Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940 (Cth)

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Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940

Statutory Rules No. 163, 1940

made under the

Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984

Compilation No. 32

Compilation date: 1 December 2015

Includes amendments up to:SLI No. 216, 2015

Registered: 22 December 2015

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 December 2015 (the compilation date).

This compilation was prepared on 9 December 2015.

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on ComLaw ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on ComLaw for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on ComLaw for the compiled law.

Self‑repealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

      

Contents

Part IPreliminary  1Name of Regulations

 These Regulations are the Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940.

3Repeal

 The Electoral and Referendum Regulations (being Statutory Rules 1928, No. 80, as amended by Statutory Rules 1928, Nos. 107 and 117, and 1934, No. 100) are repealed.

5Interpretation
  • (1)

    In these Regulations, unless the contrary intention appears:

Australia’s Foreign Investment Framework means any of the following Acts and any instruments made under any of those Acts:

  • (a)

    the Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Act 1975;

  • (b)

    the Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Fees Imposition Act 2015;

  • (c)

    the Register of Foreign Ownership of Agricultural Land Act 2015.

referendum has the same meaning as in the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act.

Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act means the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984.

The Act means the Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918.

  • (3)

    A reference in these Regulations to an elector or a person qualified to be an elector of the Commonwealth shall be read as a reference to a person whose name appears on a Roll of electors under the Act or a person entitled to be enrolled on such a roll.

5APrescribed authorities

 For the definition of prescribed authority in subsection 4 (1) of the Act, the Agencies and authorities of the Commonwealth mentioned in Schedule 1 are specified.

Part IIElectoralDivision 1Enrolment6Arrangements with States – form of Roll

 For paragraph 84 (2) (a) of the Act, the manner in which a Roll may indicate that a person is not enrolled as a Commonwealth elector is to put a circle (o) before the person’s name on the Roll.

7Information on Rolls and certified lists of voters to be provided to particular people and organisations
  • (1)

    The organisations and persons specified in the following table are prescribed for the provisions of subsection 90B (4) of the Act specified in the following table:

Item

For this provision …

these organisations and persons are prescribed …

1

item 4 of the table in subsection 90B (4)

a prescribed authority

2

item 5 of the table in subsection 90B (4)

ACXIOM Australia Pty Limited

Betfair Pty Limited

Perceptive Communication Pty Ltd

The Global Data Company Pty. Ltd.

Veda Advantage Information Services and Solutions Limited

3

item 6 of the table in subsection 90B (4)

Betfair Pty Limited

4

item 7 of the table in subsection 90B (4)

ACXIOM Australia Pty Limited

Experian Asia Pacific Pty. Ltd.

Perceptive Communication Pty Ltd

The Global Data Company Pty. Ltd.

Veda Advantage Information Services and Solutions Limited

  • (2)

    For item 4 of the table in subsection 90B (4) of the Act, the provision to a prescribed authority of the information mentioned in that item is authorised.

8Permitted purposes for use of information: prescribed authorities

 For paragraph 91A (2AA) (b) of the Act, the purposes mentioned in an item of Schedule 1 are permitted purposes for the prescribed authority mentioned in the item.

8APermitted purposes for use of information: Australian Red Cross Blood Service

 For paragraph 91A (2A) (c) of the Act, the following purposes are prescribed for the Australian Red Cross Blood Service:

  • (a)

    contacting any blood donor who has tested positive for a blood‑borne infection;

  • (b)

    contacting any person who has received a transfusion of blood donated by a person mentioned in paragraph (a);

  • (c)

    contacting any donor whose blood was transfused to a person who has since tested positive for a blood‑borne infection;

  • (d)

    contacting any donor whose blood was transfused to a person who has had a suspected adverse reaction to the blood.

9Permitted purposes for use of information: other persons or organisations
  • (1)

    For paragraph 91A (2A) (c) of the Act, the following purposes are prescribed for a person or organisation that conducts medical research or provides a health screening program:

    • (a)

      the conduct of medical research in accordance with the Guidelines for the Protection of Privacy in the Conduct of Medical Research:

      • (i)

        issued by the National Health and Medical Research Council under subsection 95 (1) of the Privacy Act 1988; and

      • (ii)

        published in the Gazette on 22 March 2000;

    • (b)

      the provision of a public health screening program:

      • (i)

        approved by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Aged Care; and

      • (ii)

        conducted in accordance with the Guidelines for the Conduct of Public Health Screening Programs with particular reference to Privacy and the Management of Personal Information:

        • (A)

          issued by the Department of Human Services and Health; and

        • (B)

          published in the Gazette on 1 December 1993.

  • (2)

    For paragraph 91A (2B) (c) of the Act, the conduct of the election of delegates to the 2012 and 2013 Northern Territory Constitutional Convention is a permitted purpose.

13Provisional enrolment by applicant for citizenship – prescribed electors

For subparagraph 99B (4) (b) (i) of the Act and subparagraph 38 (4) (b) (i) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the classes of electors mentioned in Schedule 2 are prescribed.

13AEnrolment‑related claims or notices do not have to be signed in certain circumstances
  • (1)

    For subsection 382 (7) of the Act, the requirements that must be satisfied are:

    • (a)

      that the person include his or her date of birth on the claim or notice; and

    • (b)

      that the person include his or her driver’s licence number on the claim or notice.

  • (2)

    In this regulation:

claim or notice means a claim, application, notice, objection, request or other communication that is required or permitted to be sent to the Electoral Commissioner under any of the following provisions:

  • (a)

    Part VII of the Act;

  • (b)

    Part VIII of the Act, other than:

    • (i)

      subsection 98 (3); and

    • (ii)

      subsection 99A (5); and

    • (iii)

      subsection 99B (3); and

    • (iv)

      subsection 104 (3);

  • (c)

    section 184A of the Act;

  • (d)

    section 249 of the Act.

