Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Regulations (No. 2) 2020 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
The notes at the end of this compilation (the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register ( saving and transitional provisions
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For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
The
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. Any modifications affecting the law are accessible on the Register.
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Contents
This instrument is the
Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Regulations (No. 2) 2020 .
This instrument is made under the
Health Insurance Act 1973 .
For the purposes of section 4AA of the
Health Insurance Act 1973 , Schedule 1 is prescribed as a table of diagnostic imaging services.
Note: See section 4.
A reference to a diagnostic imaging service in an item in Part 2 includes a reference to the undertaking of the diagnostic imaging procedure used for rendering the service.
A reference in this Schedule to an item includes a reference to an item relating to a health service that, under a determination in force under subsection 3C(1) of the Act, is treated as if there were an item in the table that relates to the service.
The Dictionary in Part 3 of this Schedule defines certain words and expressions that are used in this Schedule, and includes references to certain words and expressions that are defined elsewhere in this Schedule.
(1) Subject to Subdivision B, an item in this Schedule does not apply to a service that is performed on diagnostic imaging equipment if the age of the equipment exceeds the applicable life age of the equipment.
(2) If reinstatement under clause 1.2.10B is granted in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment, an item in this Schedule does not apply to a service that is performed on that equipment on a day:
(a) that is before the day the reinstatement was granted; and
(b) on which the age of the equipment exceeded its new effective life age.
(3) If:
(a) reinstatement under clause 1.2.10B is granted in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment that has not been upgraded; and
(b) the equipment is not upgraded within 3 months after the end of the equipment’s new effective life age;
an item in this Schedule does not apply to a service that is performed on that equipment on a day that is after the end of 3 months after the end of the equipment’s new effective life age.
Working out age of equipment (1) The date from which the age of equipment is worked out for the purposes of this instrument is:
(a) the date the equipment was first installed in Australia; or
(b) if the equipment was imported as used equipment—the date of manufacture of the oldest component of the equipment.
(2) The
applicable life age :
(a) for diagnostic imaging equipment that has not been upgraded—is the new effective life age of the equipment; and
(b) for diagnostic imaging equipment that has been upgraded—is the maximum extended life age of the equipment.
(3) The
new effective life age andmaximum extended life age for diagnostic imaging equipment are the periods set out in table 1.2.2 for that type of equipment. The type of equipment is defined by the type of service that is rendered using diagnostic imaging procedures carried out using the equipment:
1 | Ultrasound equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Group I1 applies | 10 | 15 |
2 | CT equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Group I2 applies | 10 | 15 |
3 | Mammography equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Subgroup 10 of Group I3 applies | 10 | 15 |
4 | Angiography equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Subgroup 13 of Group I3 applies | 10 | 15 |
5 | Other diagnostic radiology equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Subgroups 1 to 9, 12, 14, 15 or 17 of Group I3 applies | 15 | 20 |
6 | Nuclear medicine imaging equipment (other than for PET) | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Group I4 applies (other than items 61523 to 61647) | 10 | 15 |
7 | MRI equipment | Equipment primarily used in carrying out a diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering a service to which an item in Group I5 applies | 10 | 20 |
Upgrades (4) Diagnostic imaging equipment has been
upgraded if:
(a) an additional reasonable investment has been made, within the period mentioned in subclause (5), that improves the overall performance of the imaging system so that it is equivalent to new equipment supplied in Australia at the time of the improvement; or
(b) in the case of CT or angiography equipment that was not more than 15 years old on 1 January 2015—an additional reasonable investment has been made before 1 January 2016 that improves the overall performance of the imaging system so that it is equivalent to new equipment supplied in Australia at the time of the improvement; or
(c) the equipment has been accredited under The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists’ Mammography Quality Assurance Program.
(5) For the purposes of paragraph (4)(a), the period is:
(a) the new effective life age for the equipment; or
(b) for equipment for which an exemption under clause 1.2.8 has been granted—the exemption period of the exemption; or
(c) for equipment for which reinstatement under clause 1.2.10B has been granted—3 months after the end of the equipment’s new effective life age.
The
relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment is:
(a) if the equipment is ordinarily located at diagnostic imaging premises—the proprietor of the premises; or
(b) if the equipment:
(i) is not ordinarily located at diagnostic imaging premises; and
(ii) is ordinarily located, when not in use, at a base for mobile diagnostic imaging equipment;
the proprietor of the base.
Applying for exemption (1) The relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment may apply to the Secretary for an exemption under clause 1.2.8 in respect of the equipment.
Note: For
relevant proprietor , see clause 1.2.4.(2) The application must:
(a) be in writing; and
(b) be made before the end of the equipment’s applicable life age; and
(c) set out:
(i) reasons why the proprietor is unable to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded) before the end of the equipment’s applicable life age; and
(ii) the steps taken by the proprietor to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded).
Notifying proprietor of receipt of application (3) If:
(a) the Secretary receives an application under subclause (2) of this clause for an exemption in respect of the equipment; and
(b) the application complies with subclause (2);
the Secretary must notify the relevant proprietor for the equipment in writing that the Secretary has received the application.
Effect of application on capital sensitivity requirements (4) Clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor under subclause (3) of this clause that the Secretary has received an application in respect of the equipment; and
(b) ending when the Secretary makes a decision on the application under clause 1.2.8, or the application is withdrawn.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if, under subclause 1.2.7(3), the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment that the Secretary has received an application for an exemption in respect of the equipment.
Granting exemption (2) The Secretary must, by notice in writing given to the proprietor:
(a) subject to subclauses (3) and (4) of this clause, grant the exemption for a specified period; or
(b) refuse to grant the exemption.
(3) The Secretary must not grant the exemption unless the Secretary is satisfied that both of the following apply:
(a) due to circumstances beyond the control of the proprietor, the proprietor is unable to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded) before the end of its applicable life age;
(b) the proprietor is taking reasonable steps to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded) before the end of the period specified under paragraph (2)(a).
(4) The period specified under paragraph (2)(a) must end no later than 6 months after the end of the equipment’s applicable life age.
Note: The period specified under paragraph (2)(a) is the initial
exemption period of the exemption: see clause 3.1. The exemption period can be extended or further extended under clause 1.2.10.(5) The Secretary must make a decision on the application under subclause (2) within 28 days after notifying the proprietor as mentioned in subclause (1).
Effect of exemption or refusal on capital sensitivity requirements (6) If the Secretary grants the exemption, clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the exemption period of the exemption (including the exemption period as extended or further extended under clause 1.2.10, if applicable).
(7) If the Secretary refuses to grant the exemption, clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary refuses to grant the exemption; and
(b) ending:
(i) when the relevant proprietor for the equipment applies under clause 1.2.11 for reconsideration of the decision to refuse to grant the exemption; or
(ii) if the relevant proprietor does not apply for such consideration—at the end of the period in which the proprietor could have applied for such reconsideration.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if an exemption under clause 1.2.8 in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment is in force.
Applying for extension of exemption period (2) The relevant proprietor for the equipment may apply to the Secretary to extend or further extend under clause 1.2.10 the exemption period of the exemption.
Note: For
relevant proprietor , see clause 1.2.4.(3) The application must:
(a) be in writing; and
(b) be made before the end of the current exemption period of the exemption; and
(c) set out:
(i) reasons why the proprietor continues to be unable to replace or upgrade the equipment; and
(ii) the steps taken by the proprietor to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded).
Notifying proprietor of receipt of application (4) If:
(a) the Secretary receives an application under subclause (2) of this clause for an extension or further extension of the exemption; and
(b) the application complies with subclause (3);
the Secretary must notify the relevant proprietor for the equipment in writing that the Secretary has received the application.
