Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
This compilation was prepared on 9 December 2015.
The notes at the end of this compilation
(the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on ComLaw ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on ComLaw for the compiled law.
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on ComLaw for the compiled law.
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
These Regulations are the
Electoral and Referendum Regulations 1940 .
The Electoral and Referendum Regulations (being Statutory Rules 1928, No. 80, as amended by Statutory Rules 1928, Nos. 107 and 117, and 1934, No. 100) are repealed.
(1) In these Regulations, unless the contrary intention appears:
Australia’s Foreign Investment Framework means any of the following Acts and any instruments made under any of those Acts:
(a) the
Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Act 1975 ;(b) the
Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Fees Imposition Act 2015 ;(c) the
Register of Foreign Ownership of Agricultural Land Act 2015 .
referendum has the same meaning as in the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act.
Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act means theReferendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984 .
The Act means theCommonwealth Electoral Act 1918 .
(3) A reference in these Regulations to an elector or a person qualified to be an elector of the Commonwealth shall be read as a reference to a person whose name appears on a Roll of electors under the Act or a person entitled to be enrolled on such a roll.
For the definition of
prescribed authority in subsection 4 (1) of the Act, the Agencies and authorities of the Commonwealth mentioned in Schedule 1 are specified.
For paragraph 84 (2) (a) of the Act, the manner in which a Roll may indicate that a person is not enrolled as a Commonwealth elector is to put a circle (o) before the person’s name on the Roll.
(1) The organisations and persons specified in the following table are prescribed for the provisions of subsection 90B (4) of the Act specified in the following table:
1 | item 4 of the table in subsection 90B (4) | a prescribed authority |
2 | item 5 of the table in subsection 90B (4) | ACXIOM Australia Pty Limited Betfair Pty Limited Perceptive Communication Pty Ltd The Global Data Company Pty. Ltd. Veda Advantage Information Services and Solutions Limited |
3 | item 6 of the table in subsection 90B (4) | Betfair Pty Limited |
4 | item 7 of the table in subsection 90B (4) | ACXIOM Australia Pty Limited Experian Asia Pacific Pty. Ltd. Perceptive Communication Pty Ltd The Global Data Company Pty. Ltd. Veda Advantage Information Services and Solutions Limited |
(2) For item 4 of the table in subsection 90B (4) of the Act, the provision to a prescribed authority of the information mentioned in that item is authorised.
For paragraph 91A (2AA) (b) of the Act, the purposes mentioned in an item of Schedule 1 are permitted purposes for the prescribed authority mentioned in the item.
For paragraph 91A (2A) (c) of the Act, the following purposes are prescribed for the Australian Red Cross Blood Service:
(a) contacting any blood donor who has tested positive for a blood‑borne infection;
(b) contacting any person who has received a transfusion of blood donated by a person mentioned in paragraph (a);
(c) contacting any donor whose blood was transfused to a person who has since tested positive for a blood‑borne infection;
(d) contacting any donor whose blood was transfused to a person who has had a suspected adverse reaction to the blood.
(1) For paragraph 91A (2A) (c) of the Act, the following purposes are prescribed for a person or organisation that conducts medical research or provides a health screening program:
(a) the conduct of medical research in accordance with the Guidelines for the Protection of Privacy in the Conduct of Medical Research:
(i) issued by the National Health and Medical Research Council under subsection 95 (1) of the
Privacy Act 1988 ; and(ii) published in the
Gazette on 22 March 2000;(b) the provision of a public health screening program:
(i) approved by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Aged Care; and
(ii) conducted in accordance with the Guidelines for the Conduct of Public Health Screening Programs with particular reference to Privacy and the Management of Personal Information:
(A) issued by the Department of Human Services and Health; and
(B) published in the
Gazette on 1 December 1993.(2) For paragraph 91A (2B) (c) of the Act, the conduct of the election of delegates to the 2012 and 2013 Northern Territory Constitutional Convention is a permitted purpose.
For subparagraph 99B (4) (b) (i) of the Act and subparagraph 38 (4) (b) (i) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the classes of electors mentioned in Schedule 2 are prescribed.
(1) For subsection 382 (7) of the Act, the requirements that must be satisfied are:
(a) that the person include his or her date of birth on the claim or notice; and
(b) that the person include his or her driver’s licence number on the claim or notice.
(2) In this regulation:
claim or notice means a claim, application, notice, objection, request or other communication that is required or permitted to be sent to the Electoral Commissioner under any of the following provisions:
(a) Part VII of the Act;
(b) Part VIII of the Act, other than:
(i) subsection 98 (3); and
(ii) subsection 99A (5); and
(iii) subsection 99B (3); and
(iv) subsection 104 (3);
(c) section 184A of the Act;
(d) section 249 of the Act.
(1) This regulation applies if:
(a) the Governor‑General has authorised a State vote to be held or taken on the day appointed as polling day for a Commonwealth vote; and
(b) there is an arrangement between the Electoral Commission and the electoral authority of the State for the Electoral Commission to conduct the State vote.