Part IIIElectoral and ReferendumDivision 1Conduct of Elections and Referendums40State referendum or vote (Act, s 394)
  • (1)

    This regulation applies if:

    • (a)

      the Governor‑General has authorised a State vote to be held or taken on the day appointed as polling day for a Commonwealth vote; and

    • (b)

      there is an arrangement between the Electoral Commission and the electoral authority of the State for the Electoral Commission to conduct the State vote.

  • (2)

    An officer who performs functions in relation to the Commonwealth vote may perform functions in relation to the State vote.

  • (3)

    Polling booths, ballot boxes and other facilities provided, and machinery or arrangements established, for the Commonwealth vote may be used for the State vote.

  • (4)

    Ballot papers for declaration votes in the State vote may be put in the envelopes used for ballot papers for declaration votes in the Commonwealth vote.

  • (5)

    Ballot papers used for the State vote may be placed in the ballot boxes used for the Commonwealth vote.

  • (6)

    In this regulation:

Commonwealth vote means:

  • (a)

    an election of the Senate; or

  • (b)

    a general election of the House of Representatives; or

  • (c)

    a by‑election to elect a member of the House of Representatives; or

  • (d)

    a referendum held under the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984.

State has the meaning given by section 394 of the Act.

State vote means an election, referendum or vote of the electors of a State or part of a State to be held or taken under a law of the State.

Division 2Electronically assisted voting for sight‑impaired people41Definitions for Division 2

 In this Division:

authorised call centre means a call centre established in accordance with arrangements made by the Electoral Commissioner under subregulation 42 (1).

call centre operator means a person who:

  • (a)

    works in an authorised call centre; and

  • (b)

    is a pre‑poll voting officer under subsection 4 (1) of the Act.

electronically assisted vote means a vote cast using the electronically assisted voting method.

electronically assisted voting means voting by an electronically assisted vote.

electronically assisted voting method means the procedures determined under subregulation 46 (1) for enabling a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.

officer means an officer mentioned in subsection 202A (2) of the Act.

reference Roll means a Roll that may be consulted by an officer if a voter wishes to vote by an electronically assisted vote.

registered sight‑impaired voter means a sight‑impaired person who is registered with the Electoral Commissioner for the purpose of voting by an electronically assisted vote.

sight‑impaired person has the meaning given by section 202AA of the Act.

Note: certified list of voters is defined in subsection 4 (1) of the Act.

42Authorised call centres
  • (1)

    The Electoral Commissioner must make arrangements for the establishment of one or more call centres to receive telephone calls from sight‑impaired persons who wish to:

    • (a)

      register for the purpose of being eligible to vote by an electronically assisted vote; or

    • (b)

      vote by an electronically assisted vote.

  • (2)

    The Electoral Commissioner may approve forms and other documents to be used by call centre operators and other officers for the purpose of:

    • (a)

      registering a sight‑impaired person for the purpose of being eligible to vote by an electronically assisted vote; and

    • (b)

      assisting a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.

    Example

    Statements and responses that allow call centre operators to explain to a sight‑impaired person how to register or vote.

43Registration
  • (1)

    The Electoral Commissioner must determine, in writing:

    • (a)

      the days on which and times when a person may apply to be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter; and

    • (b)

      procedures for assessing whether a person may be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter.

    Note: The procedures may include requirements for the person to:

    (a) be on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll; and

    (b) affirm that he or she is sight‑impaired.

  • (2)

    A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.

  • (3)

    A person who wishes to apply to be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter must:

    • (a)

      contact an authorised call centre on a day and time determined under paragraph (1) (a); and

    • (b)

      comply with the procedures determined under paragraph (1) (b).

  • (4)

    The Electoral Commissioner must:

    • (a)

      register a person who complies with subregulation (3) as a registered sight‑impaired voter; and

    • (b)

      make and keep a register for that purpose.

    Note: The person will have a personal identification number and a registration number for requesting an electronically assisted vote.

  • (5)

    A registered sight‑impaired voter may vote by an electronically assisted vote at:

    • (a)

      a general election; and

    • (b)

      a Senate election; and

    • (c)

      a by‑election; and

    • (d)

      a referendum.

44Who is entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote
  • (1)

    The Electoral Commissioner:

    • (a)

      must determine, in writing, the days on which and times when electronically assisted voting is to be available; and

    • (b)

      must determine, in writing, procedures for assessing whether a person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; and

    • (c)

      may give directions to officers in relation to requests for voting by an electronically assisted vote.

    Example for paragraph (b)

    If a call centre operator is not satisfied that a person is the registered sight‑impaired voter whose name the person has used, the procedures may include a requirement for the operator to ask the person one or more questions about information provided on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll about the voter whose name the person has used.

  • (2)

    A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.

  • (3)

    A person is entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote if:

    • (a)

      the person calls an authorised call centre on a day on which and at a time when electronically assisted voting is available; and

    • (b)

      the person informs a call centre operator that the person wishes to vote by an electronically assisted vote; and

    • (c)

      a call centre operator is satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; and

    • (d)

      the person’s name is on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll.

  • (4)

    A person is not entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote if:

    • (a)

      the person does not call an authorised call centre on a day on which and at a time when electronically assisted voting is available; or

    • (b)

      a call centre operator is not satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter after complying with the procedures for assessing whether the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; or

    • (c)

      the person’s name is not on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll; or

    • (d)

      the person refuses to answer a question asked in accordance with subregulation 45 (2); or

    • (e)

      the person answers Question 3 in subregulation 45 (2) in the affirmative; or

    • (f)

      the person has already voted; or

    • (g)

      the person is provisionally enrolled; or

    • (h)

      on the basis of any of the person’s answers to questions mentioned in regulation 45, a call centre operator is not satisfied that the person is the voter whose name the person has used; or

    • (i)

      the person does not otherwise comply with the procedures for:

      • (i)

        assessing whether the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; or

      • (ii)

        voting by an electronically assisted vote.