Effect of application on capital sensitivity requirements (5) Clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor under subclause (4) of this clause that the Secretary has received an application in respect of the equipment; and
(b) ending when the Secretary makes a decision on the application under clause 1.2.10, or the application is withdrawn.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if, under subclause 1.2.9(4), the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment that the Secretary has received an application for an extension or further extension of the exemption period of an exemption in respect of the equipment.
Secretary may extend exemption period (2) The Secretary must, by notice in writing given to the proprietor:
(a) subject to subclauses (3) and (4) of this clause, extend or further extend the exemption period for a specified period; or
(b) refuse to extend, or further extend, the exemption period.
(3) The Secretary must not extend or further extend the exemption period unless the Secretary is satisfied that both of the following apply:
(a) due to circumstances beyond the control of the proprietor, the proprietor is unable to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded) before the end of the current exemption period of the exemption;
(b) the proprietor is taking reasonable steps to replace the equipment (or upgrade the equipment, if it has not already been upgraded) before the end of the exemption period as extended or further extended.
(4) The extension or further extension must be for no more than 3 months.
(5) The Secretary must make a decision on the application under subclause (2) within 28 days after notifying the proprietor as mentioned in subclause (1).
Effect of refusal on capital sensitivity requirements (6) If the Secretary refuses to extend, or further extend, the exemption period, clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary refuses to extend, or further extend, the exemption period; and
(b) ending:
(i) when the relevant proprietor for the equipment applies under clause 1.2.11 for reconsideration of the decision to refuse to extend, or further extend, the exemption period; or
(ii) if the relevant proprietor does not apply for such consideration—at the end of the period in which the proprietor could have applied for such reconsideration.
Note: Clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service provided using the equipment during the extended exemption period: see subclause 1.2.8(6).
Applying for reinstatement (1) The relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment may apply to the Secretary for reinstatement under clause 1.2.10B in respect of the equipment if:
(a) the equipment was not upgraded before the end of its new effective life age; and
(b) the relevant proprietor did not apply for an exemption under clause 1.2.8 in respect of the equipment before the end of its new effective life age.
Note: For
relevant proprietor , see clause 1.2.4.(2) The application must:
(a) be in writing; and
(b) be made within 3 months after the end of the equipment’s new effective life age; and
(c) set out:
(i) reasons why the proprietor was unable to upgrade the equipment before the end of its new effective life age; and
(ii) reasons why the proprietor was unable to apply for an exemption under clause 1.2.8 in respect of the equipment before the end of its new effective life age; and
(iii) an explanation of how the equipment has been, or will be, upgraded; and
(iv) if the equipment has not been upgraded—the steps taken by the proprietor to ensure that it will be upgraded within 3 months after the end of its new effective life age, and the date on which the upgrade will occur.
Notifying proprietor of receipt of application (3) If:
(a) the Secretary receives an application under subclause (1) of this clause for reinstatement in respect of the equipment; and
(b) the application complies with subclause (2);
the Secretary must notify the relevant proprietor for the equipment in writing that the Secretary has received the application.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if, under subclause 1.2.10A(3), the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor for diagnostic imaging equipment that the Secretary has received an application for reinstatement in respect of the equipment.
Granting reinstatement (2) The Secretary must, by notice in writing given to the proprietor:
(a) subject to subclause (3) of this clause, grant the reinstatement; or
(b) refuse to grant the reinstatement.
(3) The Secretary must not grant the reinstatement unless the Secretary is satisfied that both of the following apply:
(a) the proprietor was unable to upgrade the equipment before the end of its new effective life age;
(b) the equipment has been or will be upgraded within 3 months after the end of its new effective life age.
(4) The Secretary must make a decision on the application under subclause (2) within 28 days after notifying the proprietor as mentioned in subclause (1).
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies to:
(a) a decision under clause 1.2.8 to refuse to grant an exemption in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment; or
(b) a decision under clause 1.2.10 to refuse to extend, or further extend, the exemption period of an exemption in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment; or
(c) a decision under clause 1.2.10B to refuse to grant reinstatement in respect of diagnostic imaging equipment.
Applying for reconsideration of decision (2) The relevant proprietor for the equipment may apply to the Secretary for reconsideration of the decision under clause 1.2.12.
Note: For
relevant proprietor , see clause 1.2.4.(3) The application must:
(a) be in writing; and
(b) be made within:
(i) 28 days after the Secretary makes the decision; or
(ii) if the Secretary is satisfied that special circumstances exist—within such further period (if any) as the Secretary allows; and
(c) identify the decision for reconsideration; and
(d) set out the reasons for the application.
(4) The application may provide new material for the Secretary to consider.
Notifying proprietor of receipt of application (5) If:
(a) the Secretary receives an application under subclause (2) of this clause for reconsideration of the decision; and
(b) the application complies with subclause (3);
the Secretary must notify the relevant proprietor for the equipment in writing that the Secretary has received the application.
Effect of application on capital sensitivity requirements—exemption decisions (6) Clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on equipment to which a decision mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) or (b) relates during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor under subclause (5) of this clause that the Secretary has received an application in respect of the equipment; and
(b) ending when the Secretary makes a decision on the application under clause 1.2.12, or the application is withdrawn.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if, under subclause 1.2.11(5), the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor of diagnostic imaging equipment that the Secretary has received an application for reconsideration of a decision in respect of the equipment.
Reconsidering decisions (2) The Secretary must:
(a) reconsider the decision; and
(b) by notice in writing given to the proprietor:
(i) affirm the decision; or
(ii) set aside the decision and make a decision in substitution for it.
(3) The Secretary must make a decision on the application under subclause (2) within 28 days after notifying the proprietor as mentioned in subclause (1).
Effect of affirmation of exemption decisions on capital sensitivity requirements (4) If the Secretary affirms a decision mentioned in paragraph 1.2.11(1)(a) or (b), clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on equipment to which the decision relates during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary affirms the decision; and
(b) ending:
(i) if an application for review of the decision to affirm is made under clause 1.2.13—when each party to the proceeding has been given a copy of the decision of the Administrative Review Tribunal on review; or
(ii) otherwise—when the time for making such an application for review expires.
Note: For the time for making an application for review, see section 18 of the
Administrative Review Tribunal Act 2024 .
Applications may be made to the Administrative Review Tribunal for review of decisions of the Secretary under clause 1.2.12.
(1) A service corresponding to an item including the symbol
(R) is an R‑type diagnostic imaging service.(2) A service corresponding to an item including the symbol
(NR) is an NR‑type diagnostic imaging service.(3) An item in this Schedule including the symbol
(H) applies only to a service performed or provided in a hospital.
Items in this Schedule relating to diagnostic imaging services apply whether the service is provided by:
(a) a medical practitioner; or
(b) a person, other than a medical practitioner, who provides the service under the supervision of a medical practitioner in accordance with accepted medical practice.
(1) An item relating to an R‑type diagnostic imaging service (except an item to which subclause (2) applies) applies only if the providing practitioner gives a report of the service performed to the practitioner, participating midwife or participating nurse practitioner who requested the service.
(2) This subclause applies to:
(a) items 55054, 55130, 55135, 55848, 57341, 59312, 59314, 60506, 60509 and 61109; and
(b) items 60918 and 60927.
Note: The items in paragraph (a) relate to services performed in conjunction with a surgical procedure. The items in paragraph (b) relate to services performed in preparation for a radiological procedure.
(1) This clause applies if:
(a) a service that is mentioned in an item in Divisions 2.1 to 2.5 of this Schedule is provided; and
(b) the service is not provided in a hospital; and
(c) the service is bulk‑billed.
(2) The fee for the service is 95% of the fee mentioned in this Schedule for the service.
Note: Under paragraph 10(2)(aa) of the Act and subsection 28(2) of the
Health Insurance Regulations 2018 , the medicare benefit payable is 100% of the fee for the service.(3) This clause does not apply to the service specified in item 61369, 61466 or 61485.
(1) If a medical practitioner renders 2 or more diagnostic imaging services for the same patient on the same day, the fees set out in the items that apply to the services, other than the item with the highest fee, are reduced by $5.
