Criminal Code Regulations 2019 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
The notes at the end of this compilation (the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the Register for the compiled law.
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the Register for the compiled law.
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
This instrument is the
Criminal Code Regulations 2019 .
This instrument is made under the
Criminal Code Act 1995 .
In this instrument:
AFP member has the same meaning as in Part 5.3 of the Code.
authorised person means a person who is an authorised person for the purposes of regulation 5 of theCustoms (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956 .
chief executive officer of a legal aid commission of a State or Territory means the person holding, or performing the duties of, the following position:
(a) for New South Wales, Victoria, Queensland and the Australian Capital Territory—Chief Executive Officer of the legal aid commission of that State or Territory;
(b) for Western Australia—Director of Legal Aid under the
Legal Aid Commission Act 1976 (WA);(c) for South Australia—Director of Legal Services under the
Legal Services Commission Act 1977 (SA);(d) for Tasmania—Director of the Commission under the
Legal Aid Commission Act 1990 (Tas.);(e) for the Northern Territory—Director of Legal Aid under the
Legal Aid Act 1990 (NT).
Code means theCriminal Code .
control order has the same meaning as in Part 5.3 of the Code.
Health Secretary means the Secretary of the Department administered by the Minister administering theTherapeutic Goods Act 1989 .
issuing court has the same meaning as in Part 5.3 of the Code.
lawyer has the same meaning as in Part 5.3 of the Code.
legal aid commission means an authority established by or under a law of a State or Territory for the purpose of providing legal assistance.
young person means a person who is at least 14 but under 18.
For the purposes of subsection 104.28(6) of the Code, this Division provides in relation to the appointing of a lawyer to act for a young person in relation to proceedings relating to a control order.
An issuing court may request a legal aid commission to arrange the legal representation of a young person in proceedings relating to a control order.
(1) This section applies if an issuing court requests a legal aid commission under section 6 to arrange the legal representation of a young person in proceedings relating to a control order.
Informing the legal aid commission (2) An AFP member, or a legal representative of the Australian Federal Police, must:
(a) in writing, inform the chief executive officer of the legal aid commission of the request; and
(b) give the legal aid commission the following information that the AFP member or legal representative has:
(i) the young person’s name;
(ii) the young person’s residential address;
(iii) the young person’s contact details, including a telephone number and an email address;
(iv) the young person’s date of birth;
(v) the name, residential address and contact details of at least one parent or guardian of the young person;
(vi) if the young person requires assistance with communication—information about the assistance required.
Note: For subparagraph (b)(vi), a young person may need assistance with communication because, for example, the person is deaf or hearing impaired, is unable to read, has a mental impairment, or requires an interpreter.
Informing the young person (3) An AFP member, or a legal representative of the Australian Federal Police, must:
(a) inform the young person of the request; and
(b) give the young person sufficient information about the legal aid commission to enable the young person to contact and, if necessary, attend the legal aid commission, including the following information that the AFP member or legal representative has:
(i) the name of the legal aid commission;
(ii) the legal aid commission’s business address (not being a post box);
(iii) the legal aid commission’s contact details, including a telephone number and an email address;
(iv) any other information about the legal aid commission provided by the issuing court; and
(c) ensure that the young person understands the information provided to them under paragraphs (a) and (b) (taking into account the person’s age, language skills, mental capacity and any other relevant factor).
(4) Subsection (3) does not apply if the actions of the young person make it impracticable for the AFP member or legal representative to comply with that subsection.
Informing a parent or guardian of the young person (5) An AFP member, or a legal representative of the Australian Federal Police, must take reasonable steps to:
(a) inform at least one parent or guardian of the young person of the request; and
(b) give the parent or guardian the information about the legal aid commission that is required to be provided to the young person under paragraph (3)(b).
Timing (6) An AFP member or legal representative of the Australian Federal Police complying with subsection (2), (3) or (5) must do so as soon as practicable after the issuing court makes the request and at least 48 hours before the next day when the court will conduct proceedings relating to the control order.
For the purposes of the definition of
corresponding State preventative detention law in subsection 100.1(1) of the Code, the following are declared to correspond to Division 105 of the Code:
(a) Part 2A of the
Terrorism (Police Powers) Act 2002 (NSW);(b) Part 2A of the
Terrorism (Community Protection) Act 2003 (Vic.);(c) the
Terrorism (Preventative Detention) Act 2005 (Qld);(d) the
Terrorism (Preventative Detention) Act 2006 (WA);(e) the
Terrorism (Preventative Detention) Act 2005 (SA);(f) the
Terrorism (Preventative Detention) Act 2005 (Tas.);(g) Part 2 of the
Terrorism (Extraordinary Temporary Powers) Act 2006 (ACT);(h) Part 2B of the
Terrorism (Emergency Powers) Act 2003 (NT).
For the purposes of paragraph 105A.15A(3)(a) of the Code, the following matters are prescribed as matters that a Supreme Court of a State or Territory may take into account in determining whether circumstances are beyond an offender’s control in relation to a continuing detention order proceeding:
(a) the offender’s financial circumstances;
(b) whether the offender has engaged in unreasonable conduct during the proceeding that has contributed to the offender’s inability to afford any or all of the costs and expenses of obtaining legal representation for the proceeding;
(c) whether the offender has made any efforts to obtain legal aid or legal assistance, and the outcomes of any such efforts;
(d) any other matter that the Court considers relevant.
For the purposes of subsections 105A.19(1) and (3) of the Code, the following persons are prescribed:
(a) an AFP employee (within the meaning of the
Australian Federal Police Act 1979 );(b) a member of the police force or police service of a State or Territory;
(c) an officer or employee of a State or Territory, or of an authority of a State or Territory, whose duties relate to corrective services (including prison medical, psychological and psychiatric services), justice or parole;
(d) a person who provides services for, or on behalf of:
(i) a State or Territory; or
(ii) an authority of a State or Territory;
in relation to corrective services (including prison medical, psychological and psychiatric services), justice or parole;
(da) a person who provides services for, or on behalf of, the Commonwealth in relation to a person (the
service recipient ) if:
(i) a post‑sentence order or an interim post‑sentence order is in force in relation to the service recipient; or
(ii) the AFP Minister has made, or is considering making, an application for a post‑sentence order or an interim post‑sentence order in relation to the service recipient;
(e) the Director of Public Prosecutions or a person performing a similar function under a law of a State or Territory;
(f) a member of the staff of the Office of the Director of Public Prosecutions (within the meaning of the
Director of Public Prosecutions Act 1983 ) or of a similar body established under a law of a State or Territory;(g) the Director‑General of Security, a Deputy Director‑General of Security, an ASIO employee (within the meaning of the
Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979 ) or an ASIO affiliate (within the meaning of that Act);(h) an APS employee of a Department administered by the Minister administering:
(i) the
Migration Act 1958 ; or(ii) the
Australian Citizenship Act 2007 ; or(iii) the
Australian Passports Act 2005 ;(i) a person:
(i) who is an authorised officer (within the meaning of Division 9A of Part IB of the
Crimes Act 1914 ); or(ii) who, under a delegation from such an authorised officer, exercises powers or performs functions of the authorised officer under Division 9A of Part IB of the
Crimes Act 1914 ;(j) a person who is a relevant expert and who is:
(i) appointed by the AFP Minister under section 105A.18D of the Code; or
(ii) otherwise engaged, by the AFP Minister, or a person on behalf of the AFP Minister;
to assess the risk of a terrorist offender committing a serious Part 5.3 offence (all within the meaning of Division 105A of the Code) for the purposes of that Division (whether or not an application for a post‑sentence order has been made).
Each item of the table in clause 1 of Schedule 1 lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.1(1)(a) of the Code, a substance that is a controlled drug; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity that is the commercial quantity of the controlled drug; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity (if any) that is the marketable quantity of the controlled drug; and
(d) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.12 of the Code, the quantity that is the trafficable quantity of the controlled drug.
Each item of the following table lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.2(1)(a) of the Code, a growing plant that is a controlled plant; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, a quantity that is a commercial quantity of the controlled plant; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, a quantity that is a marketable quantity of the controlled plant; and
(d) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.12 of the Code, a quantity that is a trafficable quantity of the controlled plant.
1 | Any plant of the genus | 250 kg or 1,000 plants | 25 kg or 100 plants | 250 g or 10 plants |
Each item of the following table lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.3(1)(a) of the Code, a substance that is a controlled precursor; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity that is the commercial quantity of the controlled precursor; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity that is the marketable quantity of the controlled precursor.
Note: A salt or ester of a substance listed in the table is also a controlled precursor: see paragraph 301.3(1)(b) of the Code.
1A | Alpha‑Phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) | 2.75 | 915.0 |
1B | Alpha‑Phenylacetoacetonitrile (APAAN) | 1.76 | 587.0 |
1C | 4‑Anilino‑N‑phenethylpiperidine (ANPP) | 0.006 | 2.77 |
1D | Butyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.46 | 292.0 |
1E | Butyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.61 | 1,194.0 |
1F | Diethyl 2‑(2‑phenylacetyl)propanedioate (DEPAPD) | 4.75 | 1,585.0 |
1 | Ephedrine | 1.2 | 400.0 |
2 | Ergometrine | 0.006 | 0.15 |
3 | Ergotamine | 0.01 | 0.25 |
3A | Ethyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (EAPA) | 3.28 | 1,094.0 |
3B | Ethyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.3 | 261.0 |
3C | Ethyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.18 | 1,051.0 |
3D | Isobutyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.46 | 292.0 |
3E | Isobutyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.61 | 1,194.0 |
3F | Isopropyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.38 | 275.0 |
3G | Isopropyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.39 | 1,123.0 |
4 | Isosafrole | 1.45 | 290.0 |
5 | Lysergic acid | 0.003 | 0.075 |
5A | Methyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (MAPA) | 3.06 | 1,020.0 |
6 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyphenylacetic acid | 1.5 | 300.0 |
6AA | 3‑(3’,4’‑Methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidic acid | 1.33 | 266.0 |
6A | 3‑(3’, 4’‑Methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt (NaMDMG) | 1.46 | 292.0 |
7 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyphenyl‑2‑propanone | 0.75 | 150.0 |
7A | Methyl 3‑(3’, 4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate (MMDMG) | 1.23 | 246.0 |
7B | Methyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 2.96 | 980.0 |
7BA | Norfentanyl | 0.006 | 2.8 |
7C | N‑Phenethyl‑4‑piperidone (NPP) | 0.008 | 4.0 |
8 | Phenylacetic acid | 4.05 | 1,350.0 |
8AA | 3‑Phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidic acid | 4.6 | 1,531.0 |
8A | 3‑Phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt | 5.17 | 1,720.0 |
8B | N‑Phenyl‑4‑piperidinamine (4‑AP) | 0.008 | 3.8 |
9 | Phenylpropanolamine | 1.2 | 400.0 |
10 | Phenyl‑2‑propanone | 1.04 | 340.0 |
10A | Phenyl‑2‑propanone bisulphite | 2.64 | 880.0 |
10B | 1‑Phenylpropan‑2‑yl 4‑methylbenzenesulfonate (para‑tosyl‑phenyl‑2‑propanol) | 2.25 | 737.0 |
10C | 4‑Piperidone | 0.008 | 3.8 |
11 | Piperonal | 1.6 | 320.0 |
11A | Propyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.38 | 275.0 |
11B | Propyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.39 | 1,123.0 |
12 | Pseudoephedrine | 1.2 | 400.0 |
13 | Safrole | 2.85 | 570.0 |
14 | 1.46 | 292.0 | |
15 | 3.61 | 1,194.0 | |
16 | N‑(tert‑Butoxycarbonyl)‑4‑piperidone | 0.015 | 7.6 |
17 | 1.46 | 292.0 | |
18 | 0.015 | 7.3 | |
19 | 3.61 | 1,194.0 | |
(1) Each item of the table in subclause 1(1) of Schedule 2 lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.4(1)(a) of the Code, a substance that is a border controlled drug; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity that is the commercial quantity of the border controlled drug; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity that is the marketable quantity of the border controlled drug.
Restricted listing (2) Each item of the table in subclause 1(2) of Schedule 2 lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.4(1)(a) and subsection 301.4(2) of the Code, a substance that is taken to be a border controlled drug only in relation to the following:
(i) an offence against subsection 307.1(1), 307.2(1), 307.3(1) or 307.4(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to importing a substance;
(ii) an offence against subsection 307.5(1), 307.6(1), 307.7(1), 307.8(1), 307.9(1) or 307.10(1) of the Code;
(iii) an offence against subsection 309.12(1) or 309.13(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to procuring an individual to import a substance; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity that is the commercial quantity of the border controlled drug; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity that is the marketable quantity of the border controlled drug.
Each item of the following table lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.5(1)(a) of the Code, a growing plant that is a border controlled plant; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, a quantity (if any) that is a commercial quantity of the border controlled plant; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, a quantity (if any) that is a marketable quantity of the border controlled plant.
1 | Any plant of the genus | 250 kg or 1,000 plants | 25 kg or 100 plants |
2 | Any plant of the genus | 80 kg | |
3 | Any plant of the genus | ||
4 | Any plant of the species | 10 kg | |
5 | Any plant of the species | 10 kg | |
6 | Any plant of the species | ||
7 | Any plant of the species | ||
(1) Each item of the following table lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.6(1)(a) of the Code, a substance that is a border controlled precursor; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity (if any) that is the commercial quantity of the border controlled precursor; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity (if any) that is the marketable quantity of the border controlled precursor.
Note: A salt or ester of a substance listed in the table and an immediate precursor of a substance listed in the table are also border controlled precursors: see paragraphs 301.6(1)(b) and (c) of the Code.
1 | N‑Acetylanthranilic acid | ||
1A | Alpha‑Phenylacetoacetamide (APAA) | 2.74 | 7.3 |
1B | Alpha‑Phenylacetoacetonitrile (APAAN) | 1.76 | 4.7 |
1C | 4‑Anilino‑N‑phenethylpiperidine (ANPP) | 0.006 | 0.006 |
2 | Any plant of the species | ||
2AA | Butyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.46 | 14.6 |
2AB | Butyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.61 | 9.6 |
2A | Chloroephedrine | 1.153 | 3.07 |
2B | Chloropseudoephedrine | 1.153 | 3.07 |
2C | Diethyl 2‑(2‑phenylacetyl)propanedioate (DEPAPD) | 4.75 | 12.7 |
3 | Ephedrine | 1.2 | 3.2 |
4 | Ergometrine | 0.006 | 0.006 |
5 | Ergotamine | 0.01 | 0.01 |
5A | Ethyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (EAPA) | 3.28 | 8.8 |
5B | Ethyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.3 | 13.0 |
5C | Ethyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.18 | 8.5 |
5D | Isobutyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | ||
1.46 | 14.6 | ||
5E | Isobutyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.61 | 9.6 |
5F | Isopropyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.38 | 13.8 |
5G | Isopropyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.39 | 9.1 |
6 | Isosafrole | 1.45 | 1.45 |
7 | Lysergic acid | 0.003 | 0.003 |
7A | Methyl alpha‑phenylacetoacetate (MAPA) | 3.06 | 8.2 |
7AA | 3‑(3’,4’‑Methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidic acid | 1.33 | 13.3 |
7B | 3‑(3’, 4’‑Methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt (NaMDMG) | 1.46 | 14.6 |
8 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyphenyl‑2‑propanone | 0.75 | 0.75 |
8A | Methyl 3‑(3’, 4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate (MMDMG) | 1.23 | 12.3 |
8B | Methyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 2.96 | 7.9 |
8BA | Norfentanyl | 0.006 | 0.006 |
8C | N‑Phenethyl‑4‑piperidone (NPP) | 0.008 | 0.008 |
9 | Phenylacetic acid | 4.05 | 10.8 |
9AA | 3‑Phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidic acid | 4.6 | 12.2 |
9A | 3‑Phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidic acid, sodium salt | 5.17 | 13.7 |
9B | N‑Phenyl‑4‑piperidinamine (4‑AP) | 0.008 | 0.008 |
10 | Phenylpropanolamine | 1.2 | 3.2 |
11 | Phenyl‑2‑propanone | 1.04 | 2.7 |
11A | Phenyl‑2‑propanone bisulphite | 2.64 | 7.04 |
11B | 1‑Phenylpropan‑2‑yl 4‑methylbenzenesulfonate (para‑tosyl‑phenyl‑2‑propanol) | 2.25 | 5.9 |
11C | 4‑Piperidone | 0.008 | 0.008 |
12 | Piperonal | 1.6 | 1.6 |
12A | Propyl 3‑(3’,4’‑methylenedioxyphenyl)‑2‑methyl glycidate | 1.38 | 13.8 |
12B | Propyl 3‑phenyl‑2‑methyl glycidate | 3.39 | 9.1 |
13 | Pseudoephedrine | 1.2 | 3.2 |
14 | Safrole | 2.85 | 2.85 |
15 | 1.46 | 14.6 | |
16 | 3.61 | 9.6 | |
17 | N‑(tert‑Butoxycarbonyl)‑4‑piperidone | 0.015 | 0.015 |
18 | 1.46 | 14.6 | |
19 | 0.015 | 0.015 | |
20 | 3.61 | 9.6 |
Restricted listing (2) Each item of the following table lists:
(a) for the purposes of paragraph 301.6(1)(a) and subsection 301.6(1A) of the Code, a substance that is taken to be a border controlled precursor only in relation to the following:
(i) an offence against subsection 307.11(1), 307.12(1) or 307.13(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to importing a substance;
(ii) an offence against subsection 309.14(1) or 309.15(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to procuring an individual to import a substance; and
(b) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.10 of the Code, the quantity that is the commercial quantity of the border controlled precursor; and
(c) for the purposes of paragraph (a) of item 1 of the table in section 301.11 of the Code, the quantity that is the marketable quantity of the border controlled precursor.
Note: For a salt, ester or immediate precursor of a substance listed in the table, see paragraphs 301.6(1)(b) and (c) and subsection 301.6(1B) of the Code.
1 | Alpha‑Methyl‑1,3‑benzodioxole‑5‑propanal (Helional) | 1.0 | 1.0 |
2 | Benzaldehyde | