Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2007 (Cth)

Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2007

Select Legislative Instrument 2007 No. 355 as amended

made under the

Health Insurance Act 1973

This compilation was prepared on 1 October 2008
taking into account amendments up to SLI 2008 No. 188

Prepared by the Office of Legislative Drafting and Publishing,
Attorney‑General’s Department, Canberra

Contents

1Name of Regulations [see Note 1]                            8

2Commencement                                                 8

3Repeal                                                            8

4Definitions                                                        8

5General medical services table                                8

Schedule 1Table of general medical services                          9

Part 1Prescription of table                                             9

1Prescription of table                                             9

Part 2Rules of interpretation                                          9

2Application of table                                              9

3General                                                           9

4Meaning of symbols (S) and (G)                             17

5Meaning of symbol (H)                                         18

6Meaning of a patient’s medical condition requires urgent treatment and responsible person in certain items                                                  18

7Application of items 2, 98, 448, 449, 602 and 698         19

8Meaning of single course of treatment in certain circumstances       19

9Meaning of professional attendance in certain items      20

10Interpretation of items 104 to 147, 289 to 388, 2801 to 2840, 3005 to 3028, 6007 to 6015, 17640, 17645, 17650 and 17655                            21

11Meaning of amount under rule 11 in certain items         22

12Personal attendance by medical practitioners generally   24

13Personal attendance by certain medical practitioners     25

14Meaning of qualified medical acupuncturist in items 193, 195, 197 and 199    26

15Restriction of telepsychiatry consultations to rural and remote areas  26

16Consultant occupational physicians                         26

17Public health physicians                                       27

18Meaning of recognised emergency department and problem focussed history in Group A21                                                                   27

19Prolonged attendances by emergency physicians         27

19AApplication of items 135 and 289                            28

20Application of items in Group A14 to certain patients only 28

21Meaning of health assessment in items 700, 702, 704 and 706       30

22Meaning of child health check in item 708                  31

22AMeaning of Healthy Kids Check in items 709 and 711    33

23Meaning of adult health check in item 710                  34

24Meaning of comprehensive medical assessment in item 712 36

24AMeaning of type 2 diabetes risk evaluation in item 713     37

25Meaning of health assessment in items 714 and 716     38

26Meaning of humanitarian visa holder in items 714 and 716 39

27Health checks of 45–49 year olds — item 717             39

29Limitation on items 721, 723, 725, 727, 729 and 731     43

30Meaning of GP management plan                           44

31Meaning of multidisciplinary discharge care plan          45

32Meaning of team care arrangements                        45

33Meaning of associated medical practitioner                46

34Meaning of review of plans                                   47

35Meaning of co‑ordinate a review of team care arrangements or of a multidisciplinary care plan                                                               47

36Meaning of contribute to a multidisciplinary care plan for items 729 and 731   49

37Service by certain medical practitioners — items 729 to 866  50

38Application of items in Group A15 to certain patients only 50

39Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference              52

40Meaning of multidisciplinary discharge case conference  52

41Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference in a residential aged care facility        52

42Meaning of multidisciplinary case conference team       53

43Meaning of organise and co‑ordinate in a multidisciplinary case conference and participation in a multidisciplinary case conference       54

44Meaning of co‑ordinate in item 880                          55

45Meaning of case conference team in item 880             55

46Application of item 880                                        56

47Meaning of living in a community setting in item 900      57

48Meaning of residential medication management review in item 903    57

49Meaning of amount under rule 49 in certain items         58

50Application of items 2497, 2501, 2503, 2504, 2506, 2507, 2509, 2598, 2600, 2603, 2606, 2610, 2613 and 2616                                          59

51Application of Subgroup 2 of Group A18 and Subgroup 2 of Group A19       59

52Application of Subgroup 3 of Group A18 and Subgroup 3 of Group A19       61

53Application of Group A24                                     62

54Meaning of expressions used in rules 55 to 57 and Group A20       62

55GP Mental Health Care Plans (Subgroup 1 of Group A20) 63

56Application of items in Subgroup 1 of Group A20          65

57Focussed psychological strategies                          66

58Application of Group A28                                     68

59Item 4001                                                       68

60Meaning of outer metropolitan specialist trainee in items 5906, 5908, 5910 and 5912  69

61Application of items 1 to 10943                               69

62Certain services may be provided by persons other than medical practitioners        70

63Application of items 5000 to 5267                            70

64Items 10809 and 10929 not to apply in certain circumstances         70

65Application of item 10988                                     71

66Application of item 10989                                     71

67Application of items 10990, 10991 and 10992             72

68Application of item 10993                                     74

69Application of items 10994 and 10995                      75

70Application of item 10996                                     76

72Application of items 10998 and 10999                      76

73Limitation on certain items                                    77

74Application of items 10900, 10940 and 10941             77

75Application of items 10931, 10932 and 10933             77

76Limitation of items 10943, 16590, 18360, 18364 and 50303 78

76AApplication of items 11000 to 12217 and 12500 to 12533 78

77Meaning of qualified sleep medicine practitioner           79

78Meaning of report in Group D1 — Miscellaneous diagnostic procedures and investigations                                                                   80

78AApplication of items 13020 to 51318                        80

79Meaning of treatment cycle of a patient                     80

80Items provided as part of treatment cycle relating to assisted reproductive services not to apply                                                             81

81Items relating to assisted reproductive services not to apply in certain pregnancy‑related circumstances                                                  81

82Meaning of embryology laboratory services in items 13200 and 13206        81

83Application of items 14227, 14230, 14233, 14236, 14239 and 14242  82

84Injection of immunomodulating agent                        82

85Meaning of amount under rule 86 in certain items         82

86Meaning of approved site in items 15338 and 37220     83

87Application of items 15556, 15559 and 15562             83

88Meaning of delivery in certain items                         84

89Meaning of amount under rule 89 in items 16633 and 16636  84

90Meaning of amount under rule 90 in items 18219 and 18227  84

91Injection of botulinum toxin                                    85

92Meaning of expressions used in rule 93 and item 16400  85

93Application of item 16400                                     86

94Group T10 applies only in connection with certain services 87

95Services specified in Subgroups 21 to 25 of Group T10   87

96Meaning of service time in Subgroups 21, 24, 25 and 26 of Group T10        87

97Application of Subgroup 21 of Group T10                   88

98Application of Subgroups 22 and 23 of Group T10        88

99Meaning of amount under rule 99 in items 25025, 25030 and 25050  88

100Application of Subgroups 24 and 25 of Group T10        89

101Meaning of complex paediatric case in item 25205       90

102Meaning of amount under rule 102 in items 25200 and 25205         90

103Group T8 services may be provided by a specialist trainee 90

104Meaning of amount under rule 104 in item 30001         91

105Histopathological proof of malignancy in certain cases for purposes of certain items relating to surgical procedures                                         91

106Meaning of amount under rule 106 in item 31340         91

108Meaning of qualified surgeon in items 31539 and 31545  92

109Meaning of qualified radiologist in item 31542             92

110Meaning of foreign body in items 35360 to 35363         92

111Application of items 35404, 35406 and 35408             92

112Application of items 30299 and 30300                      93

113Application of items 30440, 30451, 30492 and 30495    93

113AApplication of item 35321                                     93

114Application of item 35412                                     93

115Application of items 38365, 38368 and 38654             93

116Application of items 38470 to 38766                        94

117Meaning of amount under rule 117 in certain items       94

118Meaning of maxilla in certain items                          94

119Items 46300 to 46534 apply only in certain circumstances 94

120Assistance at operations                                      94

121Application of items 51700 to 53706                        95

122Meaning of amount under rule 122 in items 51303 and 51803         95

123Meaning of amount under rule 123 in item 51309         95

124Meaning of amount under rule 124 in item 51312         95

125Meaning of previous significant surgical complication in item 51318   96

126Cleft lip and cleft palate services                            96

127Meaning of (AD) in Group C2 — Oral and maxillofacial surgical services and Group C3 — General and prosthodontic services                         96

128Orthodontic services                                           96

129Oral surgery services                                          98

Part 3Services and fees                                              98

Part 4Non‑medicare services                                      555

Notes 556

1. Name of Regulations [see Note 1]

These Regulations are the Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2007.

1. Commencement

These Regulations commence on 1 November 2007.

1. Repeal

The Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2006 are repealed.

1. Definitions

In these Regulations:

Act means the Health Insurance Act 1973.

this table means the table of general medical services set out in Schedule 1.

1. General medical services table

The table of medical services (other than diagnostic imaging services and pathology services) set out in Schedule 1 is prescribed for subsection 4 (1) of the Act.

Schedule 1          Table of general medical services

(regulation 5)

Part 1           Prescription of table

1. Prescription of table

For section 4 of the Act, these Regulations prescribe a table of general medical services that sets out:

(a)in Part 2 — rules for interpretation of the table; and

(b)in Part 3:

(i)items of general medical services; and

(ii)the amount of fees applicable for each item; and

(c)in Part 4 — additional supporting information.