(2) If a medical practitioner renders at least one R‑type diagnostic imaging service and at least one consultation service for the same patient on the same day, the highest fee, set out in the items that apply to diagnostic imaging services rendered by the practitioner for that patient on that day, is reduced:
(a) if the fee for the relevant consultation is at least $40—by $35; or
(b) if that fee is less than $40 but more than $15—by $15; or
(c) if that fee is less than $15—by the amount of that fee.
(3) For the purposes of subclause (2), if more than one consultation has occurred, the relevant consultation is the consultation having the highest fee set out in the items that apply to the consultation.
(4) If a medical practitioner renders at least one R‑type diagnostic imaging service and at least one non‑consultation service for the same patient on the same day, the highest fee that applies to any diagnostic imaging services performed by the medical practitioner for the same patient on the same day, is reduced by $5.
(5) If a medical practitioner renders an R‑type diagnostic imaging service, a consultation and a non‑consultation service for the same patient on the same day, the sum of the reductions under subclauses (2) and (4) must not exceed the highest fee that applies to any diagnostic imaging services rendered by the medical practitioner for the same patient on the same day.
(6) Clauses 2.1.2A, 2.1.17 and 2.5.8 apply, subject to subclauses (7), (8) and (8A), in addition to this clause.
(7) For the purposes of clause 2.1.2A, if a medical practitioner provides:
(a) 2 or more vascular ultrasound services for the same patient on the same day; and
(b) one or more other diagnostic imaging services for that patient on that day;
the amount of the fees payable for the vascular ultrasound services is taken, for this clause, to be an amount payable for one diagnostic imaging service.
(8) For the purposes of clause 2.5.8, if a medical practitioner provides:
(a) 2 or more MRI services mentioned in Subgroup 12 or 13 of Group I5 for the same patient on the same day; and
(b) one or more other diagnostic imaging services for that patient on that day;
the amount of the fees payable for the MRI services is taken, for this clause, to be an amount payable for one diagnostic imaging service.
(8A) For the purposes of clause 2.1.17, if a medical practitioner provides:
(a) 2 or more echocardiogram services mentioned in subclause 2.1.17(1) for the same patient on the same day; and
(b) one or more other diagnostic imaging services for that patient on that day;
the amount of the fees payable for the echocardiogram services is taken, for this clause, to be an amount payable for one diagnostic imaging service.
(9) This clause does not apply to diagnostic imaging services that are rendered in a remote area by a medical practitioner for whom a remote area exemption under section 23DX of the Act is in force for that area.
(10) This clause does not apply to the fee specified in item 59103, 64990, 64991, 64992, 64993, 64994 or 64995.
(11) In this Schedule:
consultation means a service under an item listed in Divisions 2.2 to 2.30 of the general medical services table.highest fee means the highest fee specified for an item in the first claim submitted to the Chief Executive Medicare for the services provided.non‑consultation service means a service under an item listed in the general medical services table, other than in Divisions 2.2 to 2.30 of the general medical services table.
An item in this Schedule does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided to a patient at the same time as, or in connection with, an injection of blood or a blood product that is autologous.
An item in this Schedule does not apply to a service mentioned in the item if the service is provided to a patient at the same time as, or in connection with, the harvesting, storage, in vitro processing or injection of non‑haematopoietic stem cells.
Items in this Division (except items 55600 and 55603) apply to an ultrasound service only if the diagnostic imaging procedure used in rendering the service is performed:
(a) by a medical practitioner; or
(b) on behalf of a medical practitioner by a person whose name is entered on the Register of Sonographers kept by the Chief Executive Medicare.
Note: Maintaining a register of sonographers is a function of the Chief Executive Medicare under section 32 of the
Human Services (Medicare) Regulations 2017 .
(1) Items in this Division (except items 55600 and 55603) marked with the symbol
(R) apply to an ultrasound service (theeligible service ) only if the service is performed:(a) under the supervision of a specialist or a consultant physician in the practice of the specialist’s or consultant physician’s specialty who is available:
(i) to monitor and influence the conduct and diagnostic quality of the examination; and
(ii) if necessary, to attend on the patient personally; or
(b) under the supervision of a practitioner who:
(i) is not a specialist or consultant physician; and
(ii) meets the requirement of subclause (2); and
(iii) is available to monitor and influence the conduct and diagnostic quality of the examination and, if necessary, to attend on the patient personally; or
(c) in the circumstance mentioned in subclause (3), and under the supervision of a practitioner who is available:
(i) to monitor and influence the conduct and diagnostic quality of the examination; and
(ii) if necessary, to attend on the patient personally; or
(d) if paragraph (a), (b) or (c) cannot be complied with:
(i) in an emergency; or
(ii) in a location that is not less than 30 kilometres by the most direct road route from another practice where services that comply with paragraph (a) or (b) are available.
(2) For the purposes of subparagraph (1)(b)(ii), the requirement is that, between 1 September 1997 and 31 August 1999, at least 50 services were rendered by or on behalf of the practitioner at the location where the eligible service was rendered, and the rendering of those services entitled payment of medicare benefits.
(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(c), the circumstance is that, between 1 September 1997 and 31 August 1999, at least 50 services were rendered in nursing homes or patients’ residences by or on behalf of the practitioner, and the rendering of those services entitled payment of medicare benefits.
(1) If a medical practitioner provides 2 or more vascular ultrasound services for the same patient on the same day, the fees specified for the items that apply to the services are reduced as follows:
(a) the second highest fee is reduced by 40%;
(b) any other fee, except the highest, is reduced by 50%.
(2) For the purposes of subclause (1):
(a) if 2 or more applicable fees are equally the highest:
(i) only one of those fees is taken to be the highest fee; and
(ii) the other, or another, highest fee is taken to be the second highest fee; and
(b) if 2 or more fees are equally second highest—any one of those fees may be taken to be the second highest for the purpose of paragraph (1)(b); and
(c) if a reduced fee calculated under subclause (1) is not a multiple of 5 cents—the reduced fee is taken to be the nearest amount that is a multiple of 5 cents.
(3) This clause does not apply to the fee specified in item 64990 or 64991.
This clause sets out items in Subgroups 1 to 4 of Group I1.
Note: The fees in Group I1 are indexed in accordance with clause 2.7.1.