(2) An officer who performs functions in relation to the Commonwealth vote may perform functions in relation to the State vote.
(3) Polling booths, ballot boxes and other facilities provided, and machinery or arrangements established, for the Commonwealth vote may be used for the State vote.
(4) Ballot papers for declaration votes in the State vote may be put in the envelopes used for ballot papers for declaration votes in the Commonwealth vote.
(5) Ballot papers used for the State vote may be placed in the ballot boxes used for the Commonwealth vote.
(6) In this regulation:
Commonwealth vote means:
(a) an election of the Senate; or
(b) a general election of the House of Representatives; or
(c) a by‑election to elect a member of the House of Representatives; or
(d) a referendum held under the
Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984 .
State has the meaning given by section 394 of the Act.
State vote means an election, referendum or vote of the electors of a State or part of a State to be held or taken under a law of the State.
In this Division:
authorised call centre means a call centre established in accordance with arrangements made by the Electoral Commissioner under subregulation 42 (1).
call centre operator means a person who:
(a) works in an authorised call centre; and
(b) is a pre‑poll voting officer under subsection 4 (1) of the Act.
electronically assisted vote means a vote cast using the electronically assisted voting method.
electronically assisted voting means voting by an electronically assisted vote.
electronically assisted voting method means the procedures determined under subregulation 46 (1) for enabling a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.
officer means an officer mentioned in subsection 202A (2) of the Act.
reference Roll means a Roll that may be consulted by an officer if a voter wishes to vote by an electronically assisted vote.
registered sight‑impaired voter means a sight‑impaired person who is registered with the Electoral Commissioner for the purpose of voting by an electronically assisted vote.
sight‑impaired person has the meaning given by section 202AA of the Act.Note:
certified list of voters is defined in subsection 4 (1) of the Act.
(1) The Electoral Commissioner must make arrangements for the establishment of one or more call centres to receive telephone calls from sight‑impaired persons who wish to:
(a) register for the purpose of being eligible to vote by an electronically assisted vote; or
(b) vote by an electronically assisted vote.
(2) The Electoral Commissioner may approve forms and other documents to be used by call centre operators and other officers for the purpose of:
(a) registering a sight‑impaired person for the purpose of being eligible to vote by an electronically assisted vote; and
(b) assisting a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.
Example Statements and responses that allow call centre operators to explain to a sight‑impaired person how to register or vote.
(1) The Electoral Commissioner must determine, in writing:
(a) the days on which and times when a person may apply to be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter; and
(b) procedures for assessing whether a person may be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter.
Note: The procedures may include requirements for the person to:
(a) be on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll; and
(b) affirm that he or she is sight‑impaired.
(2) A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.
(3) A person who wishes to apply to be registered by the Electoral Commissioner as a registered sight‑impaired voter must:
(a) contact an authorised call centre on a day and time determined under paragraph (1) (a); and
(b) comply with the procedures determined under paragraph (1) (b).
(4) The Electoral Commissioner must:
(a) register a person who complies with subregulation (3) as a registered sight‑impaired voter; and
(b) make and keep a register for that purpose.
Note: The person will have a personal identification number and a registration number for requesting an electronically assisted vote.
(5) A registered sight‑impaired voter may vote by an electronically assisted vote at:
(a) a general election; and
(b) a Senate election; and
(c) a by‑election; and
(d) a referendum.
(1) The Electoral Commissioner:
(a) must determine, in writing, the days on which and times when electronically assisted voting is to be available; and
(b) must determine, in writing, procedures for assessing whether a person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; and
(c) may give directions to officers in relation to requests for voting by an electronically assisted vote.
Example for paragraph (b) If a call centre operator is not satisfied that a person is the registered sight‑impaired voter whose name the person has used, the procedures may include a requirement for the operator to ask the person one or more questions about information provided on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll about the voter whose name the person has used.
(2) A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.
(3) A person is entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote if:
(a) the person calls an authorised call centre on a day on which and at a time when electronically assisted voting is available; and
(b) the person informs a call centre operator that the person wishes to vote by an electronically assisted vote; and
(c) a call centre operator is satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; and
(d) the person’s name is on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll.
(4) A person is not entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote if:
(a) the person does not call an authorised call centre on a day on which and at a time when electronically assisted voting is available; or
(b) a call centre operator is not satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter after complying with the procedures for assessing whether the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; or
(c) the person’s name is not on an approved list of voters, a certified list of voters or a reference Roll; or
(d) the person refuses to answer a question asked in accordance with subregulation 45 (2); or
(e) the person answers Question 3 in subregulation 45 (2) in the affirmative; or
(f) the person has already voted; or
(g) the person is provisionally enrolled; or
(h) on the basis of any of the person’s answers to questions mentioned in regulation 45, a call centre operator is not satisfied that the person is the voter whose name the person has used; or
(i) the person does not otherwise comply with the procedures for:
(i) assessing whether the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter; or
(ii) voting by an electronically assisted vote.
Note: The person may be eligible to vote by an assisted provisional vote on polling day or an assisted pre‑poll vote.
