(e), in relation to a hospital, an eligible midwife is:
(a) credentialed to provide midwifery services after successfully completing a formal process to assess the midwife’s competence, performance and professional suitability; and
(b) given clinical privileges for a defined scope of clinical practice for the hospital; and
(c) permitted to provide midwifery care to his or her own patients at the hospital.
(2) The hospital must employ or engage one or more obstetric specified medical practitioners.
(1) For the definition of
participating nurse practitioner in subsection 3(1) of the Act, each of the following is a kind of collaborative arrangement for an eligible nurse practitioner:(a) the nurse practitioner is employed or engaged by 1 or more specified medical practitioners, or by an entity that employs or engages 1 or more specified medical practitioners;
(b) a patient is referred in writing to the nurse practitioner for treatment by a specified medical practitioner;
(c) an agreement mentioned in regulation 2G for the nurse practitioner;
(d) an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2H for the nurse practitioner.
(2) For subregulation (1), the arrangement must provide for:
(a) consultation between the nurse practitioner and a medical practitioner; and
(b) referral of a patient to a medical practitioner; and
(c) transfer of a patient’s care to a medical practitioner.
(3) A collaborative arrangement, other than an arrangement mentioned in regulation 2H, may apply to more than 1 patient.
(4) However, an acknowledgement mentioned in paragraph 2H(1)(c) may apply for more than 1 patient.
(1) An agreement may be made between:
(a) an eligible nurse practitioner; and
(b) 1 or more specified medical practitioners.
(2) The agreement must be in writing and signed by the eligible nurse practitioner and the other parties mentioned in paragraph (1)(b).
(1) An eligible nurse practitioner must record the following for a patient in the nurse practitioner’s written records:
(a) the name of at least 1 specified medical practitioner who is, or will be, collaborating with the nurse practitioner in the patient’s care (a
named medical practitioner );(b) that the nurse practitioner has told the patient that the nurse practitioner will be providing services to the patient in collaboration with 1 or more specified medical practitioners in accordance with this regulation;
(c) acknowledgement by a named medical practitioner that the practitioner will be collaborating in the patient’s care;
(d) plans for the circumstances in which the nurse practitioner will do any of the following:
(i) consult with a medical practitioner;
(ii) refer the patient to a medical practitioner;
(iii) transfer the patient’s care to a medical practitioner;
(e) any consultation or other communication between the nurse practitioner and a medical practitioner about the patient’s care;
(f) any transfer by the nurse practitioner of the patient’s care to a medical practitioner;
(g) any referral of the patient by the nurse practitioner to a medical practitioner;
(h) if the nurse practitioner gives a copy of a document mentioned in subregulation (2) or (3) to a named medical practitioner—when the copy is given;
(i) if the nurse practitioner gives a copy of a document mentioned in subregulation (4) or (5) to the patient’s usual general practitioner—when the copy is given.
(2) If the nurse practitioner refers the patient to a specialist or consultant physician, or if the nurse practitioner requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient, the nurse practitioner must give a copy of the referral, or the results of the services, to a named medical practitioner if:
(a) the nurse practitioner:
(i) consults with the named medical practitioner; or
(ii) refers the patient to the named medical practitioner; or
(iii) transfers the patient’s care to the named medical practitioner; and
(b) the named medical practitioner asks the nurse practitioner for a copy of the referral or results.
(3) Also, the nurse practitioner must give a named medical practitioner a record of the services provided by the nurse practitioner to the patient if:
(a) the nurse practitioner:
(i) consults with the named medical practitioner; or
(ii) refers the patient to the named medical practitioner; or
(iii) transfers the patient’s care to the named medical practitioner; and
(b) the named medical practitioner asks the nurse practitioner for the record.
(4) If the nurse practitioner refers the patient to a specialist or consultant physician, or requests diagnostic imaging or pathology services for the patient, and the patient’s usual general practitioner is not a named medical practitioner, the nurse practitioner must give a copy of the referral, or the results of the services, to the patient’s usual general practitioner.
(5) Also, if the patient’s usual general practitioner is not a named medical practitioner, the nurse practitioner must give the patient’s usual general practitioner a record of the services provided by the nurse practitioner to the patient.
(6) However, subregulations (4) and (5) apply only if the patient consents.
(1) Each medical service described in items 51700 to 53460 of the general medical services table is prescribed for paragraph (b) of the definition of
professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act.(2) Each professional service described in the following items of the general medical services table is prescribed for subsection 3(18) of the Act:
(a) items 13015 to 16018;
(b) items 16600 to 16636;
(c) items 18213 to 18298
(d) items 20100 to 51318.
For paragraph (b) of the definition of
health service in subsection 3C(8) of the Act, a service is prescribed if it is a service of a kind mentioned in the following table.
1 | Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander health |
2 | Audiology |
3 | Chiropractic |
4 | Diabetes education |
5 | Dietetics |
6 | Exercise physiology |
7 | Focussed psychological strategies |
8 | Mental health |
8A | Midwifery |
9 | Non‑directive pregnancy support counselling |
9A | Nurse practitioner services |
10 | Occupational therapy |
10A | Orthoptic |
11 | Osteopathy |
12 | Physiotherapy |
13 | Podiatry |
14 | Psychological therapy |
15 | Psychology |
16 | Speech pathology |
(1) For the definition of
relevant organisation in subsection 3D(5) of the Act, the organisation specified in column 2 of an item in Schedule 4 is declared to be a professional organisation in relation to each specialty specified in column 3 of that item.(2) For the definition of
relevant qualification in subsection 3D(5) of the Act, the qualification specified in column 4 of an item in Schedule 4 is declared to be a relevant qualification in relation to the organisation specified in column 2 of that item.
For the purposes of subsection 3D(1) of the Act, the prescribed fee is $30.
For the purposes of subsection 3E(2) of the Act, the prescribed fee is $30.
(1) An applicant is eligible for a determination under paragraph 3EA(2)(b) of the Act if the RACGP certifies that the applicant meets the minimum requirements of the RACGP for taking part in continuing medical education and quality assurance.
(2) For subparagraph 3EB(1)(b)(ii) of the Act, a determination under section 3EA of the Act in respect of a medical practitioner must be revoked if the RACGP certifies that the practitioner does not meet the minimum requirements of the RACGP for continuing medical education and quality assurance.
(1) The RACGP must give the Chief Executive Medicare written notice if it declines to certify under subregulation 6A(1).
(2) The Chief Executive Medicare must give a medical practitioner written notice if it receives notice under subregulation (1).
(1) A medical practitioner who receives notice under:
(a) subregulation 6B(2); or
(b) subsection 3EB(2) of the Act because the RACGP has given the Chief Executive Medicare notice under subparagraph 3EB(1)(b)(ii) of the Act;
may appeal to the Appeal Committee within 28 days after the day the notice is given.
(2) The Appeal Committee must hear and decide the appeal.
(3) If the Committee allows the appeal, the practitioner is eligible for a determination.
(4) If the Committee dismisses the appeal it must give the practitioner written notice with:
(a) the result of the appeal; and
(b) the terms of the decision; and
(c) a statement to the effect that a copy of the reasons for the decision may be obtained from the Committee on written request made within 28 days after the notice is given.
(1) A medical practitioner remains eligible for a determination if:
(a) the Chief Executive Medicare gives the practitioner notice that a determination under section 3EA of the Act in respect of the practitioner is to be revoked; and
(b) the practitioner’s appeal is received by the Appeal Committee before the date specified in the notice for removal.
(2) The practitioner ceases to be eligible under subregulation (1) when the practitioner’s appeal is finalised.
(1) A medical practitioner may apply to the Chief Executive Medicare for a determination under this regulation.
(2) After receiving an application, the Chief Executive Medicare must, within the required period, determine that the applicant is recognised as meeting the fellowship standards of the ACRRM if the ACRRM gives the Chief Executive Medicare written notice that the applicant is, under regulation 6DB, eligible for a determination.
(3) For subregulation (2), the
required period is:(a) 14 days after the notice was received by the Chief Executive Medicare; or
(b) if the application was made after the notice was received—14 days after the application was received by the Chief Executive Medicare.
(4) The Chief Executive Medicare must give the applicant written notice of the day on which the determination will come into force.
(5) The Chief Executive Medicare may give the ACRRM information about whether or not determinations under this regulation are in force for particular persons.
(6) The Chief Executive Medicare or an authorised officer may make available to members of the public, on request:
(a) the names of medical practitioners for whom determinations under this regulation are in force; and
(b) the addresses at which they practise.
(7) In this regulation:
authorised officer means a Departmental employee (within the meaning given by section 3 of theHuman Services (Medicare) Act 1973 ) authorised in writing by the Chief Executive Medicare for this regulation.
(1) An applicant who attained fellowship of the ACRRM after the requirement to undergo accredited training was first introduced is eligible for a determination only if the applicant:
(a) either:
(i) has successfully completed accredited training; or
(ii) has been assessed by the ACRRM as having training and experience equivalent to successful completion of accredited training; and
(b) meets the minimum requirements that apply to a Fellow of the ACRRM for continuing medical education and quality assurance.
(2) An applicant who attained fellowship of the ACRRM before the requirement to undergo accredited training was first introduced is eligible for a determination only if the applicant:
(a) either:
(i) has been assessed by the ACRRM, using an assessment model approved by the Department, as having training and experience equivalent to successful completion of accredited training; or
(ii) is a vocationally registered general practitioner; and
(b) meets the minimum requirements that apply to a Fellow of the ACRRM for continuing medical education and quality assurance.
(3) In this regulation:
accredited training means a training program and assessments for fellowship of the ACRRM accredited by the Australian Medical Council.
(1) The Chief Executive Medicare must revoke a determination under regulation 6DA about a medical practitioner if:
(a) the medical practitioner requests the Chief Executive Medicare to do so; or
(b) the ACRRM gives the Chief Executive Medicare written notice that the medical practitioner has failed to meet its minimum requirements for continuing medical education and quality assurance; or
(c) the Chief Executive Medicare becomes aware that the medical practitioner is no longer a medical practitioner.
(2) A notice mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) is effective only if, before giving the notice, the ACRRM:
(a) informed the medical practitioner about the proposed notice; and
(b) gave the practitioner at least 14 days to show why the proposed notice should not be given.
(3) Before revoking the determination, the Chief Executive Medicare must give the medical practitioner written notice that the determination is to be revoked.
(4) The notice must specify the day on which the determination is to be revoked.
(5) The day specified under subregulation (4) must not be less than 14 days after the day on which the notice is given.
For paragraph 3GA(5)(a) of the Act, the following bodies, courses and programs are specified:
(a) a body mentioned in an item in Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 5;
(b) a course that leads to a qualification in an item in Part 1 of Schedule 5 from the body specified in the item;
(c) a program in an item in Part 2 of Schedule 5 approved by the body specified in the item.