55028 | Head, ultrasound scan of (R) | 110.75 |
55029 | Head, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55030 | Orbital contents, ultrasound scan of (R) | 110.75 |
55031 | Orbital contents, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55032 | Neck, one or more structures of, ultrasound scan of (R) | 110.75 |
55033 | Neck, one or more structures of, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55036 | Abdomen, ultrasound scan of (including scan of urinary tract when performed), for morphological assessment, if:
| 112.95 |
55037 | Abdomen, ultrasound scan of (including scan of urinary tract when performed), for morphological assessment, if the service is not solely a transrectal ultrasonic examination of any of the following: (a) prostate gland; (b) bladder base; (c) urethra (NR) | 38.40 |
55038 | Urinary tract, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 110.75 |
55039 | Urinary tract, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not solely a transrectal ultrasonic examination of any of the following: (a) prostate gland; (b) bladder base; (c) urethra (NR) | 38.40 |
55048 | Scrotum, ultrasound scan of (R) | 111.15 |
55049 | Scrotum, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55054 | Ultrasonic cross‑sectional echography, in conjunction with a surgical procedure (other than a procedure to which item 55848 or 55850 applies) using interventional techniques, not being a service associated with a service to which any other item in this Group applies (R) | 110.75 |
55065 | Pelvis, ultrasound scan of, by any or all approaches, if:
| 99.70 |
55066 | Breasts, both, ultrasound scan of, in conjunction with a surgical procedure using interventional techniques, if:
| 221.45 |
55068 | Pelvis, ultrasound scan of, by any or all approaches, if the service is not solely a service to which an item (other than item 55736 or 55739) in Subgroup 5 of this Group applies or a transrectal ultrasonic examination of any of the following: (a) prostate gland; (b) bladder base; (c) urethra (NR) | 35.50 |
55070 | Breast, one, ultrasound scan of (R) | 99.70 |
55071 | Breast, one, ultrasound scan of, in conjunction with a surgical procedure using interventional techniques, if:
| 210.45 |
55073 | Breast, one, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 34.55 |
55076 | Breasts, both, ultrasound scan of (including an ultrasound scan for post mastectomy surveillance) (R) | 110.75 |
55079 | Breasts, both, ultrasound scan of (including an ultrasound scan for post mastectomy surveillance) (NR) | 38.40 |
55084 | Urinary bladder, ultrasound scan of, by any or all approaches, if within 24 hours of the service, a service mentioned in item 11917, 55036, 55038, 55065, 55600 or 55603 is not performed on the same patient by the providing practitioner (R) | 99.70 |
55085 | Urinary bladder, ultrasound scan of, by any or all approaches, if within 24 hours of the service, a service mentioned in item 11917, 55037, 55039, 55068, 55600 or 55603 is not performed on the same patient by the providing practitioner (NR) | 34.55 |
55118 | Heart, two‑dimensional or three‑dimensional real time transoesophageal examination of, from at least 2 levels, and in more than one plane at each level, if: (a) the service includes:
(b) the service is not:
(R) (H) (Anaes.) | 279.65 |
55130 | Intraoperative two‑dimensional or three‑dimensional real time transoesophageal echocardiography, if the service:
(b) is performed during cardiac surgery; and
(R) (H) (Anaes.) | 172.55 |
55135 | Intraoperative two‑dimensional or three‑dimensional real time transoesophageal echocardiography, if the service:
(R) (H) (Anaes.) | 358.90 |
55238 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of arteries or bypass grafts in the lower limb or of arteries and bypass grafts in the lower limb, below the inguinal ligament, not being a service associated with any of the following:
| 172.05 |
55244 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of veins in the lower limb, below the inguinal ligament, for acute venous thrombosis, not being a service associated with any of the following: (a) a service to which item 55246 applies;
| 172.05 |
55246 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of veins in the lower limb, below the inguinal ligament, for chronic venous disease, not being a service associated with any of the following: | |
(a) a service to which item 55244 applies;
| 172.05 | |
55248 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of arteries or bypass grafts in the upper limb or of arteries and bypass grafts in the upper limb, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55252 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of veins in the upper limb, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55274 | Duplex scanning, bilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of extra‑cranial bilateral carotid and vertebral vessels, with or without subclavian and innominate vessels, with or without oculoplethysmography or peri‑orbital Doppler examination, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55276 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of intra‑abdominal, aorta and iliac arteries or inferior vena cava and iliac veins or of intra‑abdominal, aorta and iliac arteries and inferior vena cava and iliac veins, excluding pregnancy related studies, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55278 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of renal or visceral vessels or of renal and visceral vessels, including aorta, inferior vena cava and iliac vessels as required excluding pregnancy related studies, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55280 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of intra‑cranial vessels, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55282 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements:
| 172.05 |
55284 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements:
| 172.05 |
55292 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of surgically created arteriovenous fistula or surgically created arteriovenous access grafts in the upper or lower limbs, not being a service associated with a service to which an item in Subgroup 4 applies (R) | 172.05 |
55294 | Duplex scanning involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow measurements by spectral analysis of arteries or veins, or both, including any associated skin marking, for mapping of bypass conduit before vascular surgery, not being a service associated with any of the following:
| 172.05 |
55296 | Duplex scanning, unilateral, involving B mode ultrasound imaging and integrated Doppler flow spectral analysis and marking of veins in the lower limbs below the inguinal ligament before varicose vein surgery, including any associated skin marking, not being a service associated with any of the following:
| 112.70 |
55600 | Prostate, bladder base and urethra, ultrasound scan of, if performed:
(c) on a patient who has been assessed by:
| 110.75 |
55603 | Prostate, bladder base and urethra, ultrasound scan of, if performed:
(c) on a patient who has been assessed by:
| 110.75 |
(1) For NR‑type diagnostic imaging services mentioned in an item in this Subdivision (other than item 55758), the specified fee for no more than 3 services provided to the same patient in any one pregnancy applies.
(2) For any patient, items 55706, 55707, 55708, 55709, 55718, 55723, 55742, 55743, 55759, 55762, 55768 and 55770 are applicable only once in a pregnancy.
(1) A referral for a service mentioned in item 55700, 55704, 55707, 55712, 55718, 55721, 55740, 55742, 55757, 55759, 55764, 55768 and 55772 must state the relevant condition or clinical indication for the service.
(2) If a referral for a service mentioned in item 55712, 55721, 55764 or 55772 is given by a medical practitioner who has obstetric privileges at a non‑metropolitan hospital, the referral must also state the words ‘non‑metropolitan obstetric privileges’.
(3) A medical practitioner’s clinical notes for a service mentioned in item 55703, 55705, 55708, 55715, 55723, 55725, 55741, 55743, 55758, 55762, 55766, 55770 or 55774 must state the relevant condition or clinical indication for the service.
This clause sets out items in Subgroup 5 of Group I1.
Note: The fees in Group I1 are indexed in accordance with clause 2.7.1.
55700 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, ultrasound (the
| 60.90 |
55703 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, ultrasound (the
| 35.50 |
55704 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 71.05 |
55705 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 35.50 |
55706 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
(b) the current ultrasound:
| 101.50 |
55707 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 71.05 |
55708 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 35.50 |
55709 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
(b) the current ultrasound:
| 38.55 |
55712 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 116.70 |
55715 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 40.60 |
55718 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
(b) the current ultrasound:
| 101.50 |
55721 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 116.70 |
55723 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
(b) the current ultrasound:
| 38.55 |
55725 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 40.60 |
55729 | Duplex scanning, if: (a) the service involves:
—examination and report (R) | 27.65 |
55736 | Pelvis, ultrasound scan of, in association with saline infusion of the endometrial cavity, by any or all approaches, if a previous transvaginal ultrasound has revealed an abnormality of the uterus or fallopian tube (R) | 128.90 |
55739 | Pelvis, ultrasound scan of, in association with saline infusion of the endometrial cavity, by any or all approaches, if a previous transvaginal ultrasound has revealed an abnormality of the uterus or fallopian tube (NR) | 57.85 |
55740 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 108.30 |
55741 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 54.10 |
55742 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 108.30 |
55743 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| |
| 54.10 | |
55757 | Pelvis or abdomen, ultrasound (the
(b) any of the following apply:
| 51.55 |
55758 | Pelvis or abdomen, ultrasound (the
(b) any of the following apply:
| 19.60 |
55759 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 152.25 |
55762 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 60.90 |
55764 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 162.40 |
55766 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 65.95 |
55768 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 152.25 |
55770 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 60.90 |
55772 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 162.40 |
55774 | Pelvis or abdomen, pregnancy‑related or pregnancy complication, fetal development and anatomy, ultrasound (the
| 65.95 |
If:
(a) 2 services (the
unilateral services ) to which an item listed in column 1 of an item of table 2.1.8 applies are provided in conjunction with each other; and(b) a service to which an item in column 2 of the item applies could have been provided instead of the 2 unilateral services;
only one of the unilateral services may be claimed.
1 | 55856 | 55858 |
2 | 55857 | 55859 |
3 | 55860 | 55862 |
4 | 55861 | 55863 |
5 | 55864 | 55866 |
6 | 55865 | 55867 |
7 | 55868 | 55870 |
8 | 55869 | 55871 |
9 | 55872 | 55874 |
10 | 55873 | 55875 |
11 | 55876 | 55878 |
12 | 55877 | 55879 |
13 | 55880 | 55882 |
14 | 55881 | 55883 |
15 | 55884 | 55886 |
16 | 55885 | 55887 |
17 | 55888 | 55890 |
18 | 55889 | 55891 |
19 | 55892 | 55894 |
20 | 55893 | 55895 |
The fee applicable for items in this Subdivision includes any views of another part of the patient taken for comparison purposes.