(1) If a person requests an electronically assisted vote, a call centre operator must be satisfied that the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter in accordance with the procedures determined under paragraph 44 (1) (b).
Note: The person will have a personal identification number and a registration number for requesting an electronically assisted vote.
(2) If the person is a registered sight‑impaired voter, a call centre operator must then ask the person the appropriate question from the following questions:
(1) Have you voted before in this election?
(2) Have you voted before in these elections?
(3) Have you voted before in this by‑election?
(4) Have you voted before in this referendum?
(1) The Electoral Commissioner must determine, in writing, procedures for enabling a registered sight‑impaired voter to vote by an electronically assisted vote.
Examples 1 The procedures may require a call centre operator to ensure that the voter:
(a) receives the same information (in the same order), and has the same voting options, as would appear in the ballot paper for the election that the voter would be given if the voter were voting under Part XVI of the Act; and
(b) is able to indicate the voter’s vote in a way that, if the voter were marking a ballot paper, would satisfy the requirements of section 239 or 240 of the Act.
2 The procedures may permit the voter’s ballot papers to be checked to ensure that they have been marked in accordance with the voter’s instructions (if any).
(2) A determination under subregulation (1) is not a legislative instrument.
(3) A call centre operator who is satisfied that a registered sight‑impaired voter is entitled to vote by an electronically assisted vote must assist the voter in accordance with the procedures determined under subregulation (1).
(4) The voter may tell the call centre operator how the voter wants the ballot papers to be marked.
(5) If the voter tells the call centre operator how the voter wants the ballot papers to be marked, the call centre operator must:
(a) initial the voter’s ballot papers on the top front of each ballot paper; and
(b) mark the voter’s ballot papers in accordance with the voter’s instructions; and
(c) read the voter’s voting preferences back to the voter; and
(d) put the voter’s ballot papers in an envelope marked with the name of the voter’s Division; and
(e) place the envelope in a ballot box used at the authorised call centre for electronically assisted voting.
The requirements in relation to ballot boxes in Subdivision C of Division 3 of Part IVA of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, other than section 73CR, are taken to apply to ballot boxes used at an authorised call centre for electronically assisted voting as if the electronically assisted voting were ordinary pre‑poll voting.
(1) A candidate in an election for which electronically assisted voting is available may appoint one scrutineer to attend an authorised call centre for the purpose of monitoring the duties of call centre operators.
(2) The appointment of a scrutineer must be made by notice, in writing:
(a) addressed to the Returning Officer; and
(b) signed by the candidate; and
(c) stating the scrutineer’s name and address.
(3) A scrutineer who has not complied with subsection 202A (3) of the Act must not attend an authorised call centre to discharge a scrutineer’s functions.
(4) A scrutineer commits an offence if:
(a) the scrutineer attends an authorised call centre; and
(b) the scrutineer attempts to interfere with the duties of a call centre operator or an Assistant Returning Officer.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(5) A scrutineer commits an offence if:
(a) the scrutineer attends an authorised call centre; and
(b) the scrutineer communicates with a person in the authorised call centre; and
(c) the communication is not reasonably necessary for the discharge of the scrutineer’s functions.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(1) The Electoral Commissioner must make a record of an electronically assisted vote.
(2) The record of an electronically assisted vote must be:
(a) a mark on an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters beside the voter’s name; or
(b) a record on a document other than an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters which states:
(i) the voter’s name (whether or not it also states the voter’s address or date of birth); and
(ii) the Division in which the voter is enrolled to vote.
(3) If the record is in the form mentioned in paragraph (2) (b):
(a) it must be forwarded to a Divisional Returning Officer for the Division in which the voter is enrolled to vote; and
(b) the Divisional Returning Officer must place a mark beside the voter’s name on an approved list of voters or a certified list of voters.
(1) As soon as the close of the poll for all Divisions, an Assistant Returning Officer must:
(a) open each ballot box mentioned in paragraph 46 (5) (e); and
(b) sort the envelopes, unopened, into bundles corresponding to Divisions.
(2) An Assistant Returning Officer must forward each bundle to a Divisional Returning Officer for the appropriate Division for the conduct of a scrutiny.
(3) A person commits an offence if the person:
(a) is not an Assistant Returning Officer, or a person performing tasks under the direction of an Assistant Returning Officer; and
(b) performs a duty mentioned in subregulation (1) or (2).
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(4) An offence under subregulation (3) is an offence of strict liability.
Note: For
strict liability , see section 6.1 of theCriminal Code.
(1) For the purpose of conducting a scrutiny of the ballot papers forwarded by the Assistant Returning Officer under subregulation 50 (2), the Divisional Returning Officer must conduct the scrutiny.
(2) The procedures in Part XVIII of the Act apply to the scrutiny with the modifications necessary to ensure that:
(a) no preliminary scrutiny mentioned in section 266 of the Act is to be conducted; and
(b) the electronically assisted vote is taken to be a pre‑poll ordinary vote; and
(c) it is irrelevant that the voter did not complete the ballot paper personally; and
(d) it is irrelevant that the vote can be identified as being cast by a sight‑impaired person.