For paragraph 3GA(5)(b) of the Act, a medical practitioner who makes application under subsection 3GA(4) of the Act, and to whom subitem 1(2) in Part 3 of Schedule 5 applies, is eligible for registration under section 3GA of the Act.
For paragraph 3GB(1)(c) of the Act, a medical practitioner registered under section 3GA of the Act because of the operation of regulation 6EA must have his or her name removed from the Register of Approved Placements when the earliest of the following events occurs:
(a) a determination under section 3D, 3EA or 61 of the Act, recognising the practitioner’s qualification, takes effect;
(b) the Chief Executive Medicare receives written notice from the appropriate Australian medical college, of its refusal to recognise the practitioner’s qualification;
(c) 12 months elapses since registration of the practitioner under section 3GA of the Act began.
For paragraph 10(2)(aa) of the Act, the following services are prescribed:
(a) a service prescribed by Schedule 6 to these Regulations;
(b) a service:
(i) that is described in an item of the diagnostic imaging services table; and
(ii) to which clause 1.2.9 or 1.2.10 of Schedule 1 to the diagnostic imaging services table applies.
For paragraph 19AA(3)(b) of the Act, subparagraphs 19AA(1)(b)(iv) and (2)(b)(iv) of the Act only apply to a professional service that was rendered by a person, registered under subsection 3GA(5) of the Act, not more than:
(a) 2 weeks after the period for which the person was registered; or
(b) if the Chief Executive Medicare approves—6 weeks after the period for which the person was registered.
For subsection 19AA(5) of the Act, the following laws are specified:
(a) Medical Practice Act 1992 of New South Wales;
(b) Medical Practice Act 1994 of Victoria;
(c)
Medical Act 1939 of Queensland;(d) Medical Practitioners Act 1983 of South Australia;
(e)
Medical Act 1894 of Western Australia;(f)
Medical Act 1959 of Tasmania;(g)
Medical Practitioners Act 1930 of the Australian Capital Territory;(h)
Northern Territory of Australia Medical Act 1995 of the Northern Territory.
(1) Where, under paragraph 16(4)(a) of the Act, one amount only shall be deemed to be reduced, that amount shall be deemed to be reduced by 80 per cent.
(2) Where, under paragraph 16(4)(a) of the Act, 2 or more amounts shall be deemed to be reduced, the greater or greatest of those amounts shall be deemed to be reduced by 80 per cent and each other such amount shall be deemed to be reduced by 90 per cent.
(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), where 2 or more of the amounts that shall be deemed to be reduced are equal, one of those amounts shall be treated as being greater than the other amount or the greatest of those amounts.
(1) For section 16A of the Act, subregulation (2) applies if:
(a) a request for a pathology service is made or confirmed by electronic means; and
(b) a practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner is identified as the person who made the request or confirmation:
(i) by name, number or other means in the request or confirmation; or
(ii) by the electronic system used to make the request or confirmation.
(2) The request or confirmation is taken to have been made by the person unless the person shows that he or she did not make the request or confirmation.
(1) For subsection 16B(2) of the Act, a service of each of the following kinds is specified:
(a) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is approved by the Minister under paragraph (b) of the definition of
professional service in subsection 3(1) of the Act—a service described in any of items 55005, 55008, 55011, 55028, 55030, 55032, 56001 to 56220, 56224, 56227, 56230, 56259, 56301 to 56507, 56541, 56547, 56801 to 57007, 57041, 57047, 57341, 57345, 57703, 57705, 57709, 57711, 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58103 to 58115, 58117, 58123, 58124, 58306, 58308, 58506, 58508, 58521 to 58527, 58529, 58909, 58911, 59103, 59104, 59703, 59704, 60000 to 60010, 60506, 60507, 60509, 60510, 61109, 61110, 61372, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61672, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63007, 63016, 63334 and 63346;(b) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is a prosthodontist—a service described in any of items 55005, 55028, 56013, 56016, 56022, 56028, 56053, 56056, 56062, 56068, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63334 and 63346;
(c) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is a dental specialist—a service described in any of items 56022, 56062, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 61421, 61454, 61457, 61690, 61706, 61707, 63334 and 63346;
(d) if the dental practitioner who requests the service is an oral medicine specialist or oral pathology specialist—a service described in any of items 55005, 55008, 55011, 55028, 55030, 55032, 56001, 56007, 56010, 56013, 56016, 56022, 56028, 56041, 56047, 56050, 56053, 56056, 56062, 56068, 56101, 56107, 56141, 56147, 56301, 56307, 56341, 56347, 56401, 56407, 56441, 56447, 57341, 57345, 57362, 57363, 58306, 58308, 58506, 58508, 58909, 58911, 59103, 59104, 59703, 59704, 60000 to 60010, 60506, 60507, 60509, 60510, 61109, 61110, 61372, 61421, 61425, 61429, 61430, 61433, 61434, 61446, 61449, 61450, 61453, 61454, 61457, 61462, 61672, 61690, 61691, 61693, 61694, 61695, 61696, 61702, 61703, 61704, 61705, 61706, 61707, 61710, 63007, 63016, 63334 and 63346;
(e) in any case—a service described in any of items 57509, 57515, 57521, 57527, 57530, 57533, 57536, 57539, 57901 to 57969, 58100, 58102, 58300, 58302, 58503, 58505, 58903, 58905, 59733, 59734, 59739, 59740, 59751, 59752, 60100, 60101, 60500, 60501, 60503 and 60504.
(2) In paragraph (1)(b),
prosthodontist means a person who is:
(a) registered or licensed as a prosthodontist under a law of a State or Territory; or
(b) registered or licensed as a dentist or dental practitioner under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practises in the specialty of prosthodontics.
(3) In paragraph (1)(c),
dental specialist means a person who is:
(a) registered or licensed as a periodontist, endodontist, pedeodontist, or orthodontist under a law of a State or Territory; or
(b) registered or licensed as a dental specialist under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practices in the speciality of periodontics, endodontics, pedeodontics, or orthodontics.
(4) In paragraph (1)(d):
oral medicine specialist means a person who is:
(a) registered or licensed as an oral medicine specialist under a law of a State or Territory; or
(b) registered or licensed as a dental specialist under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practices in the speciality of oral medicine.
oral pathology specialist means a person who is:
(a) registered or licensed as an oral pathology specialist under a law of a State or Territory; or
(b) registered or licensed as a dental specialist under a law of a State or Territory and recognised by the registering or licensing authority as a person who practices in the speciality of oral pathology.
Services that chiropractors may request (1) For the purposes of subsection 16B(3) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58100 to 58106, 58109, 58111, 58112, 58117 and 58123.
Services that physiotherapists and osteopaths may request (2) For the purposes of subsections 16B(3A) and (3C) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 58100 to 58106, 58109, 58111, 58112, 58117, 58120, 58121, 58123, 58126 and 58127.
Services that podiatrists may request (3) For the purposes of subsection 16B(3B) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55836, 55837, 55840, 55841, 55844, 55845, 57521, 57527, 57536 and 57539.
(1) For subparagraph 16A(1)(aa)(ii) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating midwife are those mentioned in the pathology services table in items 65060, 65070, 65090 to 65099 (inclusive), 65114, 66500 to 66512 (inclusive), 66545, 66548, 66566, 66743, 66750, 66751, 69303 to 69317 (inclusive), 69324, 69384 to 69415 (inclusive), 73070, 73071, 73075, 73076 and 73529.
(2) For subparagraph 16A(1)(ab)(ii) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating nurse practitioner are those mentioned in the pathology services table in items 65060 to 73810 (inclusive).
(1) For subsection 16B(3D) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating midwife are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55700, 55701, 55704, 55706, 55707, 55710, 55713, 55714, 55718 and 55722.
(2) For subsection 16B(3E) of the Act, the services in relation to a participating nurse practitioner are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 55014, 55036, 55059, 55061, 55070, 55076, 55600, 55601, 55769, 55800, 55801, 55804, 55805, 55808, 55809, 55812, 55813, 55816, 55817, 55820, 55821, 55824, 55825, 55828, 55829, 55832, 55833, 55836, 55837, 55840, 55841, 55844, 55845, 55848, 55849, 55850, 55851, 55852, 55853, 57509, 57515, 57521, 57530, 57533, 57536, 58503 to 58527 and 58529.
For subsection 16B(11) of the Act, the services are those mentioned in the diagnostic imaging services table in items 57712, 57714, 57715, 57717, 57901, 57902, 57903, 57911, 57912, 57914, 57915, 57917, 57921, 57926, 57929, 57935, 58100 to 58115, 58117, 58123, 58124, 58521, 58523, 58524, 58526, 58527, 58529, 58700, 58702, 58924 58926, 59103 and 59104.
For paragraph 16B(11)(d) of the Act, the prescribed date is 1 January 2001.
For subsection 16F(2) of the Act, a
radiation oncology service is a service to which an item in subgroup 3, 4 or 5 of Group T2 in the general medical services table relates.
(1) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services generally:
(a) the name of the patient to whom the service was given;
(b) the date on which the service was given;
(c) the amount charged in respect of the service;
(d) the total amount paid in respect of the service;
(e) any amount outstanding in respect of the service.
(1A) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a person who has been determined to be a medical practitioner under subsection 3J(1) of the Act:
(a) the name and the address of the medical practitioner;
(b) the provider number of the medical practitioner.
(1B) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the particulars prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a medical practitioner other than a medical practitioner referred to in subregulation (1A) are:
(a) the name and the address of the medical practitioner; and
(b) the provider number of the medical practitioner;
either or both of which may be given.
(1C) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, either or both of the following particulars are prescribed for professional services provided by a participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner:
(a) the name and address of the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner;
(b) the provider number of the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner.
(2) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered as part of an episode of hospital treatment:
(a) a description of the professional service and the item number of the item that relates to the professional service, followed by an asterisk; or
(b) a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the professional service, preceded by the word ‘patient’.
(2A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services are rendered as part of an episode of hospital‑substitute treatment and the person who receives the treatment chooses to receive a benefit from a private health insurer, the following particulars are prescribed for those services:
(a) a description of the professional service and the item number of the item that relates to the professional service, followed by the words ‘hospital‑substitute treatment’; or
(b) a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the professional service, preceded by the words ‘hospital‑substitute treatment’.
(3) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to professional services other than professional services referred to in subregulation (2), namely, a description of the professional service sufficient to identify the item that relates to the service.
(4) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a consultant physician, or a specialist, in the practice of his or her specialty to a patient who was referred to that consultant physician or specialist in the manner prescribed in regulation 29 by a referring practitioner:
(a) the name of the referring practitioner;
(b) the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the referring practitioner;
(c) the date on which the patient was referred by the referring practitioner to the consultant physician or specialist;
(d) the period of validity of the referral applicable under regulation 31.