This clause sets out items in Subgroup 6 of Group I1.
Note: The fees in Group I1 are indexed in accordance with clause 2.7.1.
55812 | Chest or abdominal wall, one or more areas, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55070, 55073, 55076 or 55079 (R) | 110.75 |
55814 | Chest or abdominal wall, one or more areas, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55070, 55073, 55076 or 55079 (NR) | 38.40 |
55844 | Assessment of a mass associated with the skin or subcutaneous structures, not being a part of the musculoskeletal system, one or more areas, ultrasound scan of (R) | 88.65 |
55846 | Assessment of a mass associated with the skin or subcutaneous structures, not being a part of the musculoskeletal system, one or more areas, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55848 | Musculoskeletal ultrasound, in conjunction with a surgical procedure using interventional techniques, not being a service associated with a service to which any other item in this group applies, and not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55054 (R) | 138.65 |
55850 | Musculoskeletal ultrasound, in conjunction with a surgical procedure using interventional techniques, inclusive of a diagnostic musculoskeletal ultrasound service, if:
| 183.05 |
55852 | Paediatric spine, spinal cord and overlying subcutaneous tissues, ultrasound scan of (R) | 110.75 |
55854 | Paediatric spine, spinal cord and overlying subcutaneous tissues, ultrasound scan of (NR) | 38.40 |
55856 | Hand or wrist, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55858 (R) | 110.75 |
55857 | Hand or wrist, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55859 (NR) | 38.40 |
55858 | Hand or wrist, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55856 (R) | 122.90 |
55859 | Hand or wrist, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55857 (NR) | 42.65 |
55860 | Forearm or elbow, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55862 (R) | 110.75 |
55861 | Forearm or elbow, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55863 (NR) | 38.40 |
55862 | Forearm or elbow, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55860 (R) | 122.90 |
55863 | Forearm or elbow, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55861 (NR) | 42.65 |
55864 | Shoulder or upper arm, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if
| 110.75 |
55865 | Shoulder or upper arm, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 38.40 |
55866 | Shoulder or upper arm, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 122.90 |
55867 | Shoulder or upper arm, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 42.65 |
55868 | Hip or groin, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55870 (R) | 110.75 |
55869 | Hip or groin, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55871 (NR) | 38.40 |
55870 | Hip or groin, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55868 (R) | 122.90 |
55871 | Hip or groin, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55869 (NR) | 42.65 |
55872 | Paediatric hip examination for dysplasia, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55874 (R) | 110.75 |
55873 | Paediatric hip examination for dysplasia, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55875 (NR) | 38.40 |
55874 | Paediatric hip examination for dysplasia, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55872 (R) | 122.90 |
55875 | Paediatric hip examination for dysplasia, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55873 (NR) | 42.65 |
55876 | Buttock or thigh, or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55878 (R) | 110.75 |
55877 | Buttock or thigh or both, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55879 (NR) | 38.40 |
55878 | Buttock or thigh, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55876 (R) | 122.90 |
55879 | Buttock or thigh, or both, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55877 (NR) | 42.65 |
55880 | Knee, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 110.75 |
55881 | Knee, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 38.40 |
55882 | Knee, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 122.90 |
55883 | Knee, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if:
| 42.65 |
55884 | Lower leg, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55886 (R) | 110.75 |
55885 | Lower leg, left or right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55887 (NR) | 38.40 |
55886 | Lower leg, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55884 (R) | 122.90 |
55887 | Lower leg, left and right, ultrasound scan of, if the service is not performed in conjunction with a service mentioned in item 55885 (NR) | |
448.00 |
This clause sets out items in Subgroup 34 of Group I5.
Note: The fees in Group I5 are indexed in accordance with clause 2.7.1.
63551 | Scan of head for a patient 16 years or older, after a request by a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician), for any of the following: (a) unexplained seizure(s);
| 403.20 |
63554 | Scan of spine for a patient 16 years or older, after referral by a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician), for suspected cervical radiculopathy (R) (Contrast) (Anaes.) | 358.40 |
63557 | Scan of spine for a patient 16 years or older, after referral by a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician), for suspected cervical spinal trauma (R) (Contrast) (Anaes.) | 492.80 |
63560 | Scan of knee following acute knee trauma, after referral by a medical practitioner (other than a specialist or consultant physician), for a patient 16 to 49 years with:
| 403.20 |
(2) If item 64990, 64991, 64992, 64993, 64994 or 64995 applies to a diagnostic imaging service, the fee specified in that item applies in addition to the fee specified in any other item in this Schedule that applies to the service.
(3) In this Schedule:
Commonwealth concession card holder has the same meaning asconcessional beneficiary has for the purposes of Part VII of theNational Health Act 1953 .practice location , for the provision of a diagnostic imaging service, means the place of practice for which the medical practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service is provided, has been allocated a provider number by the Chief Executive Medicare.unreferred service means a diagnostic imaging service that:(a) is provided to a person by, or on behalf of, a medical practitioner, being a medical practitioner who is not a consultant physician, or specialist, in any speciality (other than a medical practitioner who is, for the Act, both a general practitioner and a consultant physician, or specialist, in a particular speciality); and
(b) has not been referred to the medical practitioner by another medical practitioner or person with referring rights.
This clause sets out items in Group I6.
Note: The fees in Group I6 are indexed in accordance with clause 2.7.1.
64990 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64991, 64992, 64993, 64994 or 64995) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
(d) the service is bulk‑billed for the fees for:
| 7.15 |
64991 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64990, 64992, 64993, 64994 or 64995) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
(d) the service is bulk‑billed for the fees for:
| 10.80 |
64992 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64990, 64991, 64993, 64994 or 64995) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
| 11.55 |
64993 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64990, 64991, 64992, 64994 or 64995) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
| 12.25 |
64994 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64990, 64991, 64992, 64993 or 64995) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
| 13.00 |
64995 | A diagnostic imaging service to which an item in this Schedule (other than this item or item 64990, 64991, 64992, 64993 or 64994) applies if: (a) the service is an unreferred service; and
| 14.25 |
(1) At the start of 1 July 2025 (the
indexation time ), each amount covered by subclause (2) is replaced by the amount worked out using the following formula:Note: The indexed fees could in 2025 be viewed on the Department’s MBS Online website ( amounts covered by this subclause are the following:
(a) the fee for each item in the following:
(i) Group I1 (ultrasound services);
(ii) Group I2 (computer tomography services);
(iii) Group I3 (diagnostic radiology services);
(iiia) Subgroup 1 of Group I4 (nuclear medicine imaging services—non PET);
(iv) Group I5 (magnetic resonance imaging services);
(v) Group I6 (bulk‑billed services);
(b) the amount mentioned in each of subclauses 2.3.3(2) and (3) (increased fee for certain diagnostic radiology services carried out at residential aged care facilities).
(3) An amount worked out under subclause (1) is to be rounded up or down to the nearest 5 cents (rounding down if the amount is an exact multiple of 2.5 cents).
Note 1: All references in this clause to a provision are references to a provision in this Schedule, unless otherwise indicated.
Note 2: A number of expressions used in this Schedule are defined in subsection 3(1) of the Act, including the following:
(a) diagnostic imaging service;
(b) general medical services table;
(c) practitioner;
(d) Secretary;
(e) specialist.
Note 3: For the effect of the term (Anaes.) used in items in this Schedule, see subclause 5.9.4(1) of the general medical services table.
In this Schedule:
Act means theHealth Insurance Act 1973 .
angiography suite has the meaning given by clause 2.3.11.
applicable life age has the meaning given by subclause 1.2.2(2).