    Note: The person may be eligible to vote by an assisted provisional vote on polling day or an assisted pre‑poll vote.

45Electronically assisted voting – questions to be put to person
  • (1)

    If a person requests an electronically assisted vote, a call centre operator must be satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter in accordance with the procedures determined under paragraph 44 (1) (b).

    Note: The person will have a personal identification number and a registration number for requesting an electronically assisted vote.

  • (2)

    If the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter, a call centre operator must then ask the person the appropriate question from the following questions:

    • (1)

      Have you voted before in this election?

    • (2)

      Have you voted before in these elections?

    • (3)

      Have you voted before in this by‑election?

    • (4)

      Have you voted before in this referendum?

46Enabling registered sight‑impaired voter to vote
  • (1)

    The Electoral Commissioner must determine, in writing, procedures for enabling a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.

    Examples

1   The procedures may require a call centre operator to ensure that the voter:

(a) receives the same information (in the same order), and has the same voting options, as would appear in the ballot paper for the election that the voter would be given if the voter were voting under Part XVI of the Act; and

(b) is able to indicate the voter’s vote in a way that, if the voter were marking a ballot paper, would satisfy the requirements of section 239 or 240 of the Act.

2   The procedures may permit the voter’s ballot papers to be checked to ensure that they have been marked in accordance with the voter’s instructions (if any).

  • (2)

    A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.

  • (3)

    A call centre operator who is satisfied that a registered sight‑impaired voter is entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote must assist the voter in accordance with the procedures determined under subregulation (1).

  • (4)

    The voter may tell the call centre operator how the voter wants the ballot papers to be marked.

  • (5)

    If the voter tells the call centre operator how the voter wants the ballot papers to be marked, the call centre operator must:

    • (a)

      initial the voter’s ballot papers on the top front of each ballot paper; and

    • (b)

      mark the voter’s ballot papers in accordance with the voter’s instructions; and

    • (c)

      read the voter’s voting preferences back to the voter; and

    • (d)

      put the voter’s ballot papers in an envelope marked with the name of the voter’s Division; and

    • (e)

      place the envelope in a ballot box used at the authorised call centre for electronically assisted voting.

47Requirements relating to ballot boxes

The requirements in relation to ballot boxes in Subdivision C of Division 3 of Part IVA of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, other than section 73CR, are taken to apply to ballot boxes used at an authorised call centre for electronically assisted voting as if the electronically assisted voting were ordinary pre‑poll voting.

48Role of scrutineers – authorised call centre
  • (1)

    A candidate in an election for which electronically assisted voting is available may appoint one scrutineer to attend an authorised call centre for the purpose of monitoring the duties of call centre operators.

  • (2)

    The appointment of a scrutineer must be made by notice, in writing:

    • (a)

      addressed to the Returning Officer; and

    • (b)

      signed by the candidate; and

    • (c)

      stating the scrutineer’s name and address.

  • (3)

    A scrutineer who has not complied with subsection 202A (3) of the Act must not attend an authorised call centre to discharge a scrutineer’s functions.

  • (4)

    A scrutineer commits an offence if:

    • (a)

      the scrutineer attends an authorised call centre; and

    • (b)

      the scrutineer attempts to interfere with the duties of a call centre operator or an Assistant Returning Officer.

 Penalty: 5 penalty units.

  • (5)

    A scrutineer commits an offence if:

    • (a)

      the scrutineer attends an authorised call centre; and

    • (b)

      the scrutineer communicates with a person in the authorised call centre; and

    • (c)

      the communication is not reasonably necessary for the discharge of the scrutineer’s functions.

 Penalty: 5 penalty units.

49Record of electronically assisted votes
  • (1)

    The Electoral Commissioner must make a record of an electronically assisted vote.

  • (2)

    The record of an electronically assisted vote must be:

    • (a)

      a mark on an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters beside the voter’s name; or

    • (b)

      a record on a document other than an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters which states:

      • (i)

        the voter’s name (whether or not it also states the voter’s address or date of birth); and

      • (ii)

        the Division in which the voter is enrolled to vote.

  • (3)

    If the record is in the form mentioned in paragraph (2) (b):

    • (a)

      it must be forwarded to a Divisional Returning Officer for the Division in which the voter is enrolled to vote; and

    • (b)

      the Divisional Returning Officer must place a mark beside the voter’s name on an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters.

50What must be done with the voter’s ballot papers
  • (1)

    As soon as the close of the poll for all Divisions, an Assistant Returning Officer must:

    • (a)

      open each ballot box mentioned in paragraph 46 (5) (e); and

    • (b)

      sort the envelopes, unopened, into bundles corresponding to Divisions.

  • (2)

    An Assistant Returning Officer must forward each bundle to a Divisional Returning Officer for the appropriate Division for the conduct of a scrutiny.

  • (3)

    A person commits an offence if the person:

    • (a)

      is not an Assistant Returning Officer, or a person performing tasks under the direction of an Assistant Returning Officer; and

    • (b)

      performs a duty mentioned in subregulation (1) or (2).

 Penalty: 5 penalty units.

  • (4)

    An offence under subregulation (3) is an offence of strict liability.

    Note: Forstrict liability, see section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.

51Scrutiny of ballot papers
  • (1)

    For the purpose of conducting a scrutiny of the ballot papers forwarded by the Assistant Returning Officer under subregulation 50 (2), the Divisional Returning Officer must conduct the scrutiny.

  • (2)

    The procedures in Part XVIII of the Act apply to the scrutiny with the modifications necessary to ensure that:

    • (a)

      no preliminary scrutiny mentioned in section 266 of the Act is to be conducted; and

    • (b)

      the electronically assisted vote is taken to be a pre‑poll ordinary vote; and

    • (c)

      it is irrelevant that the voter did not complete the ballot paper personally; and

    • (d)

      it is irrelevant that the vote can be identified as being cast by a sight‑impaired person.