(5) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if a referral is given under subregulation 30(1) the words, ‘referral within (
insert the name of the hospital in which the referral was given )’ are prescribed.(6) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services rendered by a consultant physician, or a specialist, in the practice of his or her specialty to a patient who has declared to the consultant physician or specialist that a referral referring the patient to that consultant physician or specialist has been completed by a referring practitioner, the name of the referring practitioner, and that the referral has not been delivered to the consultant physician or specialist due to the referral having been lost, stolen or destroyed:
(a) the name of the referring practitioner;
(b) the words ‘lost referral’;
(c) the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the referring practitioner (if either of these are known to the consultant physician or specialist).
(7) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the word ‘emergency’ is prescribed if:
(a) a referring practitioner; or
(b) a specialist or consultant physician in the practice of his or her speciality;
decides in an emergency that it is necessary in the patient’s interests for a professional service to be given as soon as practicable.
(8) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to professional services to which an item in items 3 to 10929 (inclusive) of the general medical services table relates, namely, where a practitioner or optometrist was in attendance on a person on more than one occasion on the same day and on each occasion rendered such a professional service on that person, the time at which each such attendance on that day commenced.
(8A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, subregulation (8B) applies if a participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner:
(a) attends a person more than once on the same day; and
(b) on each occasion provides a professional service to the person.
(8B) The time each attendance starts is prescribed as a particular for the participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner.
(9) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which an item in the pathology services table relates:
(a) where the professional service is a pathology service in respect of which the payment of a medicare benefit is not prevented by the operation of subsection 16A(1), (2) or (3) of the Act:
(i) the name and:
(A) where the request referred to in subsection 16A(3) of the Act in respect of which the professional service was rendered was made at the place of practice of the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who determined that the professional service was necessary—the provider number in respect of that place of practice of that practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; or
(B) where that request was not made at the place of practice of the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who determined that the professional service was necessary—the provider number in respect of any place of practice of that practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner; and
(ii) the date on which the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner so determined that the service was necessary;
(b) where the professional service is a pathologist‑determinable service that was determined to be necessary by the approved pathology practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service was performed—the initials ‘s.d.’ or ‘p.d.’;
(c) where the professional service is a pathology service to which subsection 16A(7) of the Act applies—if the service was rendered in pursuance of a request of the kind referred to in paragraph 16A(7)(b) of the Act—the date on which the request referred to in that subparagraph was made and the surname, and the initials of the Christian or given names, of the medical practitioner who determined that the service was necessary or, where at least one other member of the group of practitioners of which he is a member has the same surname and the same initials as the medical practitioner, the surname, and such of the Christian or given names, of the medical practitioner as distinguish him from each of those other members.
(10) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if the professional service rendered is the collection of a specimen and is the initiation of a patient episode, there is to be recorded, for that pathology service, the appropriate collection point identification number as follows:
(a) for a collection made at an approved collection centre, the approved pathology collection centre identification number assigned by the Chief Executive Medicare to that collection centre;
(b) for a collection made at a recognised hospital, the recognised hospital collection point identification number assigned by the Chief Executive Medicare to that hospital;
(d) for a collection made at a location not described in paragraph (a) or (b), the collection point identification number ‘A01’.
(10A) An identification number mentioned in paragraph (10)(a) (an approved pathology collection centre identification number) is valid only in relation to a collection made at an approved collection centre by the Approved Pathology Authority that is the owner of that collection centre.
(11) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which any of items 12500 to 12533 (inclusive), 15000 to 15600 (inclusive) and 16003 to 16015 (inclusive) of the general medical services table or an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates:
(a) if the professional service is provided by a specialist in diagnostic radiology—the name and either the address of the place of practice, or the provider number, of that specialist; or
(b) if the professional service is provided by a practitioner other than a specialist in diagnostic radiology—the name and either the address of the place of practice, or the provider number in respect of the place of practice, of the practitioner who:
(i) is claiming, or receiving, payment of fees in respect of the professional service; or
(ii) is the assignee of the right to the payment of that benefit under an assignment or agreement made in accordance with section 20A of the Act, in relation to the medicare benefit in respect of the professional service, if an assignment of that kind has been made, or an agreement of that kind entered into.
(12) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, particulars for professional services to which an item in the pathology services table, other than items 73801 to 73811 (inclusive), relates are the name and either the address of the place of practice or the provider number for the place of practice of:
(a) the approved pathology practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the professional service was rendered; or
(b) if the professional service was rendered completely in an accredited pathology laboratory—any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in the accredited pathology laboratory; or
(c) any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in an accredited pathology laboratory that is owned and controlled by an approved pathology authority if:
(i) a request for the professional service was received by:
(A) any approved pathology practitioner rendering professional services in the accredited pathology laboratory; or
(B) the approved pathology authority; and
(ii) the professional service was rendered partly in the accredited pathology laboratory and partly in another accredited pathology laboratory that are both owned and controlled by the approved pathology authority.
(13) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed for professional services other than those mentioned in subregulation (13A):
(a) the name of the practitioner, optometrist, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who provided the professional service;
(b) a statement that the professional service was provided by that person;
(c) either:
(i) the address of the place of practice where the service was provided; or
(ii) both:
(A) if the service was provided at a place of practice for which that person has been allocated a provider number—the provider number; and
(B) in any other case—the provider number allocated to that person for any place where he or she practices.
(13A) Subregulation (13) does not apply to a professional service to which any of the following items relate:
(a) an item in the pathology services table other than items 73801 to 73811 (inclusive);
(b) any of items 12500 to 12533 (inclusive), 15000 to 15600 (inclusive) and 16003 to 16015 (inclusive) of the general medical services table;
(c) an item in the diagnostic imaging services table.
(14) Subject to subregulations (15) and (16), the following particulars are prescribed for the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act in relation to professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates:
(a) the name and either:
(i) the address of the place of practice; or
(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;
of the person who requested that professional service;
(b) the date on which that professional service was requested;
(c) the name and either:
(i) the address of the place of practice; or
(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;
of the practitioner who:
(iii) is claiming, or receiving, payment of fees in respect of that professional service; or
(iv) if an assignment has been made, or an agreement entered into, in accordance with section 20A of the Act, in relation to the medicare benefit in respect of that professional service, is the assignee of the right to the payment of that benefit under that assignment or agreement.
(15) If the person referred to in paragraph (14)(a) is a chiropractor, osteopath, physiotherapist or podiatrist, the reference in subparagraph (14)(a)(ii) to a provider number is a reference to a requester number.
(16) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if the practitioner referred to in paragraph (14)(c) is not the practitioner who rendered the professional service referred to in subregulation (14), the following additional particulars are prescribed in relation to that professional service, namely the name and either:
(a) the address of the place of practice; or
(b) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;
of the second‑mentioned practitioner, unless those particulars and the date on which the professional service was requested are recorded at the place of practice of the first‑mentioned practitioner.
(17) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered:
(a) by a consultant physician or a specialist in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(6) of the Act; or
(b) within an area that is a remote area for the purposes of Division 2 of Part IIB of the Act in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(7) of the Act; or
(c) as an additional necessary service in circumstances specified in subsection 16B (10) of the Act; or
(d) in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(11) of the Act;
the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the letters ‘SD’, indicating that the services were self‑determined.
(17A) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in the circumstances mentioned in subsection 16B(10A) of the Act, the letters ‘SS’ (indicating that the services were substituted for a requested service) are a prescribed particular in relation to those services.
(18) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(8) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the word ‘emergency’.
(19) For the purposes of subsection 19(6) of the Act, if professional services to which an item in the diagnostic imaging services table relates are rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(9) of the Act, the following particular is prescribed in relation to those services—the words ‘lost request’.
(20) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, the following additional particulars are prescribed in relation to professional services to which any of items 23010 to 24136 of the general medical services table relates:
(a) if the service rendered is administration of anaesthesia (other than administration of anaesthesia performed in association with a service to which item 22900 or 22905 applies):
(i) the name of each practitioner who performed a procedure for which the anaesthesia was administered; and
(ii) if item 25025 applies to the service—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time; and
(b) if the service rendered is perfusion to which item 25050 applies—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time; and
(c) if the service rendered is assistance in the administration of anaesthesia:
(i) the name of the principal anaesthetist; and
(ii) the name of each practitioner who performed a procedure for which the anaesthesia was administered; and
(iii) if item 25030 applies to the service—when the service time began and ended, and the duration of the service time.
(21) In subregulation (20):
service time has the meaning given by clause 2.44.4 of the general medical services table.(22) For subsection 19(6) of the Act, in relation to professional services consisting of:
(a) diagnostic imaging services rendered using a diagnostic imaging procedure carried out using diagnostic imaging equipment ordinarily located at registered diagnostic imaging premises or, when not in use, at a registered base for diagnostic imaging equipment; or
(b) radiation oncology services rendered using radiation oncology equipment ordinarily located at registered radiation oncology premises or, when not in use, at a registered base for radiation oncology equipment;
the location specific practice number for the premises or base is a prescribed particular.
(1) This regulation applies to the payment, by the Chief Executive Medicare on behalf of the Commonwealth, of an amount under subsection 20(3) of the Act to a general practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, a professional service was rendered.
(2) For subsection 20(5) of the Act, the amount may be paid by electronic transmission if the claim for medicare benefit for the service:
(a) is made using any of the following electronic claiming channels:
(i) Medicare Online;
(ii) Medicare Easyclaim;
(iii) ECLIPSE; or
(b) is made by, or on behalf of, a general practitioner who:
(i) is enrolled, for the location at which the professional service was rendered, in the scheme known as the ‘90 Day Pay Doctor Cheque Scheme’ administered by the Chief Executive Medicare for the purpose of making payments by electronic transmission of amounts to general practitioners under subsection 20(3) of the Act; and
(ii) has given the Chief Executive Medicare written permission to give to the Reserve Bank of Australia the following information:
(A) the name and number of the account into which a payment to the general practitioner under subsection 20(3) of the Act may be made;
(B) the name and BSB number of the bank at which that account is kept.
(3) For the purposes of section 20 of the Act:
general practitioner includes a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician) who practises in general practice.
(1) This regulation applies to the payment, by the Chief Executive Medicare on behalf of the Commonwealth, of an amount under subsection 20(3) of the Act to a specialist or consultant physician by whom, or on whose behalf, a professional service was rendered.
(2) For subsection 20(5) of the Act, the amount may be paid by electronic transmission if the claim for medicare benefit for the service is made using any of the following electronic claiming channels:
(a) Medicare Online;
(b) Medicare Easyclaim;
(c) ECLIPSE.