ASGC 2006 means the July 2006 edition ofStatistical Geography Volume 1 ‑ Australian Standard Geographical Classification (ASGC) (ABS catalogue number 1216.0), published by the Australian Statistician, as existing on 1 July 2020.
ASGC 2010 means the July 2010 edition of theAustralian Standard Geographical Classification (ASGC) (ABS catalogue number 1216.0), published by the Australian Statistician, as existing on 1 July 2020.
bulk‑billed : a diagnostic imaging service isbulk‑billed if:
(a) a medicare benefit is payable to a person in relation to the service; and
(b) under an agreement entered into under section 20A of the Act:
(i) the person assigns to the medical practitioner by whom, or on whose behalf, the service is provided, the person’s right to the payment of the medicare benefit; and
(ii) the medical practitioner accepts the assignment in full payment of the medical practitioner’s fee for the service provided.
care recipient has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Commonwealth concession card holder has the meaning given by clause 2.6.1.
comprehensive practice means a medical practice, or a radiology department of a hospital, that provides X‑ray, ultrasound and computed tomography services (whether or not it provides other services).
computed tomography orCT means a service performed (with or without intravenous contrast) using a detector:
(a) that is coupled to an X‑ray tube that emits a finely collimated X‑ray beam as it rotates within a gantry around a patient either in incremental or helical manner; and
(b) that receives a series of data profiles depicting the degree of absorption of the X‑ray beam, which are transformed into a cross‑sectional image after the application of complex algorithms.
cone beam computed tomography means a service performed on a rotating gantry to which an X‑ray source and a 2‑dimensional flat panel detector are fixed that produces multiple sequential planar projection images in a single revolution around the patient, which are reconstructed into a 3‑dimensional image.
consultation has the meaning given by clause 1.2.21.
CT :seecomputed tomography .
eligible provider , for an MRI or MRA service, has the meaning given by clause 2.5.4.
exemption period of an exemption means the period mentioned in paragraph 1.2.8(2)(a) (as extended or further extended under clause 1.2.10 if applicable).
FDG means18 F‑fluorodeoxyglucose.
(H) has the meaning given by subclause 1.2.15(3).
highest fee has the meaning given by clause 1.2.21.
Inner Regional Australia means a Remoteness Area classified as Inner Regional Australia under the ASGC 2006.
JNMCAC means the Joint Nuclear Medicine Credentialling and Accreditation Committee of the RACP and RANZCR.
maximum extended life age has the meaning given by subclause 1.2.2(3).
Modified Monash 1 area means an area that is not a Modified Monash 2 to 7 area.
Modified Monash 2 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Modified Monash 3 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Modified Monash 4 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Modified Monash 5 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Modified Monash 6 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
Modified Monash 7 area has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
MRA means magnetic resonance angiography.
MRI means magnetic resonance imaging.
new effective life age has the meaning given by subclause 1.2.2(3).
non‑consultation service has the meaning given by clause 1.2.21.
non‑metropolitan hospital means a hospital that is located outside the Sydney, Melbourne, Brisbane, Adelaide, Perth, Greater Hobart, Darwin and Canberra statistical divisions, as defined in the ASGC 2010.
(NR) has the meaning given by clause 1.2.15.
nuclear medicine credentialled specialist means a specialist or consultant physician whose name is included in a register, given to the Chief Executive Medicare by the JNMCAC, of participants in the Joint Nuclear Medicine Specialist Credentialling Program of the JNMCAC.
Outer Regional Australia means a Remoteness Area classified as Outer Regional Australia under the ASGC 2006.
PET means positron emission tomography.
PET credentialled specialist means:
(a) a specialist or consultant physician who is credentialled under the Joint Nuclear Medicine Specialist Credentialling Program for the Recognition of the Credentials of Nuclear Medicine Specialists for Positron Emission Tomography overseen by the JNMCAC; or
(b) a specialist or consultant physician who:
(i) is a Fellow of the RACP or RANZCR; and
(ii) has reported 400 or more studies forming part of PET services for which a Medicare benefit was payable; and
(iii) is authorised under State or Territory law to prescribe and administer to humans the PET radiopharmaceuticals that are to be administered to a person; and
(iv) met the requirements of subparagraphs (i), (ii) and (iii) before 1 November 2011.
practice location has the meaning given by clause 2.6.1.
providing practitioner has the same meaning as in subsection 16B(1) of the Act.
PSA is short for prostate specific antigen.
(R) has the meaning given by clause 1.2.15.
RACP means The Royal Australasian College of Physicians (ABN 90 270 343 237).
RANZCR means The Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Radiologists (ABN 37 000 029 863).
relevant proprietor has the meaning given by clause 1.2.4.
Remote Australia means a Remoteness Area classified as Remote Australia under the ASGC 2006.
remote location means a place within Australia that is more than 30 kilometres by road from:
(a) a hospital that provides a radiology or computed tomography service under the direction of a specialist in the specialty of diagnostic radiology; or
(b) a free‑standing radiology or computed tomography facility under the direction of a specialist in the specialty of diagnostic radiology.
report means a report prepared by a medical practitioner.
residential aged care facility has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
RRMA4 means a small rural centre as classified by the Rural, Remote and Metropolitan Areas Classification.
RRMA5 means a rural centre with an urban centre population of less than 10,000 persons as classified by the Rural, Remote and Metropolitan Areas Classification.
Rural, Remote and Metropolitan Areas Classification has the meaning given by the general medical services table.
scan , for items 63001 to 63563 and 63740 to 63743, has the meaning given by clause 2.5.7.
sequence , for a scan, means a series of images collected at the same time with similar image parameters (not including images designed to establish patient position and subsequently used to plan other scans).
unreferred service has the meaning given by clause 2.6.1.
upgraded has the meaning given by subclause 1.2.2(4).
Very Remote Australia means a Remoteness Area classified as Very Remote Australia under the ASGC 2006.
In this Division:
amending instrument means theHealth Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Amendment (Equipment Capital Sensitivity) Regulations 2022 .
commencement day means the day the amending instrument commences.
The amendments of clauses 1.2.8 and 1.2.10 of this instrument made by the amending instrument apply in relation to a decision on an application made by the Secretary on or after the commencement day, regardless of when the application was made.
In this Division:
amending instrument means the Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2024 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2024.
(1) The amendments of this instrument made by items 2 to 4 and 6 to 14 of Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the amending instrument apply in relation to a decision on an application made by the Secretary on or after 1 July 2024, regardless of when the application was made.
(2) The amendments of this instrument made by items 1 and 5 of Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the amending instrument apply in relation to applications made on or after 1 July 2024.
In this Division:
amending instrument means theHealth Insurance Legislation Amendment (2025 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2025 .
commencement day means the day the amending instrument commences.
pre‑commencement period , for relevant MRI equipment, means the period:
(a) that begins on the date from which the age of the equipment is worked out under subclause 1.2.2(1); and
(b) that ends immediately before the commencement day.
relevant MRI equipment means MRI equipment, in relation to which:
(a) immediately before the commencement day, both of the following apply:
(i) the equipment is located at the premises of a comprehensive practice located in a Modified Monash 1 area;
(ii) the equipment is neither eligible equipment nor partial eligible equipment (within the meaning of this instrument as in force immediately before the commencement day); and
(b) on and after the commencement day, all of the following apply:
(i) the equipment continues to be located at the premises of, and is included on the Diagnostic Imaging Register in relation to the location specific practice number for, the comprehensive practice;
(ii) the equipment is made available to the comprehensive practice by a person who is subject to a current deed with the Commonwealth that relates to the equipment so included on the Diagnostic Imaging Register;
(iii) the age of the equipment exceeds the new effective life age for MRI equipment.
Applicable life age (1) Despite subclause 1.2.2(2), the applicable life age for relevant MRI equipment is the maximum extended life age of the equipment if subclause (2) or (3) of this clause applies.
(2) This subclause applies to relevant MRI equipment if:
(a) an additional reasonable investment has been made during the pre‑commencement period for the equipment; and
(b) the investment improves the overall performance of the equipment so that it is equivalent to new MRI equipment supplied in Australia at the time of the improvement.