  • (3)

    A person commits an offence if the person:

    • (a)

      is not the Divisional Returning Officer, or a person performing tasks under the direction of the Divisional Returning Officer; and

    • (b)

      conducts the scrutiny.

 Penalty: 5 penalty units.

  • (4)

    An offence under subregulation (3) is an offence of strict liability.

    Note: Forstrict liability, see section 6.1 of the Criminal Code.

52Offences related to electronically assisted voting
  • (1)

    A person commits an offence if the person:

    • (a)

      interferes with a voter while the voter votes by an electronically assisted vote; or

    • (b)

      communicates with a voter who votes by an electronically assisted vote about the voter’s vote; or

    • (c)

      does anything to find out how a voter who votes by an electronically assisted vote voted.

    Penalty: 5 penalty units.

  • (2)

    For subregulation (1), it is a defence if the person is a call centre operator who is assisting the voter to vote.

53Protection of electronic voting hardware or software
  • (1)

    A person commits an offence if:

    • (a)

      he or she destroys or interferes with:

      • (i)

        a computer program; or

      • (ii)

        a data file; or

      • (iii)

        an electronic device; and

    • (b)

      the program, file or device is used, or intended to be used, for or in connection with electronically assisted voting.

    Penalty: 5 penalty units.

  • (2)

    For subregulation (1), it is a defence if the person is an officer acting in the course of his or her duties.

Division 7Enforcement of law in relation to compulsory voting81Proceedings in Court on failure of elector to vote
  • (1)

    In proceedings which are instituted in a Court of summary jurisdiction against an elector for a contravention of subsection 245 (15) of the Act or subsection 45 (14) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the Divisional Returning Officer must send to the Court the elector’s reply (if any) under subparagraph 245 (5) (c) (i) or (ii) of the Act or subparagraph 45 (5) (c) (i) or (ii) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act.

  • (2)

    The Court shall, whether the defendant is present or not, consider the contents of the reply as if it were given in evidence before the Court.

83Evidence in Court of summary jurisdiction
  • (1)

    If, in a prosecution in a Court of summary jurisdiction against an elector for a contravention of subsection 245 (15) or (15C) of the Act or subsection 45 (14) or (14C) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the prosecuting officer lodges with the Court a statutory declaration and a certified extract in the approved form, the officer is not required to attend the hearing.

  • (2)

    Where a statutory declaration and certified extract have been lodged as provided by this regulation, and the prosecuting officer is not present at the hearing, the Court shall proceed with the hearing and determination of the case in his absence, and shall consider the statutory declaration and certified extract as if the matter set out therein had been given in evidence before it, and shall, notwithstanding the absence of the prosecuting officer, permit evidence to be given for the prosecution of any witness who is summoned by, or attends on behalf of, the prosecuting officer.

  • (3)

    For the purposes of this regulation, any document purporting to be a statutory declaration shall be accepted as such by the Court without proof of the signatures thereon or proof of the authority of the person before whom it purports to have been made to take statutory declarations.

Part IVApplication and transitional provisions  84Application – use of information by the ATO and Treasury

The amendments of the table in Schedule 1 to these Regulations by the Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Legislation Amendment Regulation 2015 apply in relation to the use of information by a person or organisation after those amendments commence, whether the information is given to the person or organisation before or after that time.

Schedule 1Prescribed authorities and permitted purposes for use of information

(regulations 5A and 8)

  

Item

Agency or authority

Purpose

1

Australia Post

Investigating postal and criminal offences committed against the Commonwealth under the Australian Postal Corporation Act 1989 or the Crimes Act 1914

1AA

Australian Bureau of Statistics

Collecting, compiling, analysing and disseminating statistics and related information

1A

Australian Commission for Law Enforcement Integrity

(a) Identifying or locating offenders, suspects or witnesses in relation to the investigation of, or reporting on, a corruption issue within the meaning of the Law Enforcement Integrity Commissioner Act 2006 (the LEIC Act)

(b) Collecting, correlating, analysing or disseminating information or intelligence in relation to:

(i) corruption generally in a law enforcement agency within the meaning of the LEIC Act (a LEIC agency); or

(ii) the integrity of a staff member of a LEIC agency

(c) Collecting, correlating, analysing or disseminating information or intelligence in relation to corruption generally in, or the integrity of a staff member of, a Commonwealth government agency (other than a LEIC agency) that has a law enforcement function within the meaning of the LEIC Act

(d) Security vetting of employees or potential employees

2

Australian Communications and Media Authority

Identifying offences relating to interference with radiocommunications or telecommunications

3

Australian Competition and Consumer Commission

(a) Identifying or locating offenders, suspects or witnesses

(b) Verifying the identity of individuals for enforcement of the criminal law or of a law imposing a pecuniary penalty in relation to the Trade Practices Act 1974

4

Australian Crime Commission

(a) Collecting, correlating, analysing and disseminating criminal information and intelligence

(b) Undertaking intelligence operations

(c) Investigating matters relating to relevant criminal activity

(d) Assembling or analysing evidence about offences and suspected offences

(e) Conducting criminal and operational investigations to support authorised national security functions

(f) Security vetting of employees or potential employees

6

Australian Federal Police (AFP)

(a) Identifying or locating offenders, suspects or witnesses

(b) Deciding whether suspects can be eliminated from an investigation

(c) Target development

(d) Intelligence checks

(e) Protecting the safety of officers, staff members, AFP employees and special members

(f) Law enforcement

(g) Surveillance

(h) Identification of potential or actual disaster victims, and notification of victims’ families

(i) Security vetting of AFP officers or potential AFP officers

7

Australian Securities and Investments Commission

(a) Identifying or locating suspects or witnesses

(b) Surveillance

(c) Law enforcement

8

Australian Security Intelligence Organisation

(a) Confirming the identity of Australian citizens to determine whether or not they are of security interest

(b) Security vetting of employees or potential employees

9

Australian Taxation Office (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Commissioner of Taxation and staff)

(a) Identifying or locating taxpayers

(b) Preventing, detecting or investigating taxation fraud

(c) Administering Australia’s Foreign Investment Framework

10

Australian Transactions Reports and Analysis Centre

Conducting investigations in relation to the enforcement of:

(a) the criminal law; or

(b) a law imposing a pecuniary penalty

regarding the Financial Transaction Reports Act 1988

12

ComSuper (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Commissioner for Superannuation and staff)

Locating members and former members for the purpose of protecting public revenue in relation to the payment of benefits, the recovery of overpayments and the review of entitlement to benefit

13

Department of Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry

Identifying individuals suspected of breaching legislation administered by the Australian Quarantine and Inspection Service

14

Department of Defence

(a) Identifying or locating an individual suspected of fraud or another criminal offence under:

(i) a law of the Commonwealth administered by the Department of Defence; or

(ii) another law of the Commonwealth, or a law of a State or Territory, that is connected with:

(A) the defence of Australia; or

(B) the operations or activities of the Department of Defence

(b) Security vetting of employees or potential employees

15

Department of Education, Science and Training

Preventing, detecting or investigating fraud and other criminal offences in relation to the Department’s programs and public money managed by the Department

16

Department of Employment and Workplace Relations

Identifying or locating suspects, debtors or witnesses in relation to criminal investigations

16A

Department of the Environment and Water Resources

Verifying the principal place of residence of applicants under the Photovoltaic Rebate Programme and the Solar Hot Water Rebate Programme

17

Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade

(a) Confirming the identity of passport applicants or identifiers of documents

(b) Verifying information relating to a passport or an application for a passport

(c) Locating parents who have not lodged an application for a passport, in connection with seeking consent to issue a passport to a minor

(d) Assisting in consular operations to locate next‑of‑kin in Australia

18

Department of Human Services

(a) Preventing and detecting fraud relating to identity or incorrect payments

(b) Identifying or locating clients for debt management, determination or correction purposes

(c) Undertaking compliance, investigation or enforcement activities relating to the Chief Executive Medicare’s functions under section 5 of the Human Services (Medicare) Act 1973

(d) Recovering overpayments or other amounts due to the Commonwealth in relation to the performance of the Chief Executive Medicare’s functions under section 5 of the Human Services (Medicare) Act 1973

19

Department administered by the Minister administering the Australian Border Force Act 2015

(a) verifying the identity or status of travellers and consignees of cargo or postal articles; or

(b) verifying the identity and status of importers and exporters; or

(c) checking the accuracy of information given to that Department or to a Collector (within the meaning of the Customs Act 1901); or

(d) verifying the identity of individuals on behalf of:

(i) the government of another country; or

(ii) a law enforcement administration under an international agreement or arrangement; or

(e) surveillance purposes; or

(f) facilitating travel to Australia, or entry to Australia, for an Australian citizen who may have lost his or her passport; or

(g) enabling airport officers to identify travellers and confirm their status; or

(h) assisting investigations and compliance staff in the detection of persons suspected of:

(i) being in Australia unlawfully; or

(ii) working without authority; or

(iii) being involved in people smuggling; or

(iv) committing offences against legislation administered by that Department

19A

Department of the Treasury

Administering Australia’s Foreign Investment Framework, except the Register of Foreign Ownership of Agricultural Land Act 2015 and any instrument made under that Act

20

Department of Veterans’ Affairs

(a) Undertaking reviews of, or research into, the health of former members of the Defence Force

(b) Protection of the public revenue in relation to reviews of entitlement to benefit

21

Director of Public Prosecutions

Verifying the identity of, or locating, persons of interest in relation to property ownership matters conducted under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

21A

Federal Court of Australia (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Registrar and the APS employees assisting the Registrar)

(a) Preparing a written jury roll for a jury district

(b) Determining if a person included on a jury list is not qualified to serve as a juror or should be excused from serving as a juror

(c) Giving the Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police the name and other details of any or all of the persons included on a jury list so that the Commissioner may give information about the criminal history (if any) of each of those persons

(d) Disclosing to an officer responsible for convening juries for trials before a court of a State or Territory information identifying a juror or former juror so that the officer can consider whether to summons the juror or former juror when convening a trial before the State or Territory court

Note  The purposes described in this item relate to functions performed under Division 1A of Part III of the Federal Court of Australia Act 1976.

22

Insolvency and Trustee Service of Australia

(a) Locating and investigating bankrupts and their associates in relation to obligations under the Bankruptcy Act 1966

(b) Conducting criminal investigations in relation to the Bankruptcy Act 1966

(c) Investigating identity fraud

Schedule 2Prescribed electors

(regulation 13)

   

Item

Class of elector

1

Accountant who is a registered tax agent

2

Bank officer, except the manager of a bank travel centre

3

Building society officer

4

Chairperson or Committee member of an incorporated Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander organisation

5

Chartered professional engineer

6

Clerk, sheriff or bailiff of a court

7

Commissioner for Affidavits of a State or Territory

8

Commissioner for Declarations of a State or Territory

9

Commissioner for Oaths of a State or Territory

10

Credit union officer

11

Diplomatic or consular officer, except an honorary consular officer, of an Australian embassy, high commission, or consulate

12

Finance company officer, where the company borrows or lends or otherwise deals in finance as its principal or characteristic activity

13

Full‑time or permanent part‑time employee of the Commonwealth, or a State or Territory, or a Commonwealth, State or Territory authority

14

Full‑time or permanent part‑time teacher currently employed at a school or tertiary institution

15

Holder of a current liquor licence

16

Holder of a current pilot’s licence

17

Holder of a statutory office for which an annual salary is payable

18

Licensed or registered real estate agent

19

Manager of a building society or credit union

20

Manager of a community, ethnic or remote resource centre

21

Manager of a women’s refuge, or of a crisis and counselling service that provides counselling or assistance to victims of domestic violence, sexual assault or sexual abuse

22

Marriage celebrant within the meaning of the Marriage Act 1961

23

Marriage counsellor within the meaning of the Family Law Act 1975

24

Master of a merchant vessel

25

Member of the Association of Consulting Engineers

26

Member of the Association of Taxation and Management Accountants

27

Member of the Australian Defence Force

28

Member of the ground staff of an airline that operates a regular passenger service

29

Member of the Institute of Company Secretaries of Australia

30

Member of the staff of a person who is a member of:

(a) the parliament of the Commonwealth or a State; or

(b) the legislature of a Territory; or

(c) a local government authority of a State or Territory

31

Member of the staff of a State or Territory electoral authority

32

Member of the staff of the Australian Electoral Commission

33

Minister of religion within the meaning of the Marriage Act 1961

34

Person employed as a remote resource centre visitor

35

Police aide

36

Postal manager or other permanent Australia Post employee

37

Prison officer

38

Registered dentist

39

Registered medical practitioner

40

Registered nurse or enrolled nurse

41

Registered or licensed surveyor

42

Registered pharmacist

43

Registered physiotherapist

44

A person who is not described in a preceding item in this Schedule before whom statutory declarations may be made under a law of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory

Endnotes

Endnote 1About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Endnotes about misdescribed amendments and other matters are included in a compilation only as necessary.

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

Endnote 2Abbreviation key

A = Act

o = order(s)

ad = added or inserted

Ord = Ordinance

am = amended

orig = original

amdt = amendment

par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)

c = clause(s)

 /sub‑subparagraph(s)

C[x] = Compilation No. x

pres = present

Ch = Chapter(s)

prev = previous

def = definition(s)

(prev…) = previously

Dict = Dictionary

Pt = Part(s)

disallowed = disallowed by Parliament

r = regulation(s)/rule(s)

Div = Division(s)

Reg = Regulation/Regulations

exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have

reloc = relocated

 effect

renum = renumbered

F = Federal Register of Legislative Instruments

rep = repealed

gaz = gazette

rs = repealed and substituted

LI = Legislative Instrument

s = section(s)/subsection(s)

LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003

Sch = Schedule(s)

(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given

Sdiv = Subdivision(s)

 effect

SLI = Select Legislative Instrument

(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment

SR = Statutory Rules

 cannot be given effect

Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s)

mod = modified/modification

SubPt = Subpart(s)

No. = Number(s)

underlining = whole or part not

 commenced or to be commenced

Endnote 3Legislation history

Number and year

Gazettal or FRLI registration

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

1940 No. 163 (a)

15 Aug 1940

15 Aug 1940

1949 No. 62 (a)

15 Sept 1949

15 Sept 1949

1954 No. 27 (a)

8 Apr 1954

8 Apr 1954

1961 No. 103 (a)

10 Aug 1961

10 Aug 1961

1966 No. 140 (a)

13 Oct 1966

13 Oct 1966

1973 No. 62 (a)

21 Mar 1973

21 Mar 1973

1974 No. 44 (a)

9 Apr 1974

9 Apr 1974

1980 No. 241 (b)

27 Aug 1980

27 Aug 1980

1981 No. 80 (a)

6 May 1981

6 May 1981

1981 No. 84 (a)

6 May 1981

6 May 1981

1983 No. 114 (a)

29 July 1983

29 July 1983

1983 No. 153 (a)

1 Sept 1983

1 Sept 1983

r. 5

1983 No. 176 (a)

22 Sept 1983

22 Sept 1983

1983 No. 181 (a)

22 Sept 1983

22 Sept 1983

1983 No. 235 (a)

28 Oct 1983

28 Oct 1983

1983 No. 274 (a)

18 Nov 1983

18 Nov 1983

1983 No. 313 (a)

16 Dec 1983

26 Jan 1984

1984 No. 287

18 Oct 1984

18 Oct 1984

1987 No. 118

15 June 1987

15 June 1987

1987 No. 119

15 June 1987

15 June 1987

1988 No. 182

25 July 1988

25 July 1988

1988 No. 339 (b)

21 Dec 1988

21 Dec 1988

1989 No. 32 (b)

13 Mar 1989

13 Mar 1989

1990 No. 33 (b)

19 Feb 1990

19 Feb 1990

1990 No. 334 (b)

18 Oct 1990

18 Oct 1990

1992 No. 422

24 Dec 1992

24 Dec 1992

1993 No. 28

12 Feb 1993

12 Feb 1993

1993 No. 356

23 Dec 1993

23 Dec 1993

1995 No. 21 (b)

28 Feb 1995

28 Feb 1995

1995 No. 190

30 June 1995

1 July 1995

1995 No. 322

3 Nov 1995

6 Nov 1995 (see r. 1 and Gazette 1995, No. S423)

1997 No. 411(b)

24 Dec 1997

24 Dec 1997

1998 No. 57(b)

8 Apr 1998

8 Apr 1998

1998 No. 296

7 Sept 1998

7 Sept 1998

2000 No. 47

19 Apr 2000

19 Apr 2000

2000 No. 196 (b)

25 July 2000

25 July 2000

2000 No. 355 (b)

20 Dec 2000

20 Dec 2000

2001 No. 248 (c)

14 Sept 2001

(see r. 2)

2001 No. 340

21 Dec 2001

21 Dec 2001

2002 No. 117

14 June 2002

14 June 2002

2002 No. 326

20 Dec 2002

1 Jan 2003 (see r. 3)

2003 No. 188

24 July 2003

24 July 2003

2004 No. 299

7 Sept 2004

7 Sept 2004

2005 No. 125

17 June 2005 (see F2005L01468)

18 June 2005

2005 No. 319

19 Dec 2005 (see F2005L04017)

20 Dec 2005

2006 No. 350

15 Dec 2006 (see F2006L03833)

16 Apr 2007

2007 No. 83

13 Apr 2007 (see F2007L01003)

16 Apr 2007

2007 No. 251

24 Aug 2007 (see F2007L02598)

25 Aug 2007

2007 No. 270

11 Sept 2007 (see F2007L03545)

1 Aug 2007 (see r. 2)

2007 No. 271

11 Sept 2007 (see F2007L03546)

12 Sept 2007

2007 No. 254

19 Oct 2007 (see F2007L04094)

20 Oct 2007

2008 No. 3

30 Jan 2008 (see F2008L00187)

31 Jan 2008

2008 No. 70

2 May 2008 (see F2008L01223)

3 May 2008

2010 No. 79

10 May 2010 (see F2010L00975)

11 May 2010

2010 No. 226

20 July 2010 (see F2010L02130)

19 July 2010 (see r. 2 and F2010L02126)

2010 No. 227

20 July 2010 (see F2010L02131)

19 July 2010 (see r. 2 and F2010L02126)

No 120, 2011

30 June 2011 (F2011L01364)

1 July 2011 (r 2)

No 190, 2011

21 Oct 2011 (F2011L02106)

22 Oct 2011 (r 2)

No 218, 2011

25 Nov 2011 (F2011L02445)

26 Nov 2011 (r 2)

No 157, 2012

2 July 2012 (F2012L01487)

3 July 2012 (r 2)

No 90, 2015

19 June 2015 (F2015L00854)

1 July 2015 (s 2(1) item 2)

No 216, 2015

27 Nov 2015 (F2015L01860)

Sch 2: 1 Dec 2015 (s 2(1) item 1)

(a) Section 145 and Schedule 2 of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984 provide as follows:

  • (1)

    The Acts specified in Schedule 2 are repealed.

(2) Notwithstanding the repeal effected by subsection (1), the regulations that were, immediately before the commencement of this Act, in force under the Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and the Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906 shall, in so far as those regulations relate to referendums, continue in force, to the extent to which they are consistent with this Act, as if:

(a) those regulations had been made under that first‑mentioned Act and under this Act;

(b) a reference in those regulations to a State, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to the Australian Capital Territory and the Northern Territory;

(c) a reference in those regulations to the Australian Electoral Officer for a State, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to the Australian Electoral Officers for the Territories;

(d) a reference in those regulations to a Division, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to an Electoral Division of the Australian Capital Territory and to the Northern Territory; and

(e) a reference in those regulations to the Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906 or to a particular provision of that Act were a reference to this Act or to the corresponding provision (if any) of this Act, as the case may be.

(3) Nothing in subsection (2) prevents the making of regulations under this Act or under the Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and under this Act to repeal or amend the regulations that are continued in force by that subsection.

Schedule 2

(section 145)

REPEALED ACTS

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1909

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1910

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1912

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1912 (No. 2)

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1915

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1919

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1926

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1928

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1936

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1965

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act (No. 2) 1965

Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Modification Act 1977

Statutory Rules 1940 No. 163; 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140; 1973 No. 62; 1974 No. 44; 1981 Nos. 80 and 84; 1983 Nos. 114, 153, 176, 181, 235, 274 and 313 were made under the Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and the Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906.

(b) Statutory Rules 1980 No. 241; 1988 No. 339; 1989 No. 32; 1990 Nos. 33 and 334; 1995 No. 21; 1997 No. 411; 1998 No. 57 and 2000 Nos. 196 and 355 were made under the Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918.

(c) Statutory Rules 2001 No. 248 was disallowed by the Senate on 15 May 2002.

Endnote 4Amendment history

Provision affected

How affected

Part I

r. 1........................................

rs. 1998 No. 296

r. 2........................................

rs. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 4........................................

rep. 1983 No. 235

r. 4A.....................................

ad. 1973 No. 62

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 5........................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287; 1990 No. 334; 1992 No. 422; 2000 No. 196; 2005 No. 125; No 216, 2015

R.5A.....................................

ad. 2005 No. 125

Part II

Division 1

r. 6........................................

am. 1983 No. 235; 1984 No. 287; 2007 No. 271

rs. 2011 No. 190

r. 7........................................

rs. 1954 No. 27; 1966 No. 140

am. 1981 No. 84; 1983 No. 176

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 1990 No. 334

am. 1997 No. 411; 2000 No. 196

rs. 2005 No. 125; 2007 No. 251

am. 2007 No. 271; 2008 Nos. 3 and 70

Heading to r. 8.......................

rs. 2000 No. 196

r. 8........................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 1990 No. 334

am. 2000 No. 355

rs. 2005 No. 125

r. 8A.....................................

ad. 2007 No. 354

Heading to r. 9.......................

rs. 2000 No. 196

r. 9........................................

am. 1949 No. 62

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 1990 No. 334

rs. 2005 No. 125

am. 2011 No. 218

r. 10......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 1993 No. 356

am. 1995 No. 190; 2000 Nos. 47 and 196; 2001 No. 340; 2003 No. 188

rep. 2005 No. 125

r. 11......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 2004 No. 299

rep. 2007 No. 271

r. 11A....................................

ad. 2007 No. 83

rep. 2011 No. 190

Heading to r. 12......................

rs. 2007 No. 83

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 12......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 2006 No. 350

am. 2007 No. 83

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 13......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

ad. 2006 No. 350

rs. 2011 No. 190

r. 13A....................................

ad. 2010 No. 226

rr. 14–16................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

Div. 2 of Part II......................

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 17–20................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 21......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 22–25................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

Div. 3 of Part II......................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 26......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 27......................................

am. 1983 No. 153

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 28......................................

rep. 1983 No. 153

rr. 29, 30................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 31......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

Div. 4 of Part II......................

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 32, 33................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 34......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 35......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 36......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 37......................................

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 38......................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

Part III

Division 1

r. 38A....................................

ad. 1988 No. 339

am. 1995 No. 21

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 39......................................

rep. 1949 No. 62

ad. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

ad. 1995 No. 21

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 39A....................................

ad. 1989 No. 32

am. 1992 No. 422; 1993 No. 28; 1995 No. 21

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 39B....................................

ad. 2006 No. 350

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 39C....................................

ad. 2006 No. 350

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 40......................................

ad. 1998 No. 296

Division 2

Heading to Div. 2 of Part III....

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

Div. 2 of Part III.....................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2012 No. 157

r. 41......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

am. 2010 No. 227

rs. 2012 No. 157

r. 42......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 43......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 44......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 45......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 46......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 47......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 48......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 49......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 277; 2012 No. 157

r. 50......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 51......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 52......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157

r. 52A....................................

ad. 2010 No. 227

rep. 2012 No. 157

r. 52B....................................

ad. 2010 No. 227

rep. 2012 No. 157

r. 53......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2012 No. 157

r. 54......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rs. 2010 No. 227

rep. 2012 No. 157

r. 55......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 56......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

Heading to r. 57......................

rs. 2010 No. 227

rep. 2012 No. 157

r. 57......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

am. 2010 No. 277

rep. 2012 No. 157

Div. 3 of Part III.....................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 58......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 59......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 60......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 61......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 62......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 63......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 64......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 65......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 66......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 67......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 78......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 69......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 70......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 71......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 72......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

Div. 4 of Part III.....................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

r. 73......................................

ad. 2007 No. 270

rep. 2010 No. 227

Div. 2 of Part III.....................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 40......................................

am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103

rs. 1966 No. 140

am. 1973 No. 62

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

rr. 40A–40C...........................

ad. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 41......................................

am. 1954 No. 27

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 42......................................

am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 43......................................

am. 1949 No. 62; 1961 No. 103

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 44......................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 45......................................

am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287

rs. 1987 No. 118

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 46......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 47......................................

am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287

rep. 1987 No. 118

r. 48......................................

am. 1949 No. 62; 1966 No. 140

rep. 1987 No. 118

r. 49......................................

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 50......................................

ad. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

Div. 3 of Part III.....................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 50......................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1983 No. 313

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 51–52................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 53......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 54, 55................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 56......................................

am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 57, 58................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 59......................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1981 No. 80

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 60......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 61......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 62–66................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

Heading to Div. 4 of Part III....

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 324

Div. 4 of Part III.....................

rep. 1990 No. 334

rr. 67, 68................................

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 69......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1987 No. 118

r. 70......................................

am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287

rep. 1987 No. 118

rr. 71, 72................................

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 72A....................................

ad. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

Div. 5 of Part III.....................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 73......................................

am. 1984 No. 287; 1987 No. 118

rep. 1990 No. 334

Div. 6 of Part III.....................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 74......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 75......................................

rs. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1987 No. 118

r. 76......................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287

rep. 1992 No. 422

r. 77......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1992 No. 422

r. 78......................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287; 1987 No. 119

rep. 1992 No. 422

rr. 79, 80................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1992 No. 422

Division 7

r. 81......................................

am. 1984 No. 287; 1992 No. 422; 2002 No. 117

r. 82......................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1992 No. 422

r. 83......................................

am. 1984 No. 287; 1992 No. 422; 2002 No. 117

Part IV

Part IV..................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

ad No 216, 2015

r 84.......................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

ad No 216, 2015

r 85.......................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 86......................................

rs. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1980 No. 241

ad. 1983 No. 114

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 87......................................

rs. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1980 No. 241

ad. 1990 No. 33

rep. 2011 No. 190

r. 88......................................

rep. 1980 No. 241

r. 89......................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 90, 91................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 92......................................

rep. 1961 No. 103

r. 93......................................

am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 94......................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 95......................................

rep. 1961 No. 103

r. 96......................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 97......................................

rep. 1961 No. 103

r. 98A....................................

ad. 1974 No. 44

rs. 1983 No. 274

rep. 1984 No. 287

rr. 98, 99................................

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 100....................................

am. 1984 No. 287

rep. 1990 No. 334

r. 101....................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 102....................................

rep. 1984 No. 287

r. 103....................................

am. 1966 No. 140

rep. 1984 No. 287

The Schedule.........................

am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140; 1973 No. 62; 1974 No. 44; 1980 No. 241; 1983 Nos. 153, 181, 235, 274 and 313

rep. 1984 No. 287

Heading to Schedule...............

rep. 1990 No. 334

Schedule 1

Heading to Schedule 1............

ad. 1990 No. 334

rep. 1992 No. 422

Schedule................................

ad. 1984 No. 287

am. 1987 No. 118; 1988 No. 182

Schedule 1.............................

am No 334, 1990

rep No 422, 1992

ad No 125, 2005

am No 319, 2005; No 271, 2007; No  254, 2007; No 79, 2010; No 120, 2011; No 190, 2011; No 90, 2015; No 216, 2015

Schedule 2

Heading to Schedule 2............

rs. 2000 No. 196

rep. 2005 No. 125

ad. 2006 No. 350

rs. 2011 No. 190

Schedule 2.............................

ad. 1990 No. 334

am. 1992 No. 422; 1995 No. 322; 1997 No. 411; 1998 No. 57

rs. 2000 No. 47

am. 2000 Nos. 196 and 355; 2002 No. 326; 2003 No. 188

rep. 2005 No. 125

ad. 2006 No. 350

Schedule 3.............................

ad. 2000 No. 196

am. 2000 No. 355; 2002 No. 326; 2003 No. 188

rep. 2005 No. 125

ad. 2006 No. 350

am. 2011 No. 120

rep. 2011 No. 190

Schedule 4.............................

ad. 2006 No. 350

am. 2011 No. 120

rep. 2011 No. 190

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