(3) A person commits an offence if the person:
(a) is not the Divisional Returning Officer, or a person performing tasks under the direction of the Divisional Returning Officer; and
(b) conducts the scrutiny.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(4) An offence under subregulation (3) is an offence of strict liability.
Note: For
strict liability , see section 6.1 of theCriminal Code.
(1) A person commits an offence if the person:
(a) interferes with a voter while the voter votes by an electronically assisted vote; or
(b) communicates with a voter who votes by an electronically assisted vote about the voter’s vote; or
(c) does anything to find out how a voter who votes by an electronically assisted vote voted.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(2) For subregulation (1), it is a defence if the person is a call centre operator who is assisting the voter to vote.
(1) A person commits an offence if:
(a) he or she destroys or interferes with:
(i) a computer program; or
(ii) a data file; or
(iii) an electronic device; and
(b) the program, file or device is used, or intended to be used, for or in connection with electronically assisted voting.
Penalty: 5 penalty units.
(2) For subregulation (1), it is a defence if the person is an officer acting in the course of his or her duties.
(1) In proceedings which are instituted in a Court of summary jurisdiction against an elector for a contravention of subsection 245 (15) of the Act or subsection 45 (14) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the Divisional Returning Officer must send to the Court the elector’s reply (if any) under subparagraph 245 (5) (c) (i) or (ii) of the Act or subparagraph 45 (5) (c) (i) or (ii) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act.
(2) The Court shall, whether the defendant is present or not, consider the contents of the reply as if it were given in evidence before the Court.
(1) If, in a prosecution in a Court of summary jurisdiction against an elector for a contravention of subsection 245 (15) or (15C) of the Act or subsection 45 (14) or (14C) of the Referendum (Machinery Provisions) Act, the prosecuting officer lodges with the Court a statutory declaration and a certified extract in the approved form, the officer is not required to attend the hearing.
(2) Where a statutory declaration and certified extract have been lodged as provided by this regulation, and the prosecuting officer is not present at the hearing, the Court shall proceed with the hearing and determination of the case in his absence, and shall consider the statutory declaration and certified extract as if the matter set out therein had been given in evidence before it, and shall, notwithstanding the absence of the prosecuting officer, permit evidence to be given for the prosecution of any witness who is summoned by, or attends on behalf of, the prosecuting officer.
(3) For the purposes of this regulation, any document purporting to be a statutory declaration shall be accepted as such by the Court without proof of the signatures thereon or proof of the authority of the person before whom it purports to have been made to take statutory declarations.
The amendments of the table in Schedule 1 to these Regulations by the
Foreign Acquisitions and Takeovers Legislation Amendment Regulation 2015 apply in relation to the use of information by a person or organisation after those amendments commence, whether the information is given to the person or organisation before or after that time.
(regulations 5A and 8)
1 | Australia Post | Investigating postal and criminal offences committed
against the Commonwealth under the |
1AA | Australian Bureau of Statistics | Collecting, compiling, analysing and disseminating statistics and related information |
1A | Australian Commission for Law Enforcement Integrity |
|
| ||
2 | Australian Communications and Media Authority | Identifying offences relating to interference with radiocommunications or telecommunications |
3 | Australian Competition and Consumer Commission |
|
4 | Australian Crime Commission |
(b) Undertaking intelligence operations
|
| ||
6 | Australian Federal Police (AFP) |
(c) Target development (d) Intelligence checks |
(f) Law enforcement (g) Surveillance | ||
| ||
7 | Australian Securities and Investments Commission | (a) Identifying or locating suspects or witnesses (b) Surveillance (c) Law enforcement |
8 | Australian Security Intelligence Organisation |
|
| ||
9 | Australian Taxation Office (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Commissioner of Taxation and staff) | (a) Identifying or locating taxpayers
|
10 | Australian Transactions Reports and Analysis Centre | Conducting investigations in relation to the enforcement of: (a) the criminal law; or (b) a law imposing a pecuniary penalty regarding the |
12 | ComSuper (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Commissioner for Superannuation and staff) | Locating members and former members for the purpose of protecting public revenue in relation to the payment of benefits, the recovery of overpayments and the review of entitlement to benefit |
13 | Department of Agriculture, Fisheries and Forestry | Identifying individuals suspected of breaching legislation administered by the Australian Quarantine and Inspection Service |