(3) This subclause applies to relevant MRI equipment if:
(a) the Secretary grants a validation under subclause 4.9(2) in respect of the equipment; and
(b) before the end of the period of 12 months beginning on the day the validation is granted, the equipment is improved such that its overall performance is equivalent to new MRI equipment supplied in Australia at the time of the improvement.
Restriction on items—services performed on validated relevant MRI equipment (4) If the Secretary grants a validation under subclause 4.9(2) in respect of relevant MRI equipment, an item in this Schedule does not apply to a service that is performed on that equipment on a day that is before the day the validation was granted.
Applying for validation (1) The relevant proprietor for relevant MRI equipment may apply to the Secretary for validation under clause 4.9 in respect of the equipment if:
(a) during the pre‑commencement period for the equipment, the relevant proprietor took steps to make an additional reasonable investment that would improve the overall performance of the equipment so that it would be equivalent to new MRI equipment supplied in Australia at the time of the improvement; and
(b) the improvement is not completed before the commencement day.
Note: For
relevant proprietor , see clause 1.2.4.(2) The application must:
(a) be in writing; and
(b) be made within the period of 3 months beginning on the commencement day; and
(c) set out:
(i) reasons why the proprietor was unable to complete the improvement before the commencement day; and
(ii) an explanation of how the equipment has been, or will be, improved; and
(iii) if the improvement has not been completed—the steps taken by the proprietor to ensure that it will be completed before the end of the period of 12 months beginning on the day the validation is granted, and the date on which it will be completed.
Notifying proprietor of receipt of application (3) If:
(a) the Secretary receives an application under subclause (1) for a validation in respect of the equipment; and
(b) the application complies with subclause (2);
the Secretary must notify the relevant proprietor for the equipment in writing that the Secretary has received the application.
Scope of this clause (1) This clause applies if, under subclause 4.8(3), the Secretary notifies the relevant proprietor for relevant MRI equipment that the Secretary has received an application for validation of the equipment.
Granting validation (2) The Secretary must, by notice in writing given to the proprietor:
(a) subject to subclause (3) of this clause, grant the validation; or
(b) refuse to grant the validation.
(3) The Secretary must not grant the validation unless the Secretary is satisfied that both of the following apply:
(a) due to circumstances beyond the control of the proprietor, the proprietor was unable to complete the improvement before the commencement day;
(b) the improvement has been or will be completed before the end of the period of 12 months beginning on the day the validation is granted.
(4) The Secretary must make a decision on the application under subclause (2) within 28 days after notifying the proprietor as mentioned in subclause (1).
Effect of validation on capital sensitivity requirements (5) If the Secretary grants a validation in relation to equipment that is still to be improved, clause 1.2.1 does not apply to a service that is performed on the equipment during the period:
(a) starting when the Secretary grants the validation; and
(b) ending on the earliest of the following:
(i) the day the improvement is completed;
(ii) the day that is 12 months after the day the validation is granted.
Note: If the improvement is completed as proposed within the period of 12 months beginning on the day the validation is granted, then the applicable life age of the equipment is the maximum extended life age of MRI equipment: see clause 4.7.
(1) For the purposes of a decision under clause 4.9 to refuse to grant a validation in respect of relevant MRI equipment, clauses 1.2.11 and 1.2.12 are modified as set out in this clause.
(2) Subclause 1.2.11(1) is modified by adding at the end of the subclause:
“; or (d) a decision under clause 4.9 to refuse to grant a validation in respect of relevant MRI equipment.”
(3) Clause 1.2.11 is modified by omitting subclause (6).
(4) Clause 1.2.12 is modified by omitting subclause (4).
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
The
If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe how an amendment is to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, then the misdescribed amendment can be incorporated through an editorial change made under section 15V of the
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the amendment is not incorporated and “(md not incorp)” is added to the amendment history.
ad = added or inserted | orig = original |
am = amended | p = page(s) |
amdt = amendment | para = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
ch = Chapter(s) | pres = present |
cl = clause(s) | prev = previous |
cont. = continued | (prev…) = previously |
def = definition(s) | pt = Part(s) |
Dict = Dictionary | r = regulation(s)/Court rule(s) |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | reloc = relocated |
div = Division(s) | renum = renumbered |
ed = editorial change | rep = repealed |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | rs = repealed and substituted |
effect | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
gaz = gazette | /rule(s)/subrule(s)/order(s)/suborder(s) |
LA = | sch = Schedule(s) |
LIA = | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given | SR = Statutory Rules |
effect | sub ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | sub div = Subdivision(s) |
cannot be given effect | sub pt = Subpart(s) |
mod = modified/modification | |
No. = Number(s) | commenced or to be commenced |
Ord = Ordinance |
Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Regulations (No. 2) 2020 | 15 June 2020 (F2020L00713) | 1 July 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2020 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2020 | 6 July 2020 (F2020L00882) | Sch 1 (items 1–4): 1 Aug 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (Bulk‑billing Incentive (No. 2)) Regulations 2020 | 23 Sept 2020 (F2020L01203) | Sch 1 (items 1, 2): 1 Oct 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2020 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2020 | 20 Oct 2020 (F2020L01330) | Sch 1 (items 150–152): 1 Nov 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Legislation Amendment (Administration) Regulations 2020 | 14 Dec 2020 (F2020L01602) | Sch 1 (item 1): 15 Dec 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2020 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2020 | 14 Dec 2020 (F2020L01608) | Sch 1 (items 10–24, 67, 69–80): 1 Mar 2021 (s 2(1) items 2, 4) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2021 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2021 | 2 June 2021 (F2021L00681) | Sch 1 (items 1–5, 8–33, 40–42, 96–100): 1 July 2021 (s 2(1) items 2–4) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2021 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2021 | 17 Sept 2021 (F2021L01281) | Sch 2: 1 Nov 2021 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (Rural Bulk‑billing Incentive) Regulations 2021 | 9 Dec 2021 (F2021L01748) | Sch 1 (items 1–8): 1 Jan 2022 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Amendment (Equipment Capital Sensitivity) Regulations 2021 | 9 Dec 2021 (F2021L01749) | 1 May 2022 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2021 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2021 | 17 Dec 2021 (F2021L01814) | Sch 1 (items 1–5): 1 Jan 2022 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2022 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2022 | 22 Mar 2022 (F2022L00367) | Sch 1 (items 1–3, 38, 39, 44–48): 1 July 2022 (s 2(1) items 2, 3) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2022 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2022 | 22 Aug 2022 (F2022L01099) | Sch 2: 1 Nov 2022 (s 2(1) item 2) | — |
Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Amendment (Equipment Capital Sensitivity) Regulations 2022 | 16 Sept 2022 (F2022L01220) | 17 Sept 2022 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2023 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2023 | 4 Apr 2023 (F2023L00416) | Sch 2 (items 1, 2) and Sch 3 (items 1–7): 1 July 2023 (s 2(1) items 3, 4) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2023 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2023 | 8 June 2023 (F2023L00744) | Sch 1 (items 1–4): 1 July 2023 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2023 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2023 | 16 Oct 2023 (F2023L01386) | Sch 2 (items 1, 2) and Sch 3: 1 Nov 2023 (s 2(1) items 3, 4) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2024 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2024 | 2 Feb 2024 (F2024L00134) | Sch 1 (items 50, 51): 1 Mar 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2024 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2024 | 23 May 2024 (F2024L00573) | Sch 1 (items 1, 2) and Sch 2 (items 1‑23): 1 July 2024 (s 2(1) items 2, 3) | — |