Part 2           Rules of interpretation

1. Application of table

An item in Part 3 does not apply to a service provided in contravention of a law of the Commonwealth or of a State or Territory.

1. General

(1)In this table, unless the contrary intention appears:

2004 General Medical Services Table

(or 2004 GMST) means the table prescribed for subsection 4 (1) of the Act by
the Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2004 as in force immediately before 1 November 2005.

ACRRM means the Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine.

after‑hours period means any of the following:

(a)a public holiday;

(b)a Sunday;

(c)before 8 am, or after 1 pm, on a Saturday;

(d)before 8 am, or after 8 pm, on any day other than a Saturday, Sunday or public holiday.

attendance of a minor nature or minor attendance, for an attendance on a patient by a consultant physician, means an attendance that:

(a)is a second or subsequent attendance on the patient, in the course of a single course of treatment by the consultant physician, during which it is not necessary for the consultant physician to carry out a physical examination of the patient; and

(b)does not result in a substantial alteration to the treatment of the patient.

closed reduction means treatment of a dislocation or fracture by non‑operative reduction, including the use of percutaneous fixation, or external splintage by cast or splints.

comprehensive hyperbaric medicine facility means a separate hospital area that, on a 24‑hour basis:

(a)is equipped and staffed so that it is capable of providing to a patient:

(i)hyperbaric oxygen therapy at a treatment pressure of at least 2.8 atmospheric pressure absolute (180 kilopascal gauge pressure); and

(ii)mechanical ventilation and invasive cardiovascular monitoring within a monoplace or multiplace chamber for the duration of the hyperbaric treatment; and

(b)is under the direction of at least 1 practitioner who is rostered, and immediately available, to the facility during normal working hours and who:

(i)is a specialist with training in diving and hyperbaric medicine; or

(ii)holds a Diploma of Diving and Hyperbaric Medicine of the South Pacific Underwater Medicine Society; and

(c)is staffed by:

(i)at least 1 medical practitioner with training in diving and hyperbaric medicine who is present in the facility and immediately available at all times when patients are being treated at the facility; and

(ii)at least 1 registered nurse with specific training in hyperbaric patient care to the published standards of the Hyperbaric Technicians and Nurses Association, who is present during hyperbaric oxygen therapy; and

(d)has admission and discharge policies in operation.

general intensive care unit means a separate hospital area that:

(a)is equipped and staffed so that it is capable of providing to a patient:

(i)mechanical ventilation for a period of several days; and

(ii)invasive cardiovascular monitoring; and

(b)is supported by:

(i)during normal working hours — at least 1 specialist, or consultant physician, in the specialty of intensive care, who is immediately available, and exclusively rostered, to that area; and

(ii)at all times — at least 1 registered medical practitioner who is present in the hospital and immediately available to that area; and

(iii)at least 18 hours each day — at least 1 registered nurse; and

(c)has admission and discharge policies in operation.

general practitioner means:

(a)a practitioner who is vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act; or

(b)a practitioner who:

(i)is a Fellow of the RACGP; and

(ii)participates in the quality assurance and continuing medical education program of the RACGP; and

(iii)meets the RACGP requirements for quality assurance and continuing education; or

(c)a practitioner in relation to whom a determination is in force under regulation 6DA of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975 recognising that he or she meets the fellowship standards of the ACRRM; or

(d)a practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice that is approved by the RACGP:

(i)as part of a training program for general practice leading to the award of Fellowship of the RACGP; or

(ii)as part of another training program recognised by the RACGP as being of an equivalent standard; or

(iii)as part of the Rural and Remote Area Placement Program administered by the Australian College of Rural and Remote Medicine; or

(e)an eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner; or

(f)a practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice as part of the Pre‑vocational General Practice Placements Program administered by the ACRRM, RACGP or GPET; or

(g)a practitioner who is undertaking a placement in general practice as part of the Remote Vocational Training Scheme administered by Remote Vocational Training Scheme Limited.

GPET means the body registered under the Corporations Act 2001 as General Practice Education and Training Limited (ACN 095 433 140).

institution means a place (other than a hospital or residential aged care facility) at which residential accommodation or day care is, or both residential accommodation and day care are, made available to:

(a)disadvantaged children; or

(b)juvenile offenders; or

(c)aged persons; or

(d)chronically ill psychiatric patients; or

(e)homeless persons; or

(f)unemployed persons; or

(g)persons suffering from alcoholism; or

(h)persons addicted to drugs; or

(i)physically or intellectually disabled persons.

intensive care unit means a general intensive care unit or a neo‑natal intensive care unit.

item means:

(a)an item mentioned, by number, in column 1 of:

(i)Part 3; or

(ii)Part 3 of the diagnostic imaging services table; or

(iii)Part 3 of the pathology services table; and

(b)in a reference immediately followed by a number — the item so numbered.

Example

A reference (if any) by number to item 55028 is a reference to the item so numbered in the diagnostic imaging services table.

Note   Because of the Health Insurance (Allied Health Services) Determination 2007, certain health services are treated as if there were an item in this table, the diagnostic imaging services table or the pathology services table relating to that health service. A reference in this table to such an item is followed by an asterisk, with a note at the foot of the provision explaining what the asterisk means. (See rule 55 for an example.)

neo‑natal intensive care unit means a separate hospital area that:

(a)is equipped and staffed so that it is capable of providing to a patient who is a newly born child:

(i)mechanical ventilation for a period of several days; and

(ii)invasive cardiovascular monitoring; and

(b)is supported by:

(i)during normal working hours — at least 1 consultant physician in paediatric medicine who is immediately available, and exclusively rostered, to that area; and

(ii)at all times — at least 1 registered medical practitioner who is present in the hospital and immediately available to that area; and

(iii)at least 18 hours each day — at least 1 registered nurse; and

(c)has admission and discharge policies in operation.

open reduction means treatment of a dislocation or fracture by either:

(a)operative exposure, including the use of any internal or external fixation; or

(b)non‑operative (closed) reduction using intra‑medullary fixation or external fixation.

patient’s usual medical practitioner means a medical practitioner:

(a)who has provided the majority of services to the patient in the past 12 months; or

(b)who is likely to provide the majority of services to the patient in the following 12 months; or

(c)located at a medical practice that:

(i)has provided the majority of services to the patient in the past 12 months; or

(ii)is likely to provide the majority of services to the patient in the next 12 months.

practice nurse means a registered or an enrolled nurse who is employed by, or whose services are otherwise retained by, a general practice.

RACGP means the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners.

referring practitioner, for the referral of a patient, means:

(a)for all referrals — a medical practitioner; and

(b)for a referral made to a specialist who is an ophthalmologist — an optometrist; and

(c)for a referral that arises out of a dental service provided by a dental practitioner and that is made to a specialist (but not a consultant physician) — a dental practitioner; and

(d)for a referral that arises out of a dental service provided by a dental practitioner who is approved by the Minister for the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of professional service in subsection 3 (1) of the Act and that is made to a consultant physician — a dental practitioner.

registered Aboriginal health worker means a person registered as an Aboriginal health worker under the Health Practitioners Act (NT) who is employed by, or whose services are otherwise retained by, a general practice or health service in the Northern Territory in relation to which the Minister has made a direction under subsection 19 (2) of the Act.

residential aged care facility means a facility where residential care (within the meaning given by section 41‑3 of the Aged Care Act 1997) is provided.

Rural, Remote and Metropolitan Areas Classification means the document so titled, as in force on 1 January 2001, setting out certain categories of areas in Australia that have been determined by the Department by reference to population size and remoteness of locality on the basis of 1991 census data published by the Australian Bureau of Statistics in 1994.

unsociable hours means between 11 pm and 7 am on any day.

(2)A reference to a Group in the table includes every item in the Group, and a reference to a Subgroup in the table includes every item in the Subgroup.

(3)A reference in the table to an eligible non‑vocationally recognised medical practitioner is a reference to:

(a)a medical practitioner (including an overseas trained practitioner or a temporary resident medical practitioner) who:

(i)is registered as a medical practitioner under the Rural Other Medical Practitioners’ Program; and

(ii)is providing general medical services in accordance with that Program; or

(b)a medical practitioner who:

(i)is registered as a medical practitioner under the Outer Metropolitan (Other Medical Practitioners) Relocation Incentive Program; and

(ii)is providing general medical services in accordance with that Program; and

(iii)is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act, but is required under that Program to undertake additional training or other activities:

(A)that could enable vocational registration within 4 years or, on written application, 5 years, after commencing the training or other activities; and

(B)of which the Medicare Australia CEO has written notice; or

(c)a medical practitioner who:

(i)is registered as a medical practitioner under the MedicarePlus for Other Medical Practitioners Program; and

(ii)is providing general medical services in accordance with that Program; and

(iii)is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act; or

(d)a medical practitioner who:

(i)is registered as a medical practitioner under the After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program; and

(ii)is providing general medical services in accordance with that Program; and

(iii)is not vocationally registered under section 3F of the Act.

(4)For subrule (3):

(a)the Rural Other Medical Practitioners’ Program is a program administered by the Medicare Australia CEO that, in relation to medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits; and

(b)the Outer Metropolitan (Other Medical Practitioners) Relocation Incentive Program is a program administered by the Department that, in relation to medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits; and

(c)the MedicarePlus for Other Medical Practitioners Program is a program administered by the Medicare Australia CEO that, in relation to medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits; and

(d)the After Hours Other Medical Practitioners Program is a program administered by the Medicare Australia CEO that, in relation to medical services provided in accordance with the Program, provides a particular level of medicare benefits.

1. Meaning of symbols (S) and (G)

(1)An item including the symbol (S) applies only to a service performed by a specialist (and not to a service performed by a consultant physician) in the practice of his or her specialty, being:

(a)a service that:

(i)is provided to a patient who has been referred to the specialist; and

(ii)is the first service performed by the specialist in accordance with the referral; or

(b)a service that:

(i)is provided to a patient who has been referred to the specialist; and

(ii)is part of a single course of treatment given for the condition identified in the referral or, if no condition was identified in the referral, part of a single course of treatment for the condition identified by the specialist; and

(iii)is provided within the period of validity of the referral that is applicable under regulation 31 of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975; or

(c)a service that:

(i)is provided to a patient who has declared that a written referral completed by a named referring practitioner has been lost, stolen or destroyed before the service was provided; and

(ii)is the first service performed by the specialist in accordance with the referral; or

(d)a service that:

(i)is provided to a patient who has not been referred to the specialist; and

(ii)is a service that, in an emergency within the meaning of subregulation 30 (5) of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975, the specialist decides is necessary in the patient’s interests to be provided as soon as practicable without a referral.

(2)An item including the symbol (G) applies only to a service provided otherwise than by a specialist in accordance with subrule (1).

1. Meaning of symbol (H)

An item including the symbol (H) applies only to a service performed or provided in a hospital.

1. Meaning of a patient’s medical condition requires urgent treatment and responsible person in certain items

(1)For items 1, 2, 97, 98, 448, 449, 601, 602, 697 and 698, a patient’s medical condition requires urgent treatment if:

(a)medical opinion is to the effect that the patient’s medical condition requires treatment within the unbroken after‑hours period in, or before, which the attendance mentioned in the item was requested; and

(b)treatment could not be delayed until the start of the next in‑hours period.

(2)For subrule (1), medical opinion is to a particular effect if:

(a)the attending practitioner is of that opinion; and

(b)in the circumstances that existed and on the information available when the opinion was formed, that opinion would be acceptable to the general body of medical practitioners.

(3)For items 1, 2, 97, 98, 448, 449, 601, 602, 697 and 698:

responsible person, for a patient:

(a)includes a spouse, parent, carer or guardian of the patient; and

(b)does not include:

(i)the attending medical practitioner; or

(ii)an employee of the attending medical practitioner; or

(iii)a person contracted by, or an employee or member of, the general practice of which the attending medical practitioner is a contractor, employee or member; or

(iv)a call centre; or

(v)a reception service.

1. Application of items 2, 98, 448, 449, 602 and 698

Items 2, 98, 448, 449, 602 and 698 do not apply to a service provided by a medical practitioner:

(a)who routinely provides services to patients in after‑hours periods at consulting rooms; or

(b)who provides the service (as a contractor, employee, member or otherwise) for a general practice or clinic that routinely provides services to patients in after‑hours periods at consulting rooms.

1. Meaning of single course of treatment in certain circumstances

(1)In subrules 3 (1), 4 (1) and 8 (1) and items 104, 105, 106, 107, 108, 109, 110, 116, 119, 122, 128, 131, 133, 385, 386, 387, 388, 2801, 2806, 2814, 2824, 2832, 2840, 3005, 3010, 3014, 3018, 3023, 3028, 6007, 6009, 6011, 6013 and 6015, single course of treatment, in relation to a patient, includes:

(a)the initial attendance on the patient by a specialist or consultant physician; and

(b)the continuing management or treatment up to and including the stage when the patient is referred back to the care of the referring practitioner; and

(c)any subsequent review of the patient’s condition by the specialist or consultant physician that may be necessary, whether the review is initiated by the referring practitioner or by the specialist or consultant physician.

(2)For subrule (1), single course of treatment does not include treatment of an unrelated illness that requires referral of the patient to the specialist’s or consultant physician’s care.

(3)For subrule (1), an attendance (the later attendance) on the patient by the specialist or consultant physician, after the end of the period of validity of the last referral to have application under regulation 31 of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975, initiates a new course of treatment if:

(a)the referring practitioner considers the later attendance necessary for the patient’s condition to be reviewed; and

(b)the patient was most recently attended by the specialist or consultant physician more than 9 months before the later attendance.

1. Meaning of professional attendance in certain items

(1)In items 1 to 338, 348 to 388, 410 to 417, 501 to 536, 601, 602, 697, 698, 700 to 799, 900 to 903, 2501 to 2727, 2801 to 2840, 3005 to 3028, 5000 to 5267, 6007 to 6015, 10900 to 10929 and 17610 to 17680, professional attendance includes (but is not limited to) the provision, in relation to a patient, of any of the following services:

(a)the evaluation of the patient’s condition or conditions including, if applicable, evaluation using a health screening service mentioned in subsection 19 (5) of the Act;

(b)the formulation of a plan for the management and, if applicable, for the treatment of the patient’s condition or conditions;

(c)the provision of advice to the patient about the patient’s condition or conditions and, if applicable, about treatment;

(d)if authorised by the patient, the provision of advice to another person, or other persons, about the patient’s condition or conditions and, if applicable, about treatment;

(e)the recording of the clinical details of the service or services provided to the patient.

(2)If:

(a)in connection with a professional attendance mentioned in any of items 3 to 96 and 5000 to 5267, vaccine is supplied to a patient; and

(b)the cost of the vaccine is not subsidised by the Commonwealth or a State;

the professional attendance is taken not to include that supply.

1. Interpretation of items 104 to 147, 289 to 388, 2801 to 2840, 3005 to 3028, 6007 to 6015, 17640, 17645, 17650 and 17655

(1)In items 104 to 147, 289 to 388, 2801 to 2840, 3005 to 3028, 6007 to 6015, 17640, 17645, 17650 and 17655 a reference to an attendance on a patient by a specialist, or consultant physician, in the practice of his or her specialty following referral of the patient to him or her:

(a)includes such an attendance on a patient who:

(i)has declared that a written referral of the patient was completed by a medical practitioner; or

(ii)in an emergency (within the meaning of subregulation 30 (5) of the Health Insurance Regulations 1975) has not been referred to the specialist, or consultant physician, if the specialist or consultant physician decides that it is necessary in the patient’s interests to provide the service mentioned in the item as soon as practicable without a referral; but

(b)does not include such an attendance if:

(i)the attendance forms part of a single course of treatment in which the first service was provided more than 12 months (or such other period, if any, set by the referring practitioner in, or in connection with, the referral) before the attendance; and

(ii)a later referral has not been made.

(2)For this rule, referral means referral by a referring practitioner.

1. Meaning of amount under rule 11 in certain items

In this table:

amount under rule 11, for an item mentioned in the following table, means the sum of:

(a)the fee mentioned in column 3 for the item; and

(b)either:

(i)if not more than 6 patients are attended at a single attendance — the amount mentioned in column 4 for the item, divided by the number of patients attended; or

(ii)if more than 6 patients are attended at a single attendance — the amount mentioned in column 5 for the item.