For subsection 20(6) of the Act, the claim must be made using an electronic claiming channel mentioned in subregulation 13AB(2).
(1) For paragraph 20AB(2)(a) of the Act, an application must be in the form approved by the Chief Executive Medicare.
(2) For paragraph 20AB(2)(b) of the Act, the fee to accompany an application is:
(a) if the applicant has not previously been approved as a billing agent—$1,000; or
(b) in any other case—$500.
(1) Unless the Minister otherwise directs, medicare benefits are not payable in respect of professional services rendered in prescribed circumstances.
(2) Each of the following shall be taken to be professional services rendered in prescribed circumstances:
(a) professional services rendered in relation to the provision of chelation therapy (that is to say, the intravenous administration of ethylenediamine tetra‑acetic acid or any of its salts) otherwise than for the treatment of heavy‑metal poisoning;
(b) professional services rendered in association with the injection of human chorionic gonadotrophin in the management of obesity;
(c) professional services rendered in relation to the use of hyperbaric oxygen therapy in the treatment of multiple sclerosis;
(e) professional services rendered for the purpose of, or in relation to, the removal of tattoos;
(ea) professional services rendered for the purposes of, or in relation to, the removal from a cadaver of kidneys for transplantation;
(f) professional services rendered for the purposes of, or in relation to:
(i) the transplantation of a thoracic or abdominal organ, other than a kidney, or of part of an organ of that kind; or
(ii) the transplantation of a kidney in conjunction with the transplantation of a thoracic or other abdominal organ, or of a part of an organ of that kind;
if the services are rendered to a patient of a hospital;
(g) professional services rendered for the purpose of administering microwave (UHF radiowave) cancer therapy, including the intravenous injection of drugs used immediately before or during the therapy.
For the purposes of paragraph 21(1)(b) of the Act, a midwife must be endorsed by the Nursing and Midwifery Board.
For the purposes of section 23DJ of the Act, the fee paid by a person who gives an undertaking under subsection 23DC(1) or 23DF(1) of the Act shall be repaid to the person, where the undertaking is not accepted, by forwarding an amount equal to the amount of the fee to the person at the address specified in the application for the Minister’s acceptance of the undertaking or at such other address as the person specifies by notice in writing to the Minister.
(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DKA(1) of the Act, an approved pathology authority must prepare and maintain, in accordance with subregulations (2) and (3), records of the pathology services rendered in an accredited pathology laboratory of which the authority is the proprietor.
(2) For each service rendered, the record in relation to the service must include a copy of a report of the service.
(3) The records must be kept in a manner that enables information to be retrieved from the records on the basis of:
(a) the name of the person to whom the service was rendered; and
(b) the date on which the service was rendered.
For the purposes of paragraph 23DN(1)(b) of the Act, the prescribed fee in relation to an application for the approval of premises as an accredited pathology laboratory is:
(a) where the premises are accredited as a pathology laboratory under the Pathology Laboratories Accreditation Act, 1981 of the State of New South Wales or are an accredited pathology service under the
Pathology Services Accreditation Act 1984 of the State of Victoria—$50; or(b) in any other case—$200.
For the purposes of subsection 23DN(8) of the Act, the fee paid by a person who makes an application under subsection 23DN(1) of the Act shall be repaid to the person, where the application is not granted, by forwarding an amount equal to the amount of the fee to the person at the address specified in the application or at such other address as the person specifies by notice in writing to the Minister.
(1) For subsection 23DP(3) of the Act, a pathology request form that is a branded pathology request form must include one of the following statements:
(a) ‘Your doctor has recommended that you use [
insert name of pathology provider ]. You are free to choose your own pathology provider. However, if your doctor has specified a particular pathologist on clinical grounds, a Medicare rebate will only be payable if that pathologist performs the service. You should discuss this with your doctor.’;(b) ‘Your treating practitioner has recommended that you use [
insert name of pathology provider ]. You are free to choose your own pathology provider. However, if your treating practitioner has specified a particular pathologist on clinical grounds, a Medicare rebate will only be payable if that pathologist performs the service. You should discuss this with your treating practitioner.’.
(2) In this regulation:
branded pathology request form means a pathology request form that:(a) if the form is provided by an approved pathology authority—includes:
(i) the registered name or trading name of the approved pathology authority; and
(ii) the location of one or more specimen collection centres; and
(b) if the form is provided by an approved pathology practitioner—includes:
(i) the registered name or trading name of an approved pathology authority that employs or engages the approved pathology practitioner; and
(ii) the location of one or more specimen collection centres.
(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DQ(1) of the Act, the following information must be included in a subsection 16B(1) request:
(a) the name and either:
(i) the address of the place of practice; or
(ii) the provider number in respect of the place of practice;
of the requesting practitioner;
(b) the date of the request;
(c) a description of the diagnostic imaging service;
(d) if all of the following circumstances apply—a statement that informs the patient that the request may be taken to a diagnostic imaging provider of the patient’s choice:
(i) the request is made on a document for use by requesting practitioners in making subsection 16B(1) requests; and
(ii) the document is supplied, or made available to, a requesting practitioner by a diagnostic imaging provider on or after 1 August 2012; and
(iii) the document contains relevant information about the diagnostic imaging provider at the time the document is supplied or made available.
(2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), a description of the diagnostic imaging service must provide, in terms that are generally understood throughout the medical profession, sufficient information to identify the item of the diagnostic imaging services table that relates to the service but it need not specify the item number.
(3) In this regulation:
diagnostic imaging provider means a person who:
(a) renders diagnostic imaging services; or
(b) carries on the business of rendering diagnostic imaging services; or
(c) employs, or engages under a contract of service, a person mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b).
relevant information means:
(a) the registered name or trading name of the diagnostic imaging provider; and
(b) one or more locations of the diagnostic imaging provider if diagnostic imaging services are rendered at the location.
(1) For the purposes of subsection 23DS(1) of the Act, a medical practitioner who provides diagnostic imaging services (in this regulation called the
providing practitioner ) must prepare and maintain records of those services.(2) For each service rendered, the providing practitioner’s records must include:
(a) a copy of the report by the providing practitioner; and
(b) if the service is rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(8) of the Act, sufficient information to indicate the nature of the emergency; and
(c) if the service is rendered in circumstances specified in subsection 16B(9) of the Act, words indicating:
(i) that the person to whom the service was rendered, or a person acting on that person’s behalf, asserted that a medical practitioner, a dental practitioner, a chiropractor, an osteopath, a physiotherapist, a podiatrist, a participating midwife or a participating nurse practitioner (in this regulation called the
requesting practitioner ) had requested that the service be rendered but that the request had been lost; and(ii) that the providing practitioner, or an employee or agent of the providing practitioner, had sought and received from the requesting practitioner, or from an employee or agent of the requesting practitioner, confirmation that the request had been made; and
(iii) the date and manner of that confirmation; and
(d) if the service is rendered in the circumstances mentioned in subsection 16B(10A) of the Act:
(i) words indicating that the providing practitioner has consulted with the requesting practitioner and the date of that consultation; or
(ii) if the providing practitioner has not consulted with the requesting practitioner, sufficient information to demonstrate that he or she has taken all reasonable steps to do so.
(2A) If an ultrasound service is performed by a registered sonographer under the supervision, or at the direction, of the providing practitioner, the report mentioned in paragraph (2)(a) must include the name of the registered sonographer who performed the service.
(3) The providing practitioner’s records must be kept in a manner that enables retrieval of information on the basis of:
(a) the name of the person to whom the service was rendered; and
(b) the date on which the service was rendered.
(4) In this regulation:
registered sonographer means a person whose name is entered on the Register of Sonographers kept by the Chief Executive Medicare.
For paragraph 23DZP(1)(d) of the Act, the other information to be included in an application for registration of diagnostic imaging premises or a base for mobile diagnostic imaging equipment is:
(a) the nature of the practice; and
(b) details of the diagnostic imaging equipment ordinarily located at the premises or base, including:
(i) if the equipment is a type of equipment, prescribed in regulation 20C—the type of equipment, the age and quantity of equipment of that type; and
(iii) the functionality of the equipment; and
(iv) if the equipment has a serial number or other identifying number—that number; and
(c) if the premises are, or the base is, accredited under a diagnostic imaging accreditation scheme—the information mentioned in subregulation 20B(2).
Example for paragraph (a): The practice might be a base for mobile equipment, a specialist diagnostic imaging practice (either on a stand‑alone practice site or co‑located with a primary care practice or group), a primary care practice, a sports medicine clinic or a public hospital.
(1) For subparagraph 23DZQ(1)(b)(iv) of the Act, the other information to be included on the register is the information included in the application for registration.
(2) For subsections 23DZZIAB(1) and (2) of the Act, the following information is to be included on the register:
(a) the name of the approved accreditor;
(b) the commencement date for the accreditation;
(c) the diagnostic imaging procedures for which the premises are, or base is, accredited or not accredited;
(d) the expiry date for the accreditation.
(1) For subsection 23DZR(2) of the Act, diagnostic imaging equipment is prescribed if:
(a) the equipment is used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service that is described in an item of the type mentioned in columns 2 and 3 of an item of the following table; and
(b) the conditions (if any) mentioned in column 4 of that item of the following table are met.
1 | Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal K‑type | a (K) item | Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6) | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
2 | Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6) | The equipment:
(c) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old |
3 | Ultrasound equipment non‑musculoskeletal NK‑type | an (NK) item | Group I1 (other than Subgroup 6) | The equipment:
|
4 | Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal K‑type | a (K) item | Subgroup 6 of Group I1 | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
5 | Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Subgroup 6 of Group I1 | The equipment:
(c) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old |
6 | Ultrasound equipment musculoskeletal NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroup 6 of Group I1 | The equipment:
|
6A | Computed tomography equipment K‑type | a (K) item | Group I2 | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
7 | Computed tomography equipment K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Group I2 | The equipment:
|
8 | Computed tomography equipment NK‑type | an (NK) item | Group I2 | The equipment:
|
9 | Magnetic resonance imaging equipment K‑type | a (K) item | Group I5 | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
10 | Magnetic resonance imaging equipment K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Group I5 | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old |
11 | Magnetic resonance imaging equipment NK‑type | an (NK) item | Group I5 | The equipment:
|
12 | Nuclear medicine imaging equipment for positron emission tomography | any of items 61523 to 61647 | Group I4 | |
13 | Nuclear medicine imaging equipment K‑type | a (K) item | Group I4 (other than items 61523 to 61647) | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
14 | Nuclear medicine imaging equipment K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Group I4 (other than items 61523 to 61647) | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old |
15 | Nuclear medicine imaging equipment NK‑type | an (NK) item | Group I4 | The equipment:
|
16 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography K‑type | a (K) item | Subgroup 10 of Group I3 | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
17 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Subgroup 10 of Group I3 | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 10 years old |
18 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for mammography NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroup 10 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
18A | Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography K‑type | a (K) item | Subgroup 13 of Group I3 | The equipment is 10 years old or less |
19 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Subgroup 13 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
20 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for angiography NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroup 13 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
21 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination K‑type | a (K) item | Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3 | The equipment is 15 years old or less |
22 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3 | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old |
23 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for fluoroscopic examination NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroup 15 or 17 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
24 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography K‑type | item 57960, 57963, 57966 or 57969 | Subgroup 3 of Group I3 | The equipment is 15 years old or less |
25 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography K‑type upgraded | item 57960, 57963, 57966 or 57969 | Subgroup 3 of Group I3 | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old |
26 | Diagnostic radiology equipment for orthopantomography NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroup 3 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
27 | Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray K‑type | a (K) item | Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57960, 57963, 57966 and 57969), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3 | The equipment is 15 years old or less |
28 | Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray K‑type upgraded | a (K) item | Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57960, 57963, 57966 and 57969), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3 | The equipment:
(b) was upgraded on or before it was 15 years old |
29 | Diagnostic radiology equipment X‑ray NK‑type | an (NK) item | Subgroups 1 to 9 (other than items 57959, 57962, 57965 and 57968), 11, 12 and 14 of Group I3 | The equipment:
|
(2) Clause 1.2.2 of the diagnostic imaging services table (age of equipment) applies, for this regulation, in the same way as that clause applies for the diagnostic imaging services table.
(1) For subsection 23DZZIF(9) of the Act, the method mentioned in subregulation (2) is prescribed for working out whether the amount of a payment or of consideration for property, goods or services is substantially different from the market value of the property, goods or services.
(2) The amount of the payment or consideration is substantially different from the market value, determined in accordance with regulation 20CB, if the difference between the market value and the payment or consideration is more than 20% of the market value.
(1) For subsection 23DZZIF(9) of the Act, the market value of property, goods or services is the amount that a willing purchaser would have had to pay, at the time mentioned in subregulation (2), to a vendor who was willing, but not anxious, to sell.
(2) The time is:
(a) for an offence of asking for a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person asked for the benefit; or
(b) for an offence of accepting a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person accepted the benefit; or
(c) for an offence of offering a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person offered the benefit; or
(d) for an offence of providing a benefit that is not a permitted benefit—when the person provided the benefit.
For paragraph 23DZZO(1)(d) of the Act, the other information to be included in an application for registration of radiation oncology premises or a base for radiation oncology equipment is:
(a) the nature of the practice; and
(b) details of the radiation oncology equipment ordinarily located at the premises or base, including:
(i) the quantity of equipment of each type mentioned in regulation 20F; and
(ii) the functionality of the equipment; and
(iii) if the equipment has a serial number or other identifying number—that number.
Examples for paragraph (a): The practice might be a base for mobile equipment, a specialist radiation oncology practice (either on a stand‑alone practice site or co‑located with a primary care practice or group), a primary care practice, a sports medicine clinic or a public hospital.
For subparagraph 23DZZP(1)(b)(iv) of the Act, the other information to be included on the register is the information included in the application for registration.
For subsection 23DZZQ(2) of the Act, the following types of radiation oncology equipment are prescribed:
(a)
megavoltage equipment— that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 3 of Group T2 in the general medical services table;(b)
planning equipment— that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 5 of Group T2 in the general medical services table;(c)
brachytherapy equipment— that is, equipment used in the rendering of a radiation oncology service described in subgroup 4 of Group T2 in the general medical services table.
(1) For the purposes of subsection 40(1) of the Act, the prescribed form, in accordance with which an application under that subsection by an organization for approval as an organization under Part IV of the Act shall be made, is Form 1 in Schedule 1.
(2) An application under subsection 40(1) of the Act by an organization shall be signed by a person, being one of the persons responsible for the management of the organization, authorized in writing by the organization to sign that application.
Intensive Care Medical Oncology Neurology Nuclear Medicine Paediatric Medicine Renal Medicine Rheumatology Thoracic Medicine | |||
203A | The Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Australasian Faculty of Occupational Medicine Note: This organisation is now called by the name mentioned in column 2 of item 103. | Occupational Medicine | Fellowship of the Australasian Faculty of Occupational Medicine (FAFOM) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 7 May 2007. |
204 | Royal Australasian College of Surgeons, Faculty of Anaesthetists | Anaesthesia Intensive Care | Fellowship of the Faculty of Anaesthetists, Royal Australasian College of Surgeons (FFARACS) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 7 February 1992. |
205 | The Royal Australasian College of Radiologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 109. | Diagnostic Radiology Nuclear Medicine Radiation Oncology | Fellowship of the Royal Australasian College of Radiologists (FRACR) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 26 October 1998. |
206 | The Royal Australian College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 111. | Obstetrics and Gynaecology Gynaecological Oncology Maternal‑fetal Medicine Obstetrics and Gynaecological Ultrasound Reproductive Endocrinology and Infertility Urogynaecology | Fellowship of the Royal Australian College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (FRACOG) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 22 October 1998. |
207 | The Royal Australian College of Ophthalmologists Note: This organisation is now called by the name specified in column 2 of item 112. | Ophthalmology | Fellowship of the Royal Australian College of Ophthalmologists (FRACO) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 20 December 2000. |
208 | Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists and Royal Australasian College of Physicians, Joint Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine Note: This organisation is now called by the name mentioned in column 2 of item 115. | Intensive Care Medicine | Fellowship of the Joint Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine (FJFICM) Note: This qualification has not been awarded since 1 January 2010. |
(regulations 6E and 6EA)
1 | Australasian Chapter of Addiction Medicine | FAChAM |
2 | Australasian Chapter of Palliative Medicine | FAChPM |
3 | Australasian Chapter of Sexual Health Medicine | FAChSHM |
4 | Australasian College for Emergency Medicine | FACEM |
5 | Australasian College of Dermatologists | FACD |
6 | Australasian College of Sports Physicians | FACSP |
7 | Australasian Faculty of Occupational and Environmental Medicine | FAFOEM |
8 | Australasian Faculty of Public Health Medicine | FAFPHM |
9 | Australasian Faculty of Rehabilitation Medicine | FAFRM |
10 | Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists | FANZCA |
11 | College of Intensive Care Medicine of Australia and New Zealand | FCICM |
12 | Faculty of Pain Medicine, Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists | FFPMANZCA |
13 | Royal Australasian College of Physicians | FRACP |
14 | Royal Australasian College of Surgeons | FRACS |
15 | Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists | FRANZCOG |
16 | Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Ophthalmologists | FRANZCO |
17 | Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Psychiatrists | FRANZCP |
18 | Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists | FRANZCR |
19 | Royal College of Pathologists of Australasia | FRCPA |
1 | Health Department | Approved Medical Deputising Services Program |
2 | Health Department | Approved Private Emergency Department Program |
3 | Health Department | Rural Locum Relief Program |
4 | Health Department | Special Approved Placements Program |
5 | Health Department | Temporary Resident Other Medical Practitioners Program |
6 | Health Department | Australian General Practice Training Program |
8 | General Practice Workforce Inc— trading as Health Recruitment Plus | Rural Locum Relief Program |
9 | Health Workforce Queensland Ltd (ACN 065 574 996) | Rural Locum Relief Program |
10 | Northern Territory Medicare Local Ltd (ACN 158 970 480) | Rural Locum Relief Program |
11 | NSW Rural Doctors Network Ltd (ACN 081 388 810) | Rural Locum Relief Program |
12 | Queensland Department of Health | Queensland Country Relieving Doctors Program |
14 | Remote Vocational Training Scheme Ltd (ACN 122 891 838) | Remote Vocational Training Scheme |
15 | Rural Doctors Workforce Agency Incorporated | Rural Locum Relief Program |
16 | Rural Workforce Agency, Victoria Limited (ACN 081 163 519) | Rural Locum Relief Program |
17 | Western Australian Centre for Remote and Rural Medicine Ltd (ACN 123 188 367) | Rural Locum Relief Program |
18 | Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine | Independent Pathway |
(1) This item relates to:
(a) the Specific Workforce Shortage Program established by the Minister for the placement of medical practitioners in locations otherwise underprovided with medical practitioners qualified to provide services in demand; and
(b) the associated registration of medical practitioners, under section 3GA of the Act, in the Register of Approved Placements.
(2) A medical practitioner who is an applicant under subsection 3GA(5) of the Act is eligible for registration if he or she:
(a) is awaiting:
(i) recognition, by the appropriate Australian medical college, of an acquired overseas specialist qualification; or
(ii) if he or she is an overseas trained doctor or former overseas medical student, within the meaning of section 19AB of the Act, who has an exemption under subsection 19AB(3) of the Act—recognition, by the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners, of his or her post‑graduate general practice qualifications; and
(b) because of the circumstance mentioned in paragraph (a), has been accepted for participation in the Program to provide professional services.
(regulation 6EF)
For the purposes of paragraph 6EF(a), a service described in an item of the general medical services table mentioned in column 2 of the following table is prescribed.
1 | A1 | 3, 4, 20, 23, 24, 35, 36, 37, 43, 44, 47, 51 |
2 | A2 | 52, 53, 54, 57, 58, 59, 60, 65, 92, 93, 95, 96, |
3 | A5 | 160, 161, 162, 163, 164 |
4 | A6 | 170, 171, 172 |
5 | A7 | 173, 193, 195, 197, 199 |
6 | A11 | 585, 588, 591, 594, 599, 600 |
7 | A14 | 701, 703, 705, 707, 715 |
8 | A15 | 721, 723, 729, 731, 732, 735, 739, 743, 747, 750, 758 |
9 | A17 | 900, 903 |
10 | A18 | 2497, 2501, 2503, 2504, 2506, 2507, 2509, 2517, 2518, 2521, 2522, 2525, 2526, 2546, 2547, 2552, 2553, 2558, 2559 |
11 | A19 | 2598, 2600, 2603, 2606, 2610, 2613, 2616, 2620, 2622, 2624, 2631, 2633, 2635, 2664, 2666, 2668, 2673, 2675, 2677 |
12 | A20 | 2700, 2701, 2712, 2713, 2715, 2717, 2721, 2723, 2725, 2727 |
13 | A22 | 5000, 5003, 5010, 5020, 5023, 5028, 5040, 5043, 5049, 5060, 5063, 5067 |
14 | A23 | 5200, 5203, 5207, 5208, 5220, 5223, 5227, 5228, 5260, 5263, 5265, 5267 |
15 | A27 | 4001 |
15A | A29 | 139 |
15B | A30 | 2100, 2122, 2125, 2126, 2137, 2138, 2143, 2147, 2179, 2195, 2199, 2200 |
16 | M12 | 10983, 10984, 10986, 10987, 10988, 10989, 10997 |
2 Items of the Health Insurance (Section 3C General Medical Services – Other Medical Practitioner) Determination 2018 For the purposes of paragraph 6EF(a), a service specified in an item of a Schedule (within the meaning of the
Health Insurance (Section 3C General Medical Services – Other Medical Practitioner) Determination 2018 ) mentioned in column 2 of the following table is prescribed.
1 |
Subgroup 2 of Group A7 |
179, 181, 183, 185, 187, 188, 189, 191, 202, 203, 206, 212 |
2 |
Subgroup 3 of Group A7 |
214, 215, 218, 219, 220 |
3 |
Subgroup 4 of Group A7 |
221, 222, 223 |
4 |
Subgroup 5 of Group A7 |
224, 225, 226, 227, 228 |
5 |
Subgroup 6 of Group A7 |
229, 230, 231, 232, 233, 235, 236, 237, 238, 239, 240, 243, 244 |
6 |
Subgroup 7 of Group A7 |
245, 249 |
7 |
Subgroup 8 of Group A7 |
251, 252, 253, 254, 255, 256, 257, 259, 260, 261, 262, 263, 264, 265, 266, 268, 269, 270, 271 |
8 |
Subgroup 9 of Group A7 |
272, 276, 277, 279, 281, 282, 283, 285, 286, 287 |
9 |
Subgroup 10 of Group A7 |
733, 737, 741, 745, 761, 763, 766, 769, 772, 776, 788, 789 |
10 |
Subgroup 11 of Group A7 |
792 |
11 |
Subgroup 12 of Group A7 |
812, 827, 829, 867, 868, 869, 873, 876, 881, 885, 891, 892 |
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
The
If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.
ad = added or inserted | o = order(s) |
am = amended | Ord = Ordinance |
amdt = amendment | orig = original |
c = clause(s) | par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
Ch = Chapter(s) | pres = present |
def = definition(s) | prev = previous |
Dict = Dictionary | (prev…) = previously |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | Pt = Part(s) |
Div = Division(s) | r = regulation(s)/rule(s) |
ed = editorial change | reloc = relocated |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | renum = renumbered |
effect | rep = repealed |
F = Federal Register of Legislation | rs = repealed and substituted |
gaz = gazette | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
LA
= | Sch = Schedule(s) |
LIA
= | Sdiv = Subdivision(s) |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
effect | SR = Statutory Rules |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
cannot be given effect | SubPt = Subpart(s) |
mod = modified/modification | |
No. = Number(s) | commenced or to be commenced |
1975 No. 80 | 16 May 1975 | 16 May 1975 | |
1975 No. 118 | 13 June 1975 | 13 June 1975 | — |
1975 No. 125 | 27 June 1975 | 1 July 1975 | — |
1975 No. 135 | 3 July 1975 | 3 July 1975 Note: disallowed by the Senate on 4 Sept 1975 | — |
1976 No. 202 | 23 Sept 1976 | 23 Sept 1976 | — |
1976 No. 214 | 30 Sept 1976 | 1 Oct 1976 | — |
1976 No. 215 | 30 Sept 1976 | 30 Sept 1976 | — |
1977 No. 26 | 15 Mar 1977 | r. 2(2): 1 Apr 1977 Remainder: 15 Mar 1977 | — |
1977 No. 44 | 15 Apr 1977 | 15 Apr 1977 | — |
1978 No. 95 | 29 June 1978 | 1 July 1978 | — |
1978 No.177 | 26 Sept 1978 | 26 Sept 1978 | — |
1979 No. 230 | 31 Oct 1979 | 31 Oct 1979 | — |
1981 No. 198 | 17 July 1981 | 25 June 1981 | — |
1981 No. 317 | 4 Nov 1981 | 1 Sept 1981 | — |
1982 No. 157 | 30 June 1982 | 1 July 1982 | — |
1982 No. 251 | 1 Oct 1982 | 1 Oct 1982 | — |
1982 No. 287 | 29 Oct 1982 | r. 1: 1 Nov 1982 Remainder: 29 Oct 1982 | — |
1983 No. 106 | 22 July 1983 | 22 July 1983 | — |
1983 No. 231 | 28 Oct 1983 | 1 Nov 1983 | — |
1983 No. 253 | 31 Oct 1983 | 1 Feb 1984 | — |
1983 No. 255 | 31 Oct 1983 | 31 Oct 1983 | — |
1984 No. 5 | 26 Jan 1984 | 1 Mar 1984 | — |
1984 No. 162 | 25 July 1984 | 1 Mar 1984 | — |
1985 No. 36 | 4 Apr 1985 | 4 Apr 1985 | — |
1985 No. 50 | 29 Apr 1985 | 29 Apr 1985 | — |
1985 No. 95 | 7 June 1985 | 7 June 1985 | — |
1985 No. 205 | 29 Aug 1985 | 29 Aug 1985 | — |
1985 No. 290 | 7 Nov 1985 | 7 Nov 1985 Note: disallowance by the Senate on 10 Apr 1986 | — |
1986 No. 19 | 21 Feb 1986 | 22 Feb 1986 | — |
1986 No. 20 | 21 Feb 1986 | Feb 1986 | — |
1986 No. 87 | 9 May 1986 | 9 May 1986 | — |
1986 No. 326 | 6 Nov 1986 | 6 Nov 1986 | — |
1987 No. 32 | 6 Mar 1987 | 7 Mar 1987 | — |
1987 No. 163 | 29 July 1987 | 1 Aug 1987 | — |
1987 No. 166 | 31 July 1987 | 1 Aug 1987 | — |
1988 No. 314 | 2 Dec 1988 | r. 2: 1 Aug 1987 r. 3: 1 Aug 1988 Remainder: 2 Dec 1988 | — |
1989 No. 6 | 31 Jan 1989 | 31 Jan 1989 | — |
1989 No. 54 | 14 Apr 1989 | 14 Apr 1989 | — |
1989 No. 117 | 21 June 1989 | 21 June 1989 | — |
1989 No. 293 | 31 Oct 1989 | 31 Oct 1989 | — |
1990 No. 25 | 13 Feb 1990 | 13 Feb 1990 | — |
1991 No. 82 | 30 Apr 1991 | 1 May 1991 | — |
1991 No. 314 | 16 Oct 1991 | 1 Nov 1991 | — |
1991 No. 365 | 27 Nov 1991 | 1 Dec 1991 | — |
1991 No. 441 | 19 Dec 1991 | 1 Feb 1992 | — |
1992 No. 42 | 28 Feb 1992 | r. 6.2: 1 Apr 1992 Remainder: 1 Mar 1992 | — |
1992 No. 111 | 28 Apr 1992 | rr. 4‑6: 1 May 1992 Remainder: 28 Apr 1992 | — |
1992 No. 239 | 29 July 1992 | 1 May 1992 (r 1.1) | — |
1992 No. 335 | 27 Oct 1992 | 1 Nov 1992 | — |
1992 No. 431 | 24 Dec 1992 | 24 Dec 1992 | — |
1993 No. 106 | 3 June 1993 | 3 June 1993 | — |
1993 No. 130 | 17 June 1993 | 17 June 1993 | — |
1993 No. 154 | 29 June 1993 | 1 July 1993 | — |
1994 No. 20 | 18 Feb 1994 | 1 Mar 1994 | — |
1994 No. 27 | 25 Feb 1994 | 25 Feb 1994 | — |
1994 No. 111 | 29 Apr 1994 | 1 May 1994 | — |
1994 No. 137 | 23 May 1994 | 23 May 1994 | — |
1994 No. 138 | 23 May 1994 | 1 July 1994 | r. 5 |
1994 No. 328 | 23 Sept 1994 | 23 Sept 1994 | — |
1994 No. 413 | 13 Dec 1994 | 13 Dec 1994 | — |
1995 No. 9 | 3 Feb 1995 | 3 Feb 1995 | — |
1995 No. 25 | 28 Feb 1995 | 28 Feb 1995 | — |
1995 No. 287 | 10 Oct 1995 | 10 Oct 1995 | — |
1995 No. 300 | 26 Oct 1995 | 1 Nov 1995 | — |
1995 No. 409 | 19 Dec 1995 | 1 Jan 1996 (r. 1) | — |
1996 No. 231 | 30 Oct 1996 | 1 Nov 1996 | — |
1996 No. 234 | 30 Oct 1996 | 1 Nov 1996 | — |
1996 No. 235 | 30 Oct 1996 | 1 Nov 1996 | — |
1996 No. 335 | 24 Dec 1996 | 24 Dec 1996 | — |
1996 No. 336 | 24 Dec 1996 | 1 Jan 1997 | — |
1997 No. 61 | 26 Mar 1997 | 26 Mar 1997 | — |
1997 No. 287 | 8 Oct 1997 | 8 Oct 1997 | — |
1997 No. 300 | 31 Oct 1997 | 1 Nov 1997 | — |
1997 No. 319 | 17 Nov 1997 | 17 Nov 1997 | — |
1997 No. 395 | 24 Dec 1997 | 1 Jan 1998 | — |
1998 No. 44 | 25 Mar 1998 | 1 Feb 1998 | — |
1998 No. 125 | 9 June 1998 | 1 July 1998 | — |
1998 No. 138 | 25 June 1998 | 1 July 1998 | — |
1998 No. 204 | 1 July 1998 | 1 July 1998 | — |
1998 No. 220 | 7 July 1998 | 7 July 1998 | — |
1998 No. 253 | 6 Aug 1998 | 6 Aug 1998 | — |
1998 No. 268 | 26 Aug 1998 | 1 Sept 1998 | — |
1998 No. 370 | 22 Dec 1998 | 22 Dec 1998 | — |
1998 No. 371 | 22 Dec 1998 | 22 Dec 1998 | — |
1998 No. 372 | 22 Dec 1998 | 1 Jan 1999 | — |
1999 No. 48 | 24 Mar 1999 | 24 Mar 1999 | — |
1999 No. 88 | 4 June 1999 | 4 June 1999 | — |
1999 No. 157 | 28 July 1999 | 28 July 1999 | — |
1999 No. 176 | 1 Sept 1999 | 1 Sept 1999 | — |
1999 No. 254 | 27 Oct 1999 | 1 Nov 1999 | — |
1999 No. 343 | 22 Dec 1999 | 1 Jan 2000 | — |
1999 No. 344 | 22 Dec 1999 | 1 Feb 2000 | — |
2000 No. 146 | 28 June 2000 | 28 June 2000 | — |
2000 No. 290 | 1 Nov 2000 | 1 Nov 2000 | — |
2001 No. 272 | 5 Oct 2001 | 5 Oct 2001 | — |
2001 No. 273 | 5 Oct 2001 | 5 Oct 2001 | — |
2001 No. 274 | 5 Oct 2001 | 1 Nov 2001 | — |
2001 No. 275 | 5 Oct 2001 | 1 Nov 2001 | — |
2001 No. 290 | 1 Dec 2001 | 1 Dec 2001 | — |
2001 No. 342 | 21 Dec 2001 | 21 Dec 2001 | — |
2002 No. 246 | 24 Oct 2002 | rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 Nov 2001 Remainder: 1 Nov 2002 | — |
2002 No. 261 | 6 Nov 2002 | Sch 2 Remainder: 1 Mar 1999 (r 2(a)) | — |
2003 No. 87 | 16 May 2003 | 16 May 2003 | r. 4 |
2003 No. 254 | 16 Oct 2003 | 1 Nov 2003 | — |
2003 No. 356 | 23 Dec 2003 | 23 Dec 2003 | — |
2003 No. 357 | 23 Dec 2003 | 23 Dec 2003 | — |
2004 No. 46 | 30 Mar 2004 | 30 Mar 2004 | — |
2004 No. 75 | 30 Apr 2004 | 30 Apr 2004 | — |
2004 No. 110 | 3 June 2004 | 3 June 2004 | — |
2004 No. 125 | 18 June 2004 | 18 June 2004 | — |
2004 No. 180 | 1 July 2004 | 1 July 2004 | — |
2004 No. 181 | 1 July 2004 | 1 July 2004 | — |
2004 No. 305 | 29 Oct 2004 | 1 Nov 2004 | — |
2004 No. 306 | 29 Oct 2004 | 1 Nov 2004 | — |
2004 No. 324 | 25 Nov 2004 | 25 Nov 2004 | — |
2004 No. 383 | 23 Dec 2004 | 1 Jan 2005 | — |
2005 No. 9 | 14 Feb 2005 (F2005L00169) | r. 1, 2, 3(1) and Schedule 1: 30 Apr 1997 r. 3(2) and Schedule 2: 31 May 1997 r. 4(1) and Schedule 3: 23 Oct 1998 r. 4(2) and Schedule 4: 27 Oct 1998 r. 4(3) and Schedule 5: 21 Dec 2000 r. 4(4) and Schedule 6: 22 Feb 2002 Remainder: 14 Feb 2005 | — |
2005 No. 64 | 27 Apr 2005 (F2005L00938) | 1 May 2005 | — |
2005 No. 128 | 21 June 2005 (F2005L01451) | 1 July 2005 | — |
2005 No. 207 | 19 Sept 2005 (F2005L02673) | 1 Oct 2005 (r. 2) | — |
2005 No. 236 | 27 Oct 2005 (F2005L03104) | 28 Oct 2005 | — |
2005 No. 237 | 27 Oct 2005 (F2005L03124) | 1 Nov 2005 | — |
2005 No. 286 | 2 Dec 2005 (F2005L03869) | 1 Jan 2006 | — |
2006 No. 69 | 31 Mar 2006 (F2006L00966) | 1 Apr 2006 | — |
2006 No. 84 | 28 Apr 2006 (F2006L01209) | 1 May 2006 | — |
2006 No. 269 | 20 Oct 2006 (F2006L03311) | 1 Nov 2006 | — |
2007 No. 55 | 30 Mar 2007 (F2007L00582) | 1 Apr 2007 | — |
2007 No. 56 | 30 Mar 2007 (F2007L00802) | 1 Apr 2007 (r. 2) | — |
2007 No. 98 | 27 Apr 2007 (F2007L00992) | 1 May 2007 | — |
2007 No. 187 | 29 June 2007 (F2007L01519) | 1 July 2007 | — |
2007 No. 311 | 28 Sept 2007 (F2007L02262) | 29 Sept 2007 | — |
2007 No. 337 | 8 Oct 2007 (F2007L03759) | 1 Nov 2007 | — |
2008 No. 110 | 20 June 2008 (F2008L01330) | 1 July 2008 | — |
2008 No. 209 | 17 Oct 2008 (F2008L03448) | 1 Nov 2008 (r. 2 and F2008L03447) | — |
2009 No. 136 | 25 June 2009 (F2009L02306) | 1 July 2009 | — |
2009 No. 225 | 10 Sept 2009 (F2009L02262) | 11 Sept 2009 | — |
2009 No. 270 | 13 Oct 2009 (F2009L03138) | 1 Nov 2009 (r. 2) | — |
2009 No. 306 | 13 Nov 2009 (F2009L03987) | 1 Jan 2010 | — |
2009 No. 368 | 15 Dec 2009 (F2009L04019) | 1 Jan 2010 | — |
2009 No. 369 | 15 Dec 2009 (F2009L04017) | 1 July 2010 | — |
2010 No. 230 | 21 July 2010 (F2010L01978) | rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 22 July 2010 Schedule 2: 1 Nov 2010 | — |
2010 No. 260 | 27 Oct 2010 (F2010L02796) | rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 May 2010 r. 4 and Schedule 2: 1 Nov 2010 | r. 4 |
2010 No. 261 | 27 Oct 2010 (F2010L02770) | 1 Nov 2010 | — |
2010 No. 262 | 28 Oct 2010 (F2010L02797) | 1 Nov 2010 | — |
2011 No. 27 | 15 Mar 2011 (F2011L00426) | 1 Jan 2010 | — |
2011 No. 98 | 20 June 2011 (F2011L01083) | 1 July 2011 | — |
2011 No. 120 | 30 June 2011 (F2011L01364) | 1 July 2011 | — |
2011 No. 183 | 24 Oct 2011 (F2011L02113) | 25 Oct 2011 | — |
2011 No. 184 | 25 Oct 2011 (F2011L02119) | rr. 1–3 and Schedule 1: 1 Nov 2011 Schedule 2: 1 Jan 2012 | — |
2012 No. 57 | 20 Apr 2012 (F2012L00906) | 1 May 2012 | — |
2012 No. 138 | 30 June 2012 (F2012L01477) | 1 July 2012 | — |
2012 No. 165 | 13 July 2012 (F2012L01547) | 1 Aug 2012 | — |
2012 No. 293 | 7 Dec 2012 (F2012L02368) | 8 Dec 2012 | — |
2012 No. 294 | 10 Dec 2012 (F2012L02372) | 27 Dec 2012 | — |
186, 2013 | 25 July 2013 (F2013L01432) | 1 Sept 2013 | — |
250, 2013 | 26 Nov 2013 (F2013L01982) | Sch 1: 27 Nov 2013 | — |
28, 2014 | 17 Mar 2014 (F2014L00280) | Sch 1 (items 3–5): 18 Mar 2014 | — |
148, 2014 | 17 Oct 2014 (F2014L01362) | Sch 3 (items 1–3): 1 Nov 2014 (s 2 item 4) Sch 3 (items 39–50): 1 Jan 2015 (s 2 item 5) | — |
149, 2014 | 17 Oct 2014 (F2014L01360) | Sch 1 (items 28–33): 1 Jan 2015 (s 2 item 3) | — |
195, 2014 | 16 Dec 2014 (F2014L01715) | Sch 1 (items 21, 22): 17 Dec 2014 (s 2 item 3) | — |
236, 2015 | 14 Dec 2015 (F2015L01965) | Sch 1: 1 Jan 2016 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2016 Measures No. 2) Regulation 2016 | 14 Oct 2016 (F2016L01616) | Sch 1 (items 44, 45): 1 Nov 2016 (s 2(1) item 2) Sch 1 (items 46–48) 1 Jan 2017 (s 2(1) item 3) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2017 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2017 | 12 Oct 2017 (F2017L01343) | Sch 1 (item 26): 1 Nov 2017 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2017 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2017 | 3 Nov 2017 (F2017L01429) | Sch 1 (item 29): 1 Dec 2017 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (After Hours Services) Regulations 2018 | 30 Jan 2018 (F2018L00062) | Sch 1 (item 15): 1 Mar 2018 (s 2(1) item 1) |
— | |||
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2018 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2018 | 24 Apr 2018 (F2018L00514) | Sch 1 (items 22, 23): 1 May 2018 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2018 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2018 | 13 June 2018 (F2018L00768) | Sch 1 (items 59–62), Sch 2: 1 July 2018 (s 2(1) items 2–4) | — |
Part 1 heading.............................. | ad F2016L01616 |
r 1............................................... | rs 1998 No 268 |
r. 2.............................................. | rs. 1983 No. 253 |
am. 1989 No. 54; 1991 No. 82 | |
rs. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1991 No. 441; 1992 Nos. 42 and 111; 1996 Nos. 235 and 335; 2001 No. 290; 2003 No. 87; 2005 No. 207; 2007 No. 55; 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 120; No 250, 2013; No 28, 2014; No 149, 2014 | |
Note to r. 2................................... | ad. 2007 No. 56 |
rs. 2010 No. 230 | |
r. 2A............................................ | ad. 2007 No. 55 |
r. 2B............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r. 2C............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
am No 186, 2013 | |
r. 2D............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r. 2E............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r 2EA.......................................... | ad No 186, 2013 |
r. 2F............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r. 2G............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r. 2H............................................ | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
r. 3.............................................. | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1991 No. 365; 1999 No. 157 | |
rs No 28, 2014 | |
r. 3A............................................ | ad. 2004 No. 125 |
am. 2004 No. 305; 2005 No. 286; 2006 No. 69 | |
rs. 2006 No. 269 | |
am. 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 98 | |
r. 4.............................................. | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
rs. 2005 No. 9 | |
r. 5.............................................. | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
r. 6.............................................. | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
r. 6A............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
r. 6B............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6C............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6D............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6DA......................................... | ad. 2007 No. 55 |
am. 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6DB......................................... | ad. 2007 No. 55 |
r. 6DC......................................... | ad. 2007 No. 55 |
am. 2011 No. 120 | |
Heading to r. 6E............................ | rs. 1999 No. 344 |
r. 6E............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 1998, No. 44; 1999 No. 344 | |
r. 6EA.......................................... | ad. 1999 No. 344 |
am. 2001 No. 272 | |
r. 6EB.......................................... | ad. 1999 No. 344 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6EF.......................................... | ad. 2004 No. 383 |
rs. 2009 No. 270 | |
am. 2010 No. 260; 2012 No. 57; No 250, 2013; F2018L00768 | |
r. 6F............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 6G............................................ | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
r. 7.............................................. | ad. 1989 No. 293 |
rep. 2001 No. 273 | |
r. 8.............................................. | ad. 1988 No. 314 |
am. 1988 No. 314 | |
rep. 1994 No. 111 | |
r. 9.............................................. | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
r. 9A............................................ | ad. 1994 No. 413 |
rs. 2010 No. 230 | |
am. 2012 No. 165 | |
r. 10............................................ | ad. 1991 No. 82 |
rs. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1992 Nos. 111 and 239 | |
rs. 1993 No. 130 | |
am. 1993 No. 154; 1994 No. 111; 1996 No. 231; 1997 No. 300; 1998 No. 268; 1999 Nos. 157, 176 and 343; 2000 No. 290; 2002 Nos. 246 and 261; 2003 No. 254; 2004 No. 306; No 250, 2013; No 148, 2014; No 195, 2014 | |
r 11............................................. | ad No 82, 1991 |
rs No 365, 1991 | |
am No 42, 1992; No 111, 1992; No 239, 1992; No 231, 1996; No 87, 2003; No 337, 2007; No 306, 2009 | |
rs No 250, 2013; F2017L01343 | |
r 11A........................................... | ad No 261, 2010 |
am F2017L01429 | |
r. 11B.......................................... | ad. 2010 No. 261 |
am. 2011 No. 184 | |
rs No 250, 2013 | |
r. 12............................................ | ad. 1991 No. 82 |
rs. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1992 Nos. 111 and 239; 1996 No. 231; 1999 No. 157 | |
rs No 250, 2013 | |
r. 12A.......................................... | ad. 1996 No. 336 |
am. 1997 No. 395; 1998 No. 372; 1999 No. 343 | |
r. 12AA....................................... | ad. 2008 No. 110 |
rep. 2009 No. 369 | |
r. 12B.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
r. 13............................................ | ad. 1983 No. 255 |
am. 1986 No. 19; 1987 Nos. 32 and 166; 1991 Nos. 82, 365 and 441; 1992 Nos. 42 and 431; 1995 Nos. 9, 287 and 409; 1996 Nos. 231 and 234; 1998 No. 371; 1999 No. 157; 2001 Nos. 274 and 290; 2003 No. 87; 2004 No. 46; 2005 No. 207; 2007 No. 56; 2010 Nos. 230 and 260; 2011 No. 120; 2012 No. 165; F2018L00768 | |
r. 13AA....................................... | ad. 2001 No. 272 |
am. 2005 No. 207; 2008 No. 209; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 13AB........................................ | ad. 2008 No. 209 |
am. 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 13AC........................................ | ad. 2008 No. 209 |
r. 13A.......................................... | ad. 1998 No. 204 |
am. 2005 No. 207 | |
rep. 2007 No. 56 | |
r. 13B.......................................... | ad. 1998 No. 204 |
am. 2004 No. 110; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 14............................................ | ad. 1985 No. 36 |