Health Insurance (Diagnostic Imaging Services Table) Amendment (Equipment Capital Sensitivity) Regulations 2024 | 29 Aug 2024 (F2024L01089) | sch 2: 1 Dec 2024 (s 2(1) item 3) Remainder: 30 Aug 2024 (s 2(1) items 1, 2) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2024 Measures No. 4) Regulations 2024 | 26 Sept 2024 (F2024L01219) | sch 1: 1 Nov 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Administrative Review Tribunal Legislation Consequential Amendments (2024 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2024 | 11 Oct 2024 (F2024L01299) | sch 7 (items 7–10): 14 Oct 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (Hospital‑Only Services and Other Measures) Regulations 2025 | 7 Feb 2025 (F2025L00092) | sch 1 (items 17–24): 1 Mar 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (Indexation) Regulations 2025 | 25 Feb 2025 (F2025L00190) | sch 1 (items 1–4): 1 July 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2025 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2025 | 3 June 2025 (F2025L00636) | sch 1 (items 1–15): 1 July 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Health Insurance Legislation Amendment (2025 Measures No. 3) Regulations 2025 | 3 Oct 2025 (F2025L01232) | sch 1 (items 53-62, 87, 88): 1 Nov 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
s 2............................................. | rep LA s 48D |
s 4............................................. | am F2020L01602 |
s 5............................................. | rep LA s 48C |
c 1.2.1........................................ | am F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.2........................................ | am F2024L01089 |
Subdivision B heading................. | rep F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.3........................................ | rep F2021L01749 |
c 1.2.5........................................ | rep F2021L01749 |
c 1.2.6........................................ | rep F2021L01749 |
Subdivision B heading................. | ad F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.7........................................ | am F2024L00573 |
c 1.2.8........................................ | am F2022L01220; F2024L00573 |
c 1.2.9........................................ | am F2024L00573 |
c 1.2.10...................................... | am F2022L01220; F2024L00573; F2024L01089 |
Subdivision BA | |
Subdivision BA........................... | ad F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.10A................................... | ad F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.10B.................................... | ad F2024L01089 |
Subdivision BB heading............... | ad F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.11...................................... | am F2021L01749; F2024L00573; F2024L01089 |
c 1.2.12...................................... | am F2024L01089; F2024L01299 |
c 1.2.13...................................... | am F2024L01299 |
c 1.2.14...................................... | rep F2024L00573 |
c 1.2.15...................................... | am F2025L00092 |
c 1.2.18...................................... | am F2022L00367; F2022L01099; F2023L01386 |
c 1.2.19...................................... | rep F2022L00367 |
c 1.2.20...................................... | rep F2021L01281 |
am F2021L01748 (amdt never applied (Sch 1 item 1)) | |
c 1.2.21...................................... | am F2020L01608; F2021L01281; F2021L01748 |
ed C8 | |
c 2.1.2A..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
c 2.1.3........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I1 Table........................... | am F2020L00882; F2020L01330; F2020L01608; F2021L00681; F2021L01281; F2024L00134; F2025L00092; F2025L01232 |
c 2.1.4........................................ | am F2022L01099 |
c 2.1.5........................................ | am F2022L01099 |
c 2.1.6........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I1 Table........................... | am F2022L01099 |
ed C12 | |
c 2.1.7........................................ | rep F2023L01386 |
c 2.1.10...................................... | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Subdivision E............................. | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.11...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.12...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.13...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.14...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.15...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.16...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.1.17...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
am F2021L01281 | |
c 2.1.18...................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
am F2022L00367 | |
Group I1 Table........................... | am F2021L00681 |
c 2.2.1........................................ | am F2021L00681 |
c 2.2.5A..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
c 2.2.6........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I2 Table........................... | am F2020L01608; F2021L00681; F2021L01281; F2023L01386; F2024L01219 |
c 2.3.3........................................ | rs F2020L01608 |
c 2.3.4........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814; F2025L01232 |
c 2.3.6........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I3 Table........................... | am F2023L00416 |
c 2.3.7........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I3 Table........................... | am F2021L00681; F2025L00092 |
c 2.3.8........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I3 Table........................... | am F2025L00092 |
c 2.3.9........................................ | am F2021L00681 |
c 2.3.10...................................... | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I3 Table........................... | am F2021L00681 |
c 2.3.12...................................... | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I3 Table........................... | am F2025L00092 |
c 2.4.1........................................ | am F2020L00882; F2020L01608 |
rs: F2024L00573 | |
c 2.4.1A..................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.4.1B..................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.4.1C..................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
c 2.4.1D..................................... | ad F2020L01608 |
rep F2021L00681 | |
c 2.4.2........................................ | am F2023L01386; F2025L01232 |
c 2.4.3........................................ | rs F2024L00573 |
am F2025L01232 | |
c 2.4.4........................................ | am F2024L00573; F2025L01232 |
c 2.4.5........................................ | am F2024L00573 |
rep F2025L01232 | |
Subdivision B heading................. | am F2020L01608 |
c 2.4.6........................................ | am F2020L01608; F2025L00190 |
Group I4 Table........................... | am F2020L00882; F2020L01608; F2021L00681 |
ed C6 | |
am F2021L01281; F2021L01814; F2022L00367; F2022L01099; F2023L00416; F2023L01386; F2024L01219; F2025L00636 | |
c 2.5.1........................................ | am F2022L01099; F2023L00744; F2025L00636; F2025L01232 |
c 2.5.4........................................ | am F2025L01232 |
c 2.5.5........................................ | am F2022L01099 |
rs F2025L00636 | |
c 2.5.6........................................ | am F2022L01099 |
rep F2025L00636 | |
c 2.5.7........................................ | am F2022L01099 |
c 2.5.8........................................ | rs F2021L01281 |
c 2.5.8A..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
c 2.5.8B..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
c 2.5.9........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01281; F2022L01099; F2023L00744 |
c 2.5.9A..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
am F2022L00367 | |
c 2.5.9B..................................... | ad F2021L01281 |
ed C7 | |
c 2.5.10...................................... | amF2022L00367 |
Group I5 Table........................... | am F2021L00681; F2021L01281; F2022L01099; F2024L00134 |
c 2.5.12...................................... | rep F2022L01099 |
c 2.5.13...................................... | amF2022L00367 |
Group I5 Table........................... | am F2021L00681; F2022L01099; F2024L00573; F2024L01219 |
c 2.5.13A................................... | ad F2022L01099 |
am F2023L00744 | |
c 2.5.14...................................... | am F2022L00367; F2023L00416; F2025L00636 |
Group I5 Table........................... | am F2022L01099; F2023L00416; F2025L00092 |
c 2.5.15...................................... | am F2022L00367 |
c 2.5.16...................................... | am F2022L00367 |
c 2.6.1........................................ | am F2021L01748 |
c 2.6.2........................................ | am F2021L00681; F2021L01814 |
Group I6 table............................. | am F2020L01203; F2021L01748 |
Division 2.7................................ | ad F2021L00681 |
c 2.7.1........................................ | ad F2021L00681 |
ed C6 | |
am F2022L00367; F2023L00416; F2023L01386; F2024L00573; F2025L00190 | |
c 3.1.......................................... | am F2020L01608; F2021L01281; F2021L01749; F2022L01099; F2024L00573; F2025L00092; F2025L01232 |
Part 4......................................... | rep F2021L01749 |
ad F2022L01220 | |
c 4.1.......................................... | rep F2021L01749 |
ad F2022L01220 | |
c 4.2.......................................... | rep F2021L01749 |
ad F2022L01220 | |
Division 2.................................. | ad F2024L00573 |
c 4.3.......................................... | ad F2024L00573 |
c 4.4.......................................... | ad F2024L00573 |
c 4.5.......................................... | ad F2024L00573 |
rep F2025L01232 | |
Division 3.................................. | ad F2025L00636 |
c 4.6.......................................... | ad F2025L00636 |
c 4.7.......................................... | ad F2025L00636 |
c 4.8.......................................... | ad F2025L00636 |
c 4.9.......................................... | ad F2025L00636 |
c 4.10......................................... | ad F2025L00636 |
Schedule 2.................................. | rep LA s 48C |
0
0
0