Item	Items of this table	Fee	Amount if not more than 6 patients (to be divided by the number of patients)	Amount if more than 6 patients
1	4, 13, 19	The fee for item 3	$22.95	$1.70
2	20	The fee for item 3	$41.35	$3.00
3	24, 25, 33	The fee for item 23	$22.95	$1.70
4	35	The fee for item 23	$41.35	$3.00
5	37, 38, 40	The fee for item 36	$22.95	$1.70
6	43	The fee for item 36	$41.35	$3.00
7	47, 48, 50	The fee for item 44	$22.95	$1.70
8	51	The fee for item 44	$41.35	$3.00
9	58, 81, 87	$8.50	$15.50	$0.70
10	59, 83, 89, 2610, 2631, 2673	$16.00	$17.50	$0.70
11	60, 84, 90, 2613, 2633, 2675, 2707	$35.50	$15.50	$0.70
12	65, 86, 91, 2616, 2635, 2677, 2708	$57.50	$15.50	$0.70
13	92	$8.50	$27.95	$1.25
14	93	$16.00	$31.55	$1.25
15	95	$35.50	$27.95	$1.25
16	96	$57.50	$27.95	$1.25
17	195	The fee for item 193	$22.95	$1.70
18	414	The fee for item 410	$22.95	$1.70
19	415	The fee for item 411	$22.95	$1.70
20	416	The fee for item 412	$22.95	$1.70
21	417	The fee for item 413	$22.95	$1.70
22	716	The fee for item 714	$22.95	$1.70
23	5003, 5007	The fee for item 5000	$22.95	$1.70
24	5010	The fee for item 5000	$41.35	$3.00
25	5023, 5026	The fee for item 5020	$22.95	$1.70
26	5028	The fee for item 5020	$41.35	$3.00
27	5043, 5046	The fee for item 5040	$22.95	$1.70
28	5049	The fee for item 5040	$41.35	$3.00
29	5063, 5064	The fee for item 5060	$22.95	$1.70
30	5067	The fee for item 5060	$41.35	$3.00
31	5220, 5240	$18.50	$15.50	$0.70
32	5223, 5243	$26.00	$17.50	$0.70
33	5227, 5247	$45.50	$15.50	$0.70
34	5228, 5248	$67.50	$15.50	$0.70
35	5260	$18.50	$27.95	$1.25
36	5263	$26.00	$31.55	$1.25
37	5265	$45.50	$27.95	$1.25
38	5267	$67.50	$27.95	$1.25

1. Personal attendance by medical practitioners generally

(1)The items mentioned in subrule (2) apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single medical practitioner on a single patient on a single occasion.

(2)The items are items 1 to 164, 173 to 338, 348 to 698, 2497 to 10816, 2713, 6007 to 6015, 11012, 11015, 11018, 11021, 11212, 11304, 11500, 11600, 11627, 11701, 11712, 11724, 11921, 12000, 12003, 12201, 13030, 13100, 13103, 13104, 13106, 13109, 13110, 13112, 13209, 13290, 13292, 13300, 13303, 13306, 13309, 13312, 13318, 13319, 13400, 13500, 13503, 13506, 13700, 13815, 13818, 13830, 13839, 13842, 13847, 13848, 13851, 13854, 13857, 13870, 13873, 13876, 13881, 13882, 13885, 13888, 14100, 14106, 14109, 14112, 14115, 14118, 14124, 14200, 14203, 14206, 14209, 14212, 14215, 14224, 15600, 16003 to 16512 and 16515 to 51318.

(3)Items 170, 171, 172, 342, 344 and 346 apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by a single medical practitioner.

(4)Items 700 to 727, 900, 903, 2710 and 2712 apply only to a service provided in the course of personal attendance by a single medical practitioner on a single patient.

(5)For this rule, each of the following is taken to be personal attendance by the medical practitioner on a patient:

(a)an attendance by a medical practitioner on a patient by way of a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 361 applies;

(b)an attendance by a medical practitioner on a patient in relation to the planning, management and supervision of the patient on home dialysis to which item 13104 applies.

1. Personal attendance by certain medical practitioners

(1)The items mentioned in subrule (3) apply only to a service provided in the course of a personal attendance by:

(a)a medical practitioner (other than a medical practitioner employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital); or

(b)a medical practitioner who:

(i)is employed by the proprietor of a hospital that is not a private hospital; and

(ii)provides the service otherwise than in the course of employment by that proprietor.

(2)Paragraph (1) (b) applies whether or not another person provides essential assistance to the medical practitioner in accordance with accepted medical practice.

(3)The items are items 1 to 727, 900 to 10816, 2710, 2712, 2713, 6007 to 6015, 11012, 11015, 11018, 11021, 11212, 11304, 11500, 11600, 11627, 11701, 11712, 11722, 11724, 11820, 11921, 12000, 12003, 12201, 13030, 13100, 13103, 13104, 13106, 13109, 13110, 13112, 13209, 13290, 13292, 13300, 13303, 13306, 13309, 13312, 13318, 13319, 13400, 13500, 13503, 13506, 13700, 13815, 13818, 13830, 13839, 13842, 13847, 13848, 13851, 13854, 13857, 13870, 13873, 13876, 13881, 13882, 13885, 13888, 14100, 14106, 14109, 14112, 14115, 14118, 14124, 14200, 14203, 14206, 14209, 14212, 14215, 14224, 15600, 16003 to 16512, 16515 to 16573 and 16600 to 51318.

(4)For this rule, each of the following is taken to be personal attendance by the medical practitioner on a patient:

(a)an attendance by a medical practitioner on a patient by way of a telepsychiatry consultation to which any of items 353 to 361 applies;

(b)an attendance by a medical practitioner on a patient in relation to the planning, management and supervision of the patient on home dialysis to which item 13104 applies.

1. Meaning of qualified medical acupuncturist in items 193, 195, 197 and 199

For items 193, 195, 197 and 199, a person is a qualified medical acupuncturist if:

(a)the person is a general practitioner; and

(b)the Medicare Australia CEO has received a written notice from the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners stating that the person meets the skills requirements for providing services to which the items apply.

1. Restriction of telepsychiatry consultations to rural and remote areas

Each of items 353 to 361 applies only to a consultation that is provided to a patient located in an R1, R2, R3, Rem1 or Rem2 area within the meaning of the Rural, Remote and Metropolitan Areas Classification.

1. Consultant occupational physicians

A fee specified for an attendance by a consultant occupational physician applies only if the attendance relates to 1 or more of the following matters:

(a)evaluation and assessment of a patient’s rehabilitation requirements when, in the consultant’s opinion, the patient has an accepted medical condition that:

(i)may be affected by the patient’s working environment; or

(ii)affects the patient’s capacity to be employed;

(b)management of an accepted medical condition that, in the consultant’s opinion, may affect a patient’s capacity for continued employment, or return to employment, following a non‑compensable accident, injury or ill‑health;

(c)evaluation and forming an opinion, including management as the case requires, of a patient’s medical condition when causation may be related to acute or chronic exposure to scientifically acknowledged environmental hazards or toxins.

1. Public health physicians

Items 410 to 417 apply to an attendance on a patient by a public health physician only if the attendance relates to 1 or more of the following matters:

(a)management of a patient’s vaccination requirements for immunisation programs;

(b)prevention or management of sexually transmitted disease;

(c)prevention or management of disease caused by scientifically accepted environmental hazards or toxins;

(d)prevention or management of infection arising from an outbreak of an infectious disease;

(e)prevention or management of an exotic disease.

Note   An exotic disease is medically accepted as a disease that is of foreign origin.

1. Meaning of recognised emergency department and problem focussed history in Group A21

(1)In Group A21, recognised emergency department, of a private hospital, means a department of the hospital that is licensed, under a law of the State or Territory in which the hospital is located, to operate as an emergency department.

(2)In items 501, 503 and 507, problem focussed history means a history focussing on the medical condition of the patient that necessitates the patient presenting for emergency attention.

1. Prolonged attendances by emergency physicians

In items 519 to 536, an attendance for emergency evaluation of a critically ill patient with an immediately life threatening problem means an attendance that requires:

(a)immediate and rapid assessment; and

(b)initiation of resuscitation and electronic monitoring of vital signs; and

(c)taking a comprehensive history and evaluation while undertaking resuscitative measures; and

(d)ordering and evaluation of appropriate investigations; and

(e)transitional evaluation and monitoring; and

(f)formulation and documentation of a diagnosis and management plan in relation to 1 or more problems; and

(g)initiation of appropriate treatment interventions; and

(h)liaison with relevant health care professionals and discussion with, as appropriate, the patient or the patient’s relatives or agent.

19AApplication of items 135 and 289

(1)A service described in item 135 applies only once to a patient and only if the patient has not received a service described in item 289.

(2)A service described in item 289 applies only once to a patient and only if the patient has not received a service described in item 135.

1. Application of items in Group A14 to certain patients only

(1)Items 700, 702, 704 and 706 apply only to a service for a patient who:

(a)is either:

(i)at least 75 years old; or

(ii)at least 55 years old and of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent; and

(b)is not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility.

(1A)Items 709 and 711 apply only to a service for a patient who:

(a)is a child in Australia who is 4 years old; and

(b)is receiving or has received the immunisation recommended for a 4 year old child by the National Immunisation Program Schedule (valid from 1 July 2007), a Department of Health and Ageing document.

(1B)A service described in item 709 applies only once to a patient and only if the patient has not received a service described in item 711.

(1C)A service described in item 711 applies only once to a patient and only if the patient has not received a service described in item 709.

(2)Item 710 applies only to a service for a patient who is:

(a)of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent; and

(b)at least 15 years old and less than 55 years old; and

(c)not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility.

(2A)Item 713 applies only to a service for a patient who:

(a)is at least 40 years old and less than 50 years old; and

(b)has a high risk of developing type 2 diabetes as determined by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool; and

(c)is not an in‑patient of a hospital or an approved day hospital facility.

(2B)In subrule (2A) and item 713, Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool means the type 2 diabetes risk assessment developed by the International Diabetes Institute on behalf of the Council of Australian Government’s ‘Reducing the risk of type 2 diabetes’ initiative.

(3)Item 714 applies only to a service for a patient who:

(a)has been a humanitarian visa holder for less than 12 months at the time of the service; or

(b)first entered Australia less than 12 months before the service.

(4)Item 716 applies only to a service in relation to a patient who:

(a)is a person who:

(i)has been a humanitarian visa holder for less than 12 months at the time of the service; or

(ii)first entered Australia less than 12 months before the service; and

(b)is not an in‑patient of a hospital or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility.

(5)Items 718 and 719 apply only to a service for a patient who:

(a)has an intellectual disability; and

(b)is not an in‑patient of a hospital or an approved day hospital facility, or a care recipient in a residential aged care facility.

(6)For items 704, 706, 708 and 710, a person is of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent if the person identifies himself or herself as being of that descent.

(7)For items 718 and 719, a person has an intellectual disability if he or she:

(a)has general intellectual functioning at 2 standard deviations below the average intelligence quotient; and

(b)would benefit from assistance with daily living activities.

1. Meaning of health assessment in items 700, 702, 704 and 706

(1)For items 700, 702, 704 and 706, health assessment means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function; and

(b)whether preventative health care and education should be offered to the patient, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.

(2)A health assessment involves all of the following:

(a)a personal attendance by the medical practitioner;

(b)measurement of the patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and rhythm;

(c)an assessment of the patient’s medication;

(d)an assessment of the patient’s continence;

(e)an assessment of the patient’s immunisation status for influenza, tetanus and pneumococcus;

(f)an assessment of the patient’s physical functions, including the patient’s activities of daily living and whether or not the patient has had a fall in the last 3 months;

(g)an assessment of the patient’s psychological function, including the patient’s cognition and mood;

(h)an assessment of the patient’s social function, including:

(i)the availability and adequacy of paid, and unpaid, help; and

(ii)whether the patient is responsible for caring for another person.

(3)A health assessment also includes:

(a)keeping a record of the health assessment; and

(b)offering the patient a written report about the health assessment, with recommendations about matters covered by the health assessment; and

(c)offering the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report relevant to the carer.

1. Meaning of child health check in item 708

(1)For item 708, a child health check means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function; and

(b)whether preventative health care, education and other assistance should be offered to the patient, or the patient’s parent or carer, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.

(2)A child health check of a patient involves all of the following:

(a)a personal attendance by a medical practitioner;

(b)taking the patient’s medical history, including the following:

(i)mother’s pregnancy history;

(ii)birth and neo‑natal history;

(iii)breastfeeding history;

(iv)weaning, food access and dietary history;

(v)physical activity;

(vi)previous presentations, hospital admissions and medication usage;

(vii)relevant family medical history;

(viii)immunisation status;

(ix)vision and hearing (including neonatal hearing screening);

(x)development (including achievement of age appropriate milestones);

(xi)family relationships, social circumstances and whether the person is cared for by another person;

(xii)exposure to environmental factors (including tobacco smoke);

(xiii)environmental and living conditions;

(xiv)educational progress;

(xv)stressful life events;

(xvi)mood (including incidence of depression and risk of self‑harm);

(xvii)substance use;

(xviii)sexual and reproductive health;

(xix)dental hygiene (including access to dental services);

(c)examination of the patient, including the following:

(i)measurement of height and weight to calculate body mass index and position on the growth curve;

(ii)newborn baby check (if not previously completed);

(iii)vision (including red reflex in a newborn);

(iv)ear examination (including otoscopy);

(v)oral examination (including gums and dentition);

(vi)trachoma check, if indicated;

(vii)skin examination, if indicated;

(viii)respiratory examination, if indicated;

(ix)cardiac auscultation, if indicated;

(x)development assessment, if indicated, to determine whether age appropriate milestones have been achieved;

(xi)assessment of parent and child interaction, if indicated;

(xii)other examinations:

(A)in accordance with national or regional guidelines or specific regional needs; or

(B)as indicated by a previous child health assessment;

(d)undertaking or arranging any required investigation, considering the need for the following tests, in particular:

(i)haemoglobin testing for those at a high risk of anaemia;

(ii)audiometry, if required, especially for those of school age;

(e)assessing the patient using the information gained in the child health check;

(f)making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals, and documenting a simple strategy for the good health of the patient.

(3)A child health check also includes:

(a)keeping a record of the child health check; and

(b)offering the patient, or the patient’s parent or carer, a written report about the health check, with recommendations about matters covered by the health check (including a simple strategy for the good health of the patient).

22AMeaning of Healthy Kids Check in items 709 and 711

(1)In this rule and items 709 and 711:

Healthy Kids Check means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s physical health, general wellbeing and development; and

(b)whether any medical intervention is required.

(2)A Healthy Kids Check should generally be undertaken by a patient’s usual medical practitioner, but may also be undertaken by any medical practitioner (including a general practitioner) or by a practice nurse on behalf of a medical practitioner.

(3)If a practice nurse who undertakes a Healthy Kids Check identifies any problems because of the Healthy Kids Check, the patient must be reviewed by the patient’s usual medical practitioner who will arrange referrals and follow‑up as required.

(4)A Healthy Kids Check must include the following basic physical examinations and assessments:

(a)height and weight (plot and interpret growth curve, and calculate BMI);

(b)eyesight;

(c)hearing;

(d)oral health (teeth and gums);

(e)toileting;

(f)allergies.

(5)A Healthy Kids Check must also include the following:

(a)information collection, including taking a patient history and undertaking examinations and investigations as required;

(b)making an overall assessment of the patient;

(c)initiating interventions or referrals as appropriate;

(d)providing health advice and information to the patient’s parent or carer, using a healthy habits for life guide, a publication of the Department of Health and Ageing, and other relevant information such as a parent‑held child health record.

(6)The medical practitioner or practice nurse must:

(a)note if a copy of a healthy habits for life guide has been provided by Medicare Australia to the patient; and

(b)record evidence that the immunisation recommended for a 4 year old child has been given to the patient.

1. Meaning of adult health check in item 710

(1)For item 710, an adult health check means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function; and

(b)whether preventative health care, education and other assistance should be offered to that patient, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.

(2)An adult health check of a patient involves all of the following:

(a)a personal attendance by a medical practitioner;

(b)taking the patient’s medical history, including the following:

(i)current health problems and risk factors;

(ii)relevant family medical history;

(iii)medication usage (including medication obtained without prescription or from other doctors);

(iv)immunisation status, by reference to the appropriate current age and sex immunisation schedule;

(v)sexual and reproductive health;

(vi)physical activity, nutrition and alcohol, tobacco or other substance use;

(vii)hearing loss;

(viii)mood (including incidence of depression and risk of self‑harm);

(ix)family relationships and whether the patient is a carer, or is cared for by another person;

(c)examination of the patient, including the following:

(i)measurement of the patient’s blood pressure, pulse rate and rhythm;

(ii)measurement of height and weight to calculate body mass index and, if indicated, measurement of waist circumference for central obesity;

(iii)oral examination (including gums and dentition);

(iv)ear and hearing examination (including otoscopy and, if indicated, a whisper test);

(v)urinalysis (by dipstick) for proteinurea;

(d)undertaking or arranging any required investigation, considering the need for the following tests, in particular, (in accordance with national or regional guidelines or specific regional needs):

(i)fasting blood sugar and lipids (by laboratory based test on venous sample) or, if necessary, random blood glucose levels;

(ii)pap smear;

(iii)examination for sexually transmitted infection (by urine or endocervical swab for chlamydia and gonorrhoea, especially for those aged from 15 to 35 years);

(iv)mammography, if eligible (by scheduling appointments with visiting services or facilitating direct referral);

(e)assessing the patient using the information gained in the adult health check;

(f)making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals, and documenting a simple strategy for the good health of the patient.

(3)An adult health check also includes:

(a)keeping a record of the adult health check; and

(b)offering the patient a written report about the health check, with recommendations about matters covered by the health check (including a simple strategy for the good health of the patient).

1. Meaning of comprehensive medical assessment in item 712

(1)For item 712, a comprehensive medical assessment of a resident of a residential aged care facility is a full systems review of the resident, including an assessment of the resident’s health and physical and psychological function.

(2)A comprehensive medical assessment involves all of the following:

(a)a personal attendance by a medical practitioner;

(b)taking a detailed relevant medical history;

(c)conducting a comprehensive medical examination of the resident;

(d)developing a list of diagnoses and medical problems based on the medical history and examination;

(e)providing, for the resident’s records, a written summary of the outcomes of the assessment to inform the provision of care for the resident and to assist in the provision of medication management review services for the resident.

(3)A comprehensive medical assessment also includes:

(a)making a written summary of the comprehensive medical assessment; and

(b)providing a copy of the summary to the residential aged care facility; and

(c)offering the resident a copy of the summary or relevant parts of the summary.

24AMeaning of type 2 diabetes risk evaluation in item 713

(1)For item 713, a type 2 diabetes risk evaluation means:

(a)a review of the risk factors underlying a patient’s high risk score as identified by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool; and

(b)initiating interventions, if appropriate, to address risk factors or exclusion of diabetes.

(2)For subrule (1), risk factors include the following:

(a)lifestyle risk factors, such as smoking, physical inactivity and poor nutrition;

(b)biomedical risk factors, such as high blood pressure, impaired glucose metabolism and excess weight;

(c)a family history of a chronic disease.

(3)The type 2 diabetes risk evaluation must include the following:

(a)evaluating a patient’s high risk score, as determined by the Australian Type 2 Diabetes Risk Assessment Tool which has been completed by the patient within a period of 3 months prior to undertaking the type 2 diabetes risk evaluation;

(b)updating the patient’s history and undertaking physical examinations and clinical investigations in accordance with relevant guidelines;

(c)making an overall assessment of the patient’s risk factors and of the results of relevant examinations and investigations;

(d)initiating interventions, if appropriate, including referrals and follow‑up relating to the management of any risk factors identified;

(e)providing the patient with advice and information (such as the Lifescript resources produced by the Department of Health and Ageing), including strategies to achieve lifestyle and behaviour changes if appropriate.

(4)The type 2 diabetes risk evaluation should generally be undertaken by the patient’s usual medical practitioner.

(5)The medical practitioner providing the service mentioned in item 713 is responsible for the overall conduct of the type 2 diabetes risk evaluation provided to the patient.

(6)Elements of the type 2 diabetes risk evaluation may be delegated by the medical practitioner providing the service mentioned in item 713 to a practice nurse, a registered Aboriginal health worker or other qualified health professional, in accordance with accepted medical practice and under the supervision of the medical practitioner.

1. Meaning of health assessment in items 714 and 716

(1)In items 714 and 716, health assessment means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s health and physical, psychological and social function; and

(b)whether preventative health care and education should be offered to the patient, to improve the patient’s health and physical, psychological or social function.

(2)A health assessment involves all of the following:

(a)a personal attendance by a medical practitioner;

(b)taking the patient’s medical history;

(c)examination of the patient;

(d)undertaking or arranging any required investigations;

(e)assessing the patient using the information gained in paragraphs (b) to (d);

(f)developing a management plan addressing the patient’s health care needs, health problems and relevant conditions;

(g)making or arranging any necessary interventions and referrals.

(3)A health assessment also includes:

(a)keeping a record of the health assessment; and

(b)offering the patient a written report about the health assessment.

1. Meaning of humanitarian visa holder in items 714 and 716

In items 714 and 716:

humanitarian visa holder means a person who is the holder of a visa of any of the following subclasses granted under the Migration Act 1958:

(a)Subclass 200 (Refugee) visa;

(b)Subclass 201 (In‑country Special Humanitarian) visa;

(c)Subclass 202 (Global Special Humanitarian) visa;

(d)Subclass 203 (Emergency Rescue) visa;

(e)Subclass 204 (Woman at Risk) visa;

(f)Subclass 447 (Secondary Movement Offshore Entry (Temporary)) visa;

(g)Subclass 451 (Secondary Movement Relocation (Temporary)) visa;

(h)Subclass 785 (Temporary Protection) visa;

(i)Subclass 786 (Temporary (Humanitarian Concern)) visa;

(j)Subclass 866 (Protection) visa.

1. Health checks of 45–49 year olds — item 717

(1)For item 717, a patient is at risk of developing a chronic disease if, in the clinical judgement of the attending medical practitioner, based on the identification of a specific risk factor, the patient is at risk of developing a chronic disease.

(2)For subrule (1), specific risk factors include (but are not limited to):

(a)lifestyle risk factors, such as smoking, physical inactivity, poor nutrition or alcohol misuse; and

(b)biomedical risk factors, such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, impaired glucose metabolism or excess weight; and

(c)family history of a chronic disease.

(3)For subrule (1), a chronic disease is a disease that has been, or is likely to be, present for at least 6 months, including (but not limited to) asthma, cancer, cardiovascular illness, diabetes mellitus, a mental health condition, arthritis and a musculoskeletal condition.

(4)The health check should generally be undertaken by the patient’s usual doctor, that is, the medical practitioner who has provided the majority of services to the patient in the past 12 months, or is likely to provide the majority of services in the next 12 months.

(5)The health check must include the following components:

(a)information collection, including taking a patient history and undertaking examinations and investigations as required;

(b)making an overall assessment of the patient;

(c)interventions as indicated;

(d)providing advice and information to the patient.

(6)Item 717 is applicable only once for the same patient.

(7)The medical practitioner providing the service mentioned in item 717 is responsible for the overall health check of the patient.

(8)Elements of the health check may be delegated by the medical practitioner to a practice nurse or other qualified health professional.

(9)Item 717 is not applicable to a service provided to an admitted patient of a hospital.

1. Meaning of health assessment in items 718 and 719

(1)In items 718 and 719:

health assessment means the assessment of:

(a)a patient’s physical, psychological and social function; and

(b)whether any medical intervention and preventative health care is required.

(2)For subrule (1), a health assessment must include the following matters to the extent they are relevant to the patient:

(a)check dental health (including dentition);

(b)conduct aural examination (arrange formal audiometry if audiometry has not been conducted within 5 years);

(c)assess ocular health (arrange review by an ophthalmologist or optometrist if a comprehensive eye examination has not been conducted within 5 years);

(d)assess nutritional status (including weight and height measurements) and a review of growth and development;

(e)assess bowel and bladder function (particularly for incontinence or chronic constipation);

(f)assess medications including:

(i)non‑prescription medicines taken by the patient, prescriptions from other doctors, medications prescribed but not taken, interactions, side effects and review of indications; and

(ii)advice to carers of the common side effects and interactions; and

(iii)consideration of the need for a formal medication review;

(g)check immunisation status (including influenza, tetanus, hepatitis A and B, measles, mumps and rubella and pneumococcal vaccinations) with reference to the current Australian Standard Vaccination Schedule (a National Health and Medical Research Council document) for appropriate vaccination schedules;

(h)check exercise opportunities (with the aim of moderate exercise for at least 30 minutes per day);

(i)check whether the support provided for activities of daily living adequately and appropriately meets the patient’s needs, and consider formal review if required;

(j)consider the need for breast examination, mammography, Papanicolaou smears, testicular examination, lipid measurement and prostate assessment as for the general population;

(k)check for dysphagia and gastro‑oesophageal disease (especially for patients with cerebral palsy) and arrange for investigation or treatment as required;

(l)assess risk factors for osteoporosis (including diet, exercise, Vitamin D deficiency, hormonal status, family history, medication and fracture history) and arrange for investigation or treatment as required;

(m)for a patient diagnosed with epilepsy — review of seizure control (including anticonvulsant drugs) and consider referral to a neurologist at appropriate intervals;

(n)screen for thyroid disease at least every 2 years (or yearly for patients with Down syndrome);

(o)for a patient without a definitive aetiological diagnosis — consider referral to a genetic clinic every 5 years;

(p)assess or review of treatment for comorbid mental health issues;

(q)consider timing of puberty and management of sexual development, sexual activity and reproductive health;

(r)consider whether there are any signs of physical, psychological or sexual abuse.

(3)For subrule (1), a health assessment also includes the following:

(a)keeping a record of the health assessment;

(b)offering the patient a written report about the health assessment;

(c)offering the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report; and

(d)offering the relevant disability professionals (if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient or, if appropriate, the patient’s carer, agrees) a copy of the report or extracts of the report.

1. Limitation on items 721, 723, 725, 727, 729 and 731

(1)This rule applies to the performances of services for a patient for whom exceptional circumstances do not exist.

(2)An item in this table mentioned in the following table applies in the circumstances mentioned for the item in the following table.

Item	Items of this table	Circumstances
1	721	(a)  in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 725, 727, 729 or 731 applies has not been performed for the patient;   (b)  not more than once in a 12 month period
2	723	(a)  in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 727 applies has not been performed for the patient;   (b)  not more than once in a 12 month period
3	725	(a)  in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 721 applies has not been performed for the patient;   (b)  not more than once in a 3 month period
4	727	(a)  in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 723 applies has not been performed for the patient;   (b)  not more than once in a 3 month period
5	729	(a)  either:         (i)   in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 725, 727 or 731 applies has not been performed for the patient; or
(ii)   in the 12 months before performance of the service, a service has not been performed for the patient: (A)        by the medical practitioner who performs the service to which item 729 would, but for this item, apply; and (B)        for which a payment has been made under item 721 or 723;   (b)  not more than once in a 3 month period
6	731	(a)  in the 3 months before performance of the service, a service to which item 721, 723, 725, 727 or 729 applies has not been performed for the patient;   (b)  not more than once in a 3 month period

(3)For this rule, exceptional circumstances exist for a patient if there has been a significant change in the patient’s clinical condition or care circumstances that necessitates the performance of the service for the patient.

1. Meaning of GP management plan

(1)For item 721, preparation of a GP management plan means the preparation of a comprehensive written plan describing all of the following matters:

(a)the patient’s health care needs, health problems and relevant conditions;

(b)management goals with which the patient agrees;

(c)actions to be taken by the patient;

(d)treatment and services the patient is likely to need;

(e)arrangements for providing the treatment and services mentioned in paragraph (d);

(f)arrangements to review the plan by a day specified in the plan.

(2)Preparation of the plan also includes:

(a)explaining to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees) the steps involved in preparing the plan; and

(b)recording the plan; and

(c)recording the patient’s agreement to the preparation of the plan; and

(d)offering a copy of the plan to the patient and the patient’s carer (if any, and if the practitioner considers it appropriate and the patient agrees); and

(e)adding a copy of the plan to the patient’s medical records.

1. Meaning of multidisciplinary discharge care plan

For items 725 and 727, a multidisciplinary discharge care plan is a multidisciplinary care plan that is prepared for a patient before the patient is discharged from a hospital.

1. Meaning of team care arrangements

(1)For item 723, co‑ordinating the development of team care arrangements means a process by which the medical practitioner:

(a)in consultation with at least 2 collaborating providers, each of whom provides a different kind of treatment or service, and 1 of whom may be another medical practitioner, makes arrangements for the multidisciplinary care of the patient; and

53058			Nasal haemorrhage, posterior, arrest of, with posterior nasal packing with or without cauterisation and with or without anterior pack (excluding after‑care) (Anaes.)			110.95
53060			Cauterisation (other than by chemical means) or cauterisation by chemical means when performed under general anaesthesia or diathermy of septum or turbinates for obstruction or haemorrhage secondary to surgery (or trauma) — 1 or more of these procedures (including any consultation on the same occasion) not being a service associated with any other operation on the nose (Anaes.)			90.75
53062			Post‑surgical nasal haemorrhage, arrest of during an episode of epistaxis by cauterisation or nasal cavity packing or both (Anaes.)			81.25
53064			Cryotherapy to nose in the treatment of nasal haemorrhage (Anaes.)			147.15
53068			Turbinectomy or turbinectomies, partial or total, unilateral (Anaes.)			123.25
53070			Turbinates, submucous resection of, unilateral (Anaes.)			160.75
Group O8 — Temporomandibular joint
53200			Mandible, treatment of a dislocation of, not requiring open reduction (Anaes.)			63.85
53203			Mandible, treatment of a dislocation of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.)			107.25
53206			Temporomandibular joint, manipulation of, performed in the operating theatre of a hospital, not being a service associated with a service to which another item in Groups O3 to O9 applies (Anaes.)			129.10
53209			Glenoid fossa, zygomatic arch and temporal bone, reconstruction of (Obwegeser technique) (Anaes.) (Assist.)			1 489.25
53212			Absent condyle and ascending ramus in hemifacial microsomia, construction of, not including harvesting of graft material (Anaes.) (Assist.)			804.50
53215			Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, with or without biopsy, not being a service associated with any other arthroscopic procedure of that joint (Anaes.) (Assist.)			369.10
53218			Temporomandibular joint, arthroscopy of, removal of loose bodies, debridement, or treatment of adhesions — 1 or more of such procedures (Anaes.) (Assist.)			590.40
53220			Temporomandibular joint, arthrotomy of, not being a service to which another item in this group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.)			297.65
53221			Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.)			787.75
53224			Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with condylectomy or condylotomy, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.)			873.25
53225			Arthrocentesis, irrigation of temporomandibular joint after insertion of 2 cannuli into the appropriate joint space (Anaes.) (Assist.)			262.35
53226			Temporomandibular joint, synovectomy of, not being a service to which another item in this group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.)			282.05
53227			Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with or without meniscus or capsular surgery, including meniscectomy when performed, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.)			1 073.05
53230			Temporomandibular joint, open surgical exploration of, with meniscus, capsular and condylar head surgery, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.)			1 208.75
53233			Temporomandibular joint, surgery of, involving procedures to which item 53224, 53226, 53227 or 53230 applies and also involving the use of tissue flaps, or cartilage graft, or allograft implants, with or without microsurgical techniques (Anaes.) (Assist.)			1 358.25
53236			Temporomandibular joint, stabilisation of, involving 1 or more of: repair of capsule, repair of ligament or internal fixation, not being a service to which another item in this group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.)			425.05
53239			Temporomandibular joint, arthrodesis of, not being a service to which another item in this group applies (Anaes.) (Assist.)			425.05
53242			Temporomandibular joint or joints, application of external fixator to, other than for treatment of fractures (Anaes.) (Assist.)			282.05
Group O9 — Treatment of fractures
53400			Maxilla, unilateral or bilateral, treatment of fracture of, not requiring splinting			116.65
53403			Mandible, treatment of fracture of, not requiring splinting			142.50
53406			Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.)			367.25
53409			Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring splinting, wiring of teeth, circumosseous fixation or external fixation (Anaes.) (Assist.)			367.25
53410			Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, not requiring surgical reduction			77.35
53411			Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction, by temporal, intra‑oral or other approach (Anaes.)			215.70
53412			Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation at 1 site (Anaes.) (Assist.)			354.10
53413			Zygomatic bone, treatment of fracture of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 2 sites (Anaes.) (Assist.)			433.80
53414			Zygomatic bone, treatment of, requiring surgical reduction and involving internal or external fixation or both at 3 sites (Anaes.) (Assist.)			498.35
53415			Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.)			393.45
53416			Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction (Anaes.) (Assist.)			393.45
53418			Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			511.45
53419			Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			511.45
53422			Maxilla, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			649.05
53423			Mandible, treatment of fracture of, requiring open reduction and internal fixation involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			649.05
53424			Maxilla, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			556.90
53425			Mandible, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction not involving a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			556.90
53427			Maxilla, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			760.60
53429			Mandible, treatment of a complicated fracture of, involving viscera, blood vessels or nerves, requiring open reduction involving the use of a plate (Anaes.) (Assist.)			760.60
53439			Mandible, treatment of a closed fracture of, involving a joint surface (Anaes.)			215.70
53453			Orbital cavity, reconstruction of a wall or floor with or without foreign implant (Anaes.) (Assist.)			436.45
53455			Orbital cavity, bone or cartilage graft to orbital wall or floor including reduction of prolapsed or entrapped orbital contents (Anaes.) (Assist.)			512.65
53458			Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, not being a service to which item 53459 or 53460 applies			38.85
53459			Nasal bones, treatment of fracture of, by reduction (Anaes.)			212.65
53460			Nasal bones, treatment of fractures of, by open reduction involving osteotomies (Anaes.) (Assist.)			433.80
Group O10 — Diagnostic procedures and investigations
53600			Skin sensitivity testing for allergens to anaesthetics and materials used in oral and maxillofacial surgery, using 1 to 20 allergens			35.15
Group O11 — Regional or field nerve blocks
53700			Trigeminal nerve, primary division of, injection of an anaesthetic agent			112.75
53702			Trigeminal nerve, peripheral branch of, injection of an anaesthetic agent			56.45
53704			Facial nerve, injection of an anaesthetic agent			34.00
53706			Nerve branch in the oral and maxillofacial region, destruction by a neurolytic agent, not being a service to which any other item in this group applies			112.75
Cleft lip and cleft palate services
Group C1 — Orthodontic services
75001			Initial professional attendance in a single course of treatment by an accredited orthodontist (AO)			77.25
75004			Professional attendance by an accredited orthodontist subsequent to the first professional attendance by the orthodontist in a single course of treatment (AO)			38.80
75006			Production of dental study models (not being a service associated with a service to which item 75004 applies) prior to provision of a service to which:    (a)  item 75030, 75033, 75034, 75036, 75037, 75039, 75045 or 75051 applies; or   (b)  an item in Group T8 or Groups O3 to O9 applies; in a single course of treatment (AO)			68.90
75009			Orthodontic radiography — orthopantomography (panoramic radiography), including any consultation on the same occasion (AOS) (AO)			61.60
75012			Orthodontic radiography — anteroposterior cephalometric radiography with cephalometric tracings or lateral cephalometric radiography with cephalometric tracings including any consultation on the same occasion (AOS) (AO)			97.55
75015			Orthodontic radiography — anteroposterior and lateral cephalometric radiography, with cephalometric tracings including any consultation on the same occasion (AOS) (AO)			134.15
75018			Orthodontic radiography — anteroposterior and lateral cephalometric radiography, with cephalometric tracings and orthopantomography including any consultation on the same occasion (AOS) (AO)			170.90
75021			Orthodontic radiography — hand‑wrist studies (including growth prediction) including any consultation on the same occasion (AOS) (AO)			209.55
75023			Intraoral radiography — single area, periapical or bitewing film (AOS) (AO)			41.95
75024			Pre‑surgical infant maxillary arch repositioning, including supply of appliances and all adjustments of appliances and supervision — if 1 appliance is used (AO)			541.95
75027			Pre‑surgical infant maxillary arch repositioning, including supply of appliances and all adjustments of appliances and supervision — if 2 appliances are used (AO)			743.10
75030			Maxillary ach expansion not being a service associated with a service to which item 75039, 75042, 75045 or 75048 applies, including supply of appliances, all adjustments of the appliances, removal of the appliances and retention (AO)			661.75
75033			Mixed dentition treatment — incisor alignment using fixed appliances in maxillary arch, including supply of appliances, all adjustments of appliances, removal of the appliances and retention (AO)			1 084.55
75034			Mixed dentition treatment — incisor alignment with or without lateral arch expansion using a removable appliance in the maxillary arch, including supply of appliances, associated adjustments and retention (AO)			552.00
75036			Mixed dentition treatment — lateral arch expansion and incisor alignment using fixed appliances in maxillary arch, including supply of appliances, all adjustments of appliances, removal of appliances and retention (AO)			1 498.00
75037			Mixed dentition treatment — lateral arch expansion and incisor correction — 2 arch (maxillary and mandibular) using fixed appliances in both maxillary and mandibular arches, including supply of appliances, all adjustments of appliances, removal of appliances and retention (AO)			1 886.65
75039			Permanent dentition treatment — single arch (mandibular or maxillary) treatment (correction and alignment) using fixed appliances, including supply of appliances — initial 3 months of active treatment (AO)			501.40
75042			Permanent dentition treatment — single arch (mandibular or maxillary) treatment (correction and alignment) using fixed appliances, including supply of appliances — each 3 months of active treatment (including all adjustments and maintenance and removal of the appliances) after the first for a maximum of a further 33 months (AO)			187.45
75045			Permanent dentition treatment — 2 arch (mandibular and maxillary) treatment (correction and alignment) using fixed appliances, including supply of appliances — initial 3 months of active treatment (AO)			1 003.80
75048			Permanent dentition treatment — 2 arch (mandibular and maxillary) treatment (correction and alignment) using fixed appliances, including supply of appliances — each subsequent 3 months of active treatment (including all adjustments and maintenance, and removal of the appliances) after the first for a maximum of a further 33 months (AO)			257.45
75049			Retention, fixed or removable, single arch (mandibular or maxillary) — supply of retainer and supervision of retention (AO)			301.25
75050			Retention, fixed or removable, 2‑arch (mandibular and maxillary) — supply of retainers and supervision of retention (AO)			581.60
75051			Jaw growth guidance using removable or functional appliances, including supply of appliances and all adjustments to appliances (AO)			892.85
Group C2 — Oral and maxillofacial services
75150			Initial professional attendance in a single course of treatment by an accredited oral and maxillofacial surgeon if the patient is referred to the surgeon by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			77.25
75153			Professional attendance by an accredited oral and maxillofacial surgeon subsequent to the first professional attendance by the surgeon in a single course of treatment if the patient is referred to the surgeon by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			38.80
75156			Production of dental study models (not being a service associated with a service to which item 75153 applies) prior to provision of a service:    (a)  to which item 52321, 53212 or 75618 applies; or   (b)  to which an item in the series 52330 to 52382, 52600 to 52630, 53400 to 53409 or 53415 to 53429 applies; in a single course of treatment, where the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			68.90
75200			Removal of tooth or tooth fragment (not being treatment to which item 75400, 75403, 75406, 75409, 75412 or 75415 applies), if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AD)			49.60
75203			Removal of tooth or tooth fragment under general anaesthesia, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AD)			74.45
75206			Removal of each additional tooth or tooth fragment at the same attendance at which a service to which item 75200 or 75203 applies is rendered, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AD)			24.70
75400			Surgical removal of erupted tooth, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			148.85
75403			Surgical removal of tooth with soft tissue impaction, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			170.90
75406			Surgical removal of tooth with partial bone impaction, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			194.75
75409			Surgical removal of tooth with complete bone impaction, where the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			220.60
75412			Surgical removal of tooth fragment requiring incision of soft tissue only, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			123.20
75415			Surgical removal of tooth fragment requiring removal of bone, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			148.85
75600			Surgical exposure, stimulation and packing of unerupted tooth, where the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			209.55
75603			Surgical exposure of unerupted tooth for the purpose of fitting a traction device, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			246.30
75606			Surgical repositioning of unerupted tooth, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			246.30
75609			Transplantation of tooth bud, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			367.65
75612			Surgical procedure for intra oral implantation of osseointegrated fixture (first stage), if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			455.05
75615			Surgical procedure for fixation of trans‑mucosal abutment (second stage of osseointegrated implant), if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			168.45
75618			Provision and fitting of a bite rising appliance or dental splint for the management of temporomandibular joint dysfunction syndrome, if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			209.20
75621			The provision and fitting of surgical template in conjunction with orthognathic surgical procedures in association with:    (a)  an item in the series 52342 to 52375; or   (b)  item 52380 or 52382; if the patient is referred by an accredited orthodontist (AOS)			209.20
Group C3 — General and prosthodontic services
75800			Attendance comprising consultation, preventive treatment and prophylaxis, of not less than 30 minutes duration — each attendance to a maximum of 3 attendances in any period of 12 months (AD)			74.45
75803			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 1 tooth (AD)			297.80
75806			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 2 teeth (AD)			349.25
75809			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 3 teeth (AD)			413.55
75812			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 4 teeth (AD)			459.55
75815			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 5 to 9 teeth (AD)			560.70
75818			Provision and fitting of acrylic base partial denture, including retainers — 10 to 12 teeth (AD)			661.75
75821			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 1 tooth (AD)			532.95
75824			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 2 teeth (AD)			615.75
75827			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 3 teeth (AD)			707.75
75830			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 4 teeth (AD)			781.25
75833			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 5 to 9 teeth (AD)			955.75
75836			Provision and fitting of cast metal base (cobalt chromium alloy) partial denture including casting and retainers — 10 to 12 teeth (AD)			1 093.65
75839			Provision and fitting of retainers (not being treatment associated with treatment to which item 75803, 75806, 75809, 75812, 75815, 75818, 75821, 75824, 75827, 75830, 75833 or 75836 applies) — each retainer (AD)			24.70
75842			Adjustment of partial denture (not being treatment associated with treatment to which item 75803, 75806, 75809, 75812, 75815, 75818, 75821, 75824, 75827, 75830, 75833 or 75836 applies) (AD)			36.80
75845			Relining of partial denture by laboratory process and associated fitting (AD)			183.90
75848			Remodelling and fitting of partial denture of more than 4 teeth (AD)			220.60
75851			Repair to cast metal base of partial denture — 1 or more points (AD)			110.25
75854			Addition of a tooth or teeth to a partial denture to replace extracted tooth or teeth, including taking of necessary impression (AD)			110.25

Part 4           Non‑medicare services

1. Endoluminal gastroplication, for the treatment of gastro‑oesophageal reflux disease

1. Endovenous laser treatment, for varicose veins

1. Gamma knife surgery

1. Intradiscal electro thermal arthroplasty

1. Intravascular ultrasound (except where used in conjunction with intravascular brachytherapy)

1. Intro‑articular viscosupplementation, for the treatment of osteoarthritis of the knee

1. Low intensity ultrasound treatment, for the acceleration of bone fracture healing, using a bone growth stimulator

1. Lung volume reduction surgery, for advanced emphysema

1. Photodynamic therapy, for skin and mucosal cancer

1. Placement of artificial bowel sphincters, in the management of faecal incontinence

1. Sacral nerve stimulation, for urinary incontinence

1. Selective internal radiation therapy for any condition other than hepatic metastases that are secondary to colorectal cancer

1. Specific mass measurement of bone alkaline phosphatase

1. Transmyocardial laser revascularisation

1. Vertebral axial decompression therapy, for chronic back pain

Notes to the Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2007

Note 1

The Health Insurance (General Medical Services Table) Regulations 2007 (in force under the Health Insurance Act 1973) as shown in
this compilation comprise Select Legislative Instrument 2007 No. 355 amended as indicated in the Tables below.

Table of Instruments

Year and Number	Date of FRLI registration	Date of commencement	Application, saving or transitional provisions
2007 No. 355	19 Oct 2007 (see F2007L04101)	1 Nov 2007
2008 No. 53	14 Apr 2008 (see F2008L00637)	1 May 2008	—
2008 No. 112	20 June 2008 (see F2008L01332)	1 July 2008	—
2008 No. 188	22 Sept 2008 (see F2008L03166)	1 Oct 2008	—

Table of Amendments

ad. = added or inserted   am. = amended   rep. = repealed   rs. = repealed and substituted
Provision affected	How affected
Schedule 1
Schedule 1.............................	am. 2008 Nos. 53, 112 and 188