am. 1985 No. 205; 1986 No. 87; 1989 No. 117; 1990 No. 25; 1991 No. 314; 1992 Nos. 111 and 335; 1994 No. 20; 1995 No. 9; 2005 No. 236; 2006 No. 84 | |
r. 14A.......................................... | ad. 2010 No. 230 |
rs F2016L01616 | |
r. 15............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1976 No. 215 | |
rep F2016L01616 | |
r. 16............................................ | ad. 1986 No. 326 |
r. 16A.......................................... | ad. 1994 No. 328 |
r. 17............................................ | ad. 1986 No. 326 |
r. 18............................................ | ad. 1986 No. 326 |
r. 18A.......................................... | ad. 2012 No. 165 |
r. 19............................................ | ad. 1991 No. 82 |
am. 1996 Nos. 231 and 234; 2007 No. 56; 2012 No. 165 | |
r. 20............................................ | ad. 1992 No. 42 |
am. 2001 No. 275; 2003 No. 87; 2005 No. 207; 2010 No. 230; 2011 No. 120 | |
r. 20A.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
am. 2008 No. 110; 2011 No. 183 | |
r. 20B.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
am. 2008 No. 110 | |
r. 20C.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
am. 2011 No. 183 | |
rs No 250, 2013 | |
am No 148, 2014; F2018L00514; F2018L00768 | |
r. 20CA........................................ | ad. 2009 No. 225 |
r. 20CB........................................ | ad. 2009 No. 225 |
r. 20D.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
r. 20E.......................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
r. 20F........................................... | ad. 2003 No. 87 |
r. 21............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 202 | |
r. 22............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 202 | |
r. 22A.......................................... | ad. 1997 No. 287 |
rep No 236, 2015 | |
r. 23............................................ | ad. 1977 No. 44 |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
ad. 1986 No. 20 | |
r. 23A.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
r. 23B.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
am. 1994 No. 27 | |
r. 23C.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
r. 23D.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
r. 23E.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
am. 1994 No. 27 | |
r. 23F........................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
am. 1994 No. 27 | |
r. 23G.......................................... | ad. 1993 No. 106 |
am. 1994 No. 27 | |
r. 24............................................ | ad. 1976 No. 202 |
rs. 1989 No. 54 | |
am. 1994 No. 138 | |
r. 25............................................ | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
r. 25A.......................................... | ad. 1998 No. 220 |
am. 2010 No. 230 | |
r. 26............................................ | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
r. 27............................................ | ad. 1979 No. 230 |
am. 1983 No. 106; 1985 Nos. 50, 95 and 290 | |
rs. 1992 No. 111 | |
am. 1996 No. 235; 2001 No. 342; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120; No 149, 2014 | |
r. 28............................................ | ad. 1992 No. 111 |
rs. 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
Heading to r. 29............................ | rs. 2012 No. 294 |
r. 29............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1976 No. 215; 1978 No. 95; 1987 No. 32 | |
rs. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1996 No. 235; 2010 No. 230; 2012 No. 294 | |
r. 30............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1978 No. 177 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
ad. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1995 Nos. 9 and 300 | |
Heading to r. 31............................ | rs. 2012 No. 294 |
r. 31............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1976 No. 215 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
ad. 1991 No. 365 | |
am. 1995 Nos. 9 and 300; 1996 No. 235; 1999 No. 157; 2010 No. 261; 2012 No. 294 | |
Part 2........................................... | ad F2016L01616 |
r 32............................................. | ad No 149, 2014 |
rep 30 June 2015 (r 32(3)) | |
ad F2016L01616 | |
Schedule 1A................................. | ad. 1996 No. 335 |
am. 1997 Nos. 61 and 319 | |
rep. 1998 No. 44 | |
Schedule...................................... | am. 1975 No. 118 |
Schedule 1 | |
Heading to Schedule 1................... | ad. 1976 No. 202 |
Schedule 1................................... | am. 1976 Nos. 202, 214 and 215; 1982 No. 251; 1992 No. 111 |
Form 1......................................... | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 215 | |
Form 2......................................... | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 215 | |
Schedule 1A................................. | ad. 1997 No. 287 |
rs. 1998 No. 253; 2004 No. 324 | |
rep No 236, 2015 | |
Schedule 2................................... | ad. 1976 No. 202 |
am. 1989 No. 54; 1994 No. 138 | |
Schedule 3................................... | ad. 1979 No. 230 |
rs. 1992 No. 111 | |
am. 1995 No. 25; 1996 No. 235; 2004 No. 180; 2005 No. 207; 2011 No. 120 | |
Schedule 4................................... | ad. 1986 No. 20 |
am. 1992 No. 111 | |
rs. 1994 No. 137 | |
am. 1998 No. 125; 1999 Nos. 157 and 254; 2005 No. 9 | |
rs. 2005 No. 9 | |
am. 2006 No. 69; 2007 No. 311; 2009 No. 368; 2010 No. 262 | |
Heading to Schedule 5................... | rs. 1999 No. 344 |
Schedule 5................................... | ad. 1998 No. 44 |
am. 1998 Nos. 138 and 370; 1999 Nos. 48 and 344; 2000 No. 146; 2001 Nos. 272 and 342; 2003 Nos. 356 and 357; 2004 Nos. 75 and 181; 2007 Nos. 98 and 311; 2009 No. 368; 2010 No. 262; 2012 No 138, 2014; No 149, 2014; No 293, 2014; F2016L01616 | |
Schedule 6................................... | ad. 2004 No. 383 |
am. 2005 Nos. 64, 128 and 237; 2006 Nos. 84 and 269; 2007 No. 187; 2009 No. 136 | |
rs. 2010 No. 260 | |
am. 2011 Nos. 27, 98 and 184; F2018L00062; F2018L00768 |
The amendment history of the repealed provisions of the
r. 2AA......................................... | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
r. 2AAB....................................... | ad. 1976 No. 202 |
am. 1977 No. 26 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
r. 2AC......................................... | ad. 1975 No. 125 |
am. 1987 No. 163 | |
rep. 1989 No. 6 | |
ad. 1991 No. 365 | |
rep. 1992 No. 42 | |
r. 2ADAA.................................... | ad. 1984 No. 5 |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
r. 2AE.......................................... | ad. 1982 No. 287 |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
r. 2A............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
rs. 1976 No. 202 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
r. 2B............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
rs. 1976 No. 202 | |
am. 1976 No. 214 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
r. 2C............................................ | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
rs. 1976 No. 202 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
r. 2CD......................................... | ad. 1991 No. 82 |
rep. 1992 No. 42 | |
rr. 3, 4.......................................... | rs. 1976 No. 202 |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
r. 4A............................................ | ad. 1981 No. 198 |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
r. 5.............................................. | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 202 | |
rep. 1982 No. 251 | |
rr. 6, 7.......................................... | ad. 1975 No. 118 |
am. 1976 No. 202; 1982 No. 251 | |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
r. 7A............................................ | ad. 1976 No. 202 |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
Heading to Schedule..................... | rep. 1976 No. 202 |
Schedule 4................................... | ad. 1981 No. 198 |
am. 1981 No. 317; 1982 No. 157; 1983 No. 231; 1984 No. 5 | |
rep. 1992 No. 111 | |
Schedule 5................................... | ad. 1984 No. 5 |
rs. 1984 No. 162 | |
rep. 1992 No. 111 |
The renumbering of provisions of the
Regulation | Regulation |
1 | 1 |
2 | 2 |
2AB | 3 |
2ABA | 4 |
2ABB | 5 |
2ABC | 6 |
2ABD | 7 |
2ACA | 8 |
2AD | 9 |
2ADAAA | 10 |
2ADAAB | 11 |
2ADAAC | 12 |
2ADA | 13 |
2ADB | 14 |
2CA | 15 |
2CB | 16 |
2CC | 17 |
2CD | 18 |
2CE | 19 |
2CF | 20 |
8 | 21 |
9 | 22 |
9AA | 23 |
9A | 24 |
9AB | 25 |
9AC | 26 |
9B | 27 |
9C | 28 |
10 | 29 |
11 | 30 |
12 | 31 |
Schedule 1 | Schedule 1 |
Form 6 | Form 1 |
Form 7 | Form 2 |
Schedule 2 | Schedule 2 |
Schedule 3 | Schedule 3 |
Schedule 6 | Schedule 4 |
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0
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