14 | Department of Defence |
|
| ||
| ||
15 | Department of Education, Science and Training | Preventing, detecting or investigating fraud and other criminal offences in relation to the Department’s programs and public money managed by the Department |
16 | Department of Employment and Workplace Relations | Identifying or locating suspects, debtors or witnesses in relation to criminal investigations |
16A | Department of the Environment and Water Resources |
|
17 | Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade |
|
| ||
| ||
18 | Department of Human Services |
|
19 | Department administered by the Minister administering the |
(e) surveillance purposes; or
|
19A | Department of the Treasury | Administering Australia’s Foreign Investment Framework,
except the |
20 | Department of Veterans’ Affairs |
|
21 | Director of Public Prosecutions | Verifying the identity of, or locating, persons of
interest in relation to property ownership matters conducted under the |
21A | Federal Court of Australia (the Statutory Agency consisting of the Registrar and the APS employees assisting the Registrar) |
|
| ||
| ||
22 | Insolvency and Trustee Service of Australia |
|
(c) Investigating identity fraud |
(regulation 13)
1 | Accountant who is a registered tax agent |
2 | Bank officer, except the manager of a bank travel centre |
3 | Building society officer |
4 | Chairperson or Committee member of an incorporated Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander organisation |
5 | Chartered professional engineer |
6 | Clerk, sheriff or bailiff of a court |
7 | Commissioner for Affidavits of a State or Territory |
8 | Commissioner for Declarations of a State or Territory |
9 | Commissioner for Oaths of a State or Territory |
10 | Credit union officer |
11 | Diplomatic or consular officer, except an honorary consular officer, of an Australian embassy, high commission, or consulate |
12 | Finance company officer, where the company borrows or lends or otherwise deals in finance as its principal or characteristic activity |
13 | Full‑time or permanent part‑time employee of the Commonwealth, or a State or Territory, or a Commonwealth, State or Territory authority |
14 | Full‑time or permanent part‑time teacher currently employed at a school or tertiary institution |
15 | Holder of a current liquor licence |
16 | Holder of a current pilot’s licence |
17 | Holder of a statutory office for which an annual salary is payable |
18 | Licensed or registered real estate agent |
19 | Manager of a building society or credit union |
20 | Manager of a community, ethnic or remote resource centre |
21 | Manager of a women’s refuge, or of a crisis and counselling service that provides counselling or assistance to victims of domestic violence, sexual assault or sexual abuse |
22 | Marriage celebrant within the meaning of the |
23 | Marriage counsellor within the meaning of the |
24 | Master of a merchant vessel |
25 | Member of the Association of Consulting Engineers |
26 | Member of the Association of Taxation and Management Accountants |
27 | Member of the Australian Defence Force |
28 | Member of the ground staff of an airline that operates a regular passenger service |
29 | Member of the Institute of Company Secretaries of Australia |
30 | Member of the staff of a person who is a member of:
(b) the legislature of a Territory; or
|
31 | Member of the staff of a State or Territory electoral authority |
32 | Member of the staff of the Australian Electoral Commission |
33 | Minister of religion within the meaning of the |
34 | Person employed as a remote resource centre visitor |
35 | Police aide |
36 | Postal manager or other permanent Australia Post employee |
37 | Prison officer |
38 | Registered dentist |
39 | Registered medical practitioner |
40 | Registered nurse or enrolled nurse |
41 | Registered or licensed surveyor |
42 | Registered pharmacist |
43 | Registered physiotherapist |
44 | A person who is not described in a preceding item in this Schedule before whom statutory declarations may be made under a law of the Commonwealth, a State or a Territory |
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
Endnotes about misdescribed amendments and other matters are included in a compilation only as necessary.
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.
A = Act | o = order(s) |
ad = added or inserted | Ord = Ordinance |
am = amended | orig = original |
amdt = amendment | par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
c = clause(s) | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | pres = present |
Ch = Chapter(s) | prev = previous |
def = definition(s) | (prev…) = previously |
Dict = Dictionary | Pt = Part(s) |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | r = regulation(s)/rule(s) |
Div = Division(s) | Reg = Regulation/Regulations |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | reloc = relocated |
effect | renum = renumbered |
F = Federal Register of Legislative Instruments | rep = repealed |
gaz = gazette | rs = repealed and substituted |
LI = Legislative Instrument | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
LIA
= | Sch = Schedule(s) |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given |
Sdiv = Subdivision(s) | |
effect | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | SR = Statutory Rules |
cannot be given effect | Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
mod = modified/modification | SubPt = Subpart(s) |
No. = Number(s) | |
commenced or to be commenced |
1940 No. 163 (a) | 15 Aug 1940 | 15 Aug 1940 | |
1949 No. 62 (a) | 15 Sept 1949 | 15 Sept 1949 | — |
1954 No. 27 (a) | 8 Apr 1954 | 8 Apr 1954 | — |
1961 No. 103 (a) | 10 Aug 1961 | 10 Aug 1961 | — |
1966 No. 140 (a) | 13 Oct 1966 | 13 Oct 1966 | — |
1973 No. 62 (a) | 21 Mar 1973 | 21 Mar 1973 | — |
1974 No. 44 (a) | 9 Apr 1974 | 9 Apr 1974 | — |
1980 No. 241 (b) | 27 Aug 1980 | 27 Aug 1980 | — |
1981 No. 80 (a) | 6 May 1981 | 6 May 1981 | — |
1981 No. 84 (a) | 6 May 1981 | 6 May 1981 | — |
1983 No. 114 (a) | 29 July 1983 | 29 July 1983 | — |
1983 No. 153 (a) | 1 Sept 1983 | 1 Sept 1983 | r. 5 |
1983 No. 176 (a) | 22 Sept 1983 | 22 Sept 1983 | — |
1983 No. 181 (a) | 22 Sept 1983 | 22 Sept 1983 | — |
1983 No. 235 (a) | 28 Oct 1983 | 28 Oct 1983 | — |
1983 No. 274 (a) | 18 Nov 1983 | 18 Nov 1983 | — |
1983 No. 313 (a) | 16 Dec 1983 | 26 Jan 1984 | — |
1984 No. 287 | 18 Oct 1984 | 18 Oct 1984 | — |
1987 No. 118 | 15 June 1987 | 15 June 1987 | — |
1987 No. 119 | 15 June 1987 | 15 June 1987 | — |
1988 No. 182 | 25 July 1988 | 25 July 1988 | — |
1988 No. 339 (b) | 21 Dec 1988 | 21 Dec 1988 | — |
1989 No. 32 (b) | 13 Mar 1989 | 13 Mar 1989 | — |
1990 No. 33 (b) | 19 Feb 1990 | 19 Feb 1990 | — |
1990 No. 334 (b) | 18 Oct 1990 | 18 Oct 1990 | — |
1992 No. 422 | 24 Dec 1992 | 24 Dec 1992 | — |
1993 No. 28 | 12 Feb 1993 | 12 Feb 1993 | — |
1993 No. 356 | 23 Dec 1993 | 23 Dec 1993 | — |
1995 No. 21 (b) | 28 Feb 1995 | 28 Feb 1995 | — |
1995 No. 190 | 30 June 1995 | 1 July 1995 | — |
1995 No. 322 | 3 Nov 1995 | 6 Nov 1995 ( | — |
1997 No. 411(b) | 24 Dec 1997 | 24 Dec 1997 | — |
1998 No. 57(b) | 8 Apr 1998 | 8 Apr 1998 | — |
1998 No. 296 | 7 Sept 1998 | 7 Sept 1998 | — |
2000 No. 47 | 19 Apr 2000 | 19 Apr 2000 | — |
2000 No. 196 (b) | 25 July 2000 | 25 July 2000 | — |
2000 No. 355 (b) | 20 Dec 2000 | 20 Dec 2000 | — |
2001 No. 248 (c) | 14 Sept 2001 | — | |
2001 No. 340 | 21 Dec 2001 | 21 Dec 2001 | — |
2002 No. 117 | 14 June 2002 | 14 June 2002 | — |
2002 No. 326 | 20 Dec 2002 | 1 Jan 2003 ( | — |
2003 No. 188 | 24 July 2003 | 24 July 2003 | — |
2004 No. 299 | 7 Sept 2004 | 7 Sept 2004 | — |
2005 No. 125 | 17 June 2005 ( | 18 June 2005 | — |
2005 No. 319 | 19 Dec 2005 ( | 20 Dec 2005 | — |
2006 No. 350 | 15 Dec 2006 ( | 16 Apr 2007 | — |
2007 No. 83 | 13 Apr 2007 ( | 16 Apr 2007 | — |
2007 No. 251 | 24 Aug 2007 ( | 25 Aug 2007 | — |
2007 No. 270 | 11 Sept 2007 ( | 1 Aug 2007 ( | — |
2007 No. 271 | 11 Sept 2007 ( | 12 Sept 2007 | — |
2007 No. 254 | 19 Oct 2007 ( | 20 Oct 2007 | — |
2008 No. 3 | 30 Jan 2008 ( | 31 Jan 2008 | — |
2008 No. 70 | 2 May 2008 ( | 3 May 2008 | — |
2010 No. 79 | 10 May 2010 ( | 11 May 2010 | — |
2010 No. 226 | 20 July 2010 ( | 19 July 2010 ( | — |
2010 No. 227 | 20 July 2010 ( | 19 July 2010 ( | — |
No 120, 2011 | 30 June 2011 (F2011L01364) | 1 July 2011 (r 2) | — |
No 190, 2011 | 21 Oct 2011 (F2011L02106) | 22 Oct 2011 (r 2) | — |
No 218, 2011 | 25 Nov 2011 (F2011L02445) | 26 Nov 2011 (r 2) | — |
No 157, 2012 | 2 July 2012 (F2012L01487) | 3 July 2012 (r 2) | — |
No 90, 2015 | 19 June 2015 (F2015L00854) | 1 July 2015 (s 2(1) item 2) | — |
No 216, 2015 | 27 Nov 2015 (F2015L01860) | Sch 2: 1 Dec 2015 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
(a) Section 145 and Schedule 2 of theReferendum (Machinery Provisions) Act 1984 provide as follows:
(1) The Acts specified in Schedule 2 are repealed.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal effected by subsection (1), the regulations that were, immediately before the commencement of this Act, in force under the
Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and theReferendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906 shall, in so far as those regulations relate to referendums, continue in force, to the extent to which they are consistent with this Act, as if:(a) those regulations had been made under that first‑mentioned Act and under this Act;
(b) a reference in those regulations to a State, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to the Australian Capital Territory and the Northern Territory;
(c) a reference in those regulations to the Australian Electoral Officer for a State, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to the Australian Electoral Officers for the Territories;
(d) a reference in those regulations to a Division, in relation to a referendum, included a reference to an Electoral Division of the Australian Capital Territory and to the Northern Territory; and
(e) a reference in those regulations to the
Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906 or to a particular provision of that Act were a reference to this Act or to the corresponding provision (if any) of this Act, as the case may be.(3) Nothing in subsection (2) prevents the making of regulations under this Act or under the
Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and under this Act to repeal or amend the regulations that are continued in force by that subsection.
Schedule 2
(section 145)
REPEALED ACTS
Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1912 (No. 2)
Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Act (No. 2) 1965
Referendum (Constitution Alteration) Modification Act 1977 Statutory Rules 1940 No. 163; 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140; 1973 No. 62; 1974 No. 44; 1981 Nos. 80 and 84; 1983 Nos. 114, 153, 176, 181, 235, 274 and 313 were made under the
Commonwealth Electoral Act 1918 and theReferendum (Constitution Alteration) Act 1906 .
(b) Statutory Rules 1980 No. 241; 1988 No. 339; 1989 No. 32; 1990 Nos. 33 and 334; 1995 No. 21; 1997 No. 411; 1998 No. 57 and 2000 Nos. 196 and 355 were made under theCommonwealth Electoral Act 1918 .
(c) Statutory Rules 2001 No. 248 was disallowed by the Senate on 15 May 2002.
r. 1........................................ | rs. 1998 No. 296 |
r. 2........................................ | rs. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 4........................................ | rep. 1983 No. 235 |
r. 4A..................................... | ad. 1973 No. 62 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 5........................................ | am. 1966 No. 140; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287; 1990 No. 334; 1992 No. 422; 2000 No. 196; 2005 No. 125; No 216, 2015 |
R.5A..................................... | ad. 2005 No. 125 |
r. 6........................................ | am. 1983 No. 235; 1984 No. 287; 2007 No. 271 |
rs. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 7........................................ | rs. 1954 No. 27; 1966 No. 140 |
am. 1981 No. 84; 1983 No. 176 | |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
ad. 1990 No. 334 | |
am. 1997 No. 411; 2000 No. 196 | |
rs. 2005 No. 125; 2007 No. 251 | |
am. 2007 No. 271; 2008 Nos. 3 and 70 | |
Heading to r. 8....................... | rs. 2000 No. 196 |
r. 8........................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
ad. 1990 No. 334 | |
am. 2000 No. 355 | |
rs. 2005 No. 125 | |
r. 8A..................................... | ad. 2007 No. 354 |
Heading to r. 9....................... | rs. 2000 No. 196 |
r. 9........................................ | am. 1949 No. 62 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
ad. 1990 No. 334 | |
rs. 2005 No. 125 | |
am. 2011 No. 218 | |
r. 10...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
ad. 1993 No. 356 | |
am. 1995 No. 190; 2000 Nos. 47 and 196; 2001 No. 340; 2003 No. 188 | |
rep. 2005 No. 125 | |
r. 11...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
ad. 2004 No. 299 | |
rep. 2007 No. 271 | |
r. 11A.................................... | ad. 2007 No. 83 |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
Heading to r. 12...................... | rs. 2007 No. 83 |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 12...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
ad. 2006 No. 350 | |
am. 2007 No. 83 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 13...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
ad. 2006 No. 350 | |
rs. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 13A.................................... | ad. 2010 No. 226 |
rr. 14–16................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
Div. 2 of Part II...................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
rr. 17–20................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 21...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 22–25................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
Div. 3 of Part II...................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 26...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 27...................................... | am. 1983 No. 153 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 28...................................... | rep. 1983 No. 153 |
rr. 29, 30................................ | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 31...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
Div. 4 of Part II...................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
rr. 32, 33................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 34...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rs. 1984 No. 287 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 35...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 36...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 37...................................... | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 38...................................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 38A.................................... | ad. 1988 No. 339 |
am. 1995 No. 21 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 39...................................... | rep. 1949 No. 62 |
ad. 1984 No. 287 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
ad. 1995 No. 21 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 39A.................................... | ad. 1989 No. 32 |
am. 1992 No. 422; 1993 No. 28; 1995 No. 21 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 39B.................................... | ad. 2006 No. 350 |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 39C.................................... | ad. 2006 No. 350 |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 40...................................... | ad. 1998 No. 296 |
Heading to Div. 2 of Part III.... | rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 |
Div. 2 of Part III..................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 41...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
am. 2010 No. 227 | |
rs. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 42...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 43...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 44...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 45...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 46...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 47...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 48...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 49...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 277; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 50...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 51...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 52...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227; 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 52A.................................... | ad. 2010 No. 227 |
rep. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 52B.................................... | ad. 2010 No. 227 |
rep. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 53...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 54...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rs. 2010 No. 227 | |
rep. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 55...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 56...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
Heading to r. 57...................... | rs. 2010 No. 227 |
rep. 2012 No. 157 | |
r. 57...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
am. 2010 No. 277 | |
rep. 2012 No. 157 | |
Div. 3 of Part III..................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 58...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 59...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 60...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 61...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 62...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 63...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 64...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 65...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 66...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 67...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 78...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 69...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 70...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 71...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 72...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
Div. 4 of Part III..................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
r. 73...................................... | ad. 2007 No. 270 |
rep. 2010 No. 227 | |
Div. 2 of Part III..................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 40...................................... | am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103 |
rs. 1966 No. 140 | |
am. 1973 No. 62 | |
rs. 1984 No. 287 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
rr. 40A–40C........................... | ad. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 41...................................... | am. 1954 No. 27 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 42...................................... | am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140 |
rs. 1984 No. 287 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 43...................................... | am. 1949 No. 62; 1961 No. 103 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 44...................................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 45...................................... | am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287 |
rs. 1987 No. 118 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 46...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 47...................................... | am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1987 No. 118 | |
r. 48...................................... | am. 1949 No. 62; 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1987 No. 118 | |
r. 49...................................... | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 50...................................... | ad. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
Div. 3 of Part III..................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 50...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140; 1983 No. 313 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 51–52................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 53...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 54, 55................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 56...................................... | am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 57, 58................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 59...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140; 1981 No. 80 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 60...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 61...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 62–66................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
Heading to Div. 4 of Part III.... | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 324 | |
Div. 4 of Part III..................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
rr. 67, 68................................ | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 69...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1987 No. 118 | |
r. 70...................................... | am. 1954 No. 27; 1981 No. 80; 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1987 No. 118 | |
rr. 71, 72................................ | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 72A.................................... | ad. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
Div. 5 of Part III..................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 73...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287; 1987 No. 118 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
Div. 6 of Part III..................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 74...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 75...................................... | rs. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1987 No. 118 | |
r. 76...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
r. 77...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
r. 78...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287; 1987 No. 119 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
rr. 79, 80................................ | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
r. 81...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287; 1992 No. 422; 2002 No. 117 |
r. 82...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
r. 83...................................... | am. 1984 No. 287; 1992 No. 422; 2002 No. 117 |
Part IV.................................. | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
ad No 216, 2015 | |
r 84....................................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
ad No 216, 2015 | |
r 85....................................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 86...................................... | rs. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1980 No. 241 | |
ad. 1983 No. 114 | |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 87...................................... | rs. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1980 No. 241 | |
ad. 1990 No. 33 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
r. 88...................................... | rep. 1980 No. 241 |
r. 89...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 90, 91................................ | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 92...................................... | rep. 1961 No. 103 |
r. 93...................................... | am. 1966 No. 140; 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 94...................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 95...................................... | rep. 1961 No. 103 |
r. 96...................................... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 97...................................... | rep. 1961 No. 103 |
r. 98A.................................... | ad. 1974 No. 44 |
rs. 1983 No. 274 | |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
rr. 98, 99................................ | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
r. 100.................................... | am. 1984 No. 287 |
rep. 1990 No. 334 | |
r. 101.................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
r. 102.................................... | rep. 1984 No. 287 |
r. 103.................................... | am. 1966 No. 140 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
The Schedule......................... | am. 1949 No. 62; 1954 No. 27; 1961 No. 103; 1966 No. 140; 1973 No. 62; 1974 No. 44; 1980 No. 241; 1983 Nos. 153, 181, 235, 274 and 313 |
rep. 1984 No. 287 | |
Heading to Schedule............... | rep. 1990 No. 334 |
Heading to Schedule 1............ | ad. 1990 No. 334 |
rep. 1992 No. 422 | |
Schedule................................ | ad. 1984 No. 287 |
am. 1987 No. 118; 1988 No. 182 | |
Schedule 1............................. | am No 334, 1990 |
rep No 422, 1992 | |
ad No 125, 2005 | |
am No 319, 2005; No 271, 2007; No 254, 2007; No 79, 2010; No 120, 2011; No 190, 2011; No 90, 2015; No 216, 2015 | |
Heading to Schedule 2............ | rs. 2000 No. 196 |
rep. 2005 No. 125 | |
ad. 2006 No. 350 | |
rs. 2011 No. 190 | |
Schedule 2............................. | ad. 1990 No. 334 |
am. 1992 No. 422; 1995 No. 322; 1997 No. 411; 1998 No. 57 |
rs. 2000 No. 47 | |
am. 2000 Nos. 196 and 355; 2002 No. 326; 2003 No. 188 | |
rep. 2005 No. 125 | |
ad. 2006 No. 350 | |
Schedule 3............................. | ad. 2000 No. 196 |
am. 2000 No. 355; 2002 No. 326; 2003 No. 188 | |
rep. 2005 No. 125 | |
ad. 2006 No. 350 | |
am. 2011 No. 120 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 | |
Schedule 4............................. | ad. 2006 No. 350 |
am. 2011 No. 120 | |
rep. 2011 No. 190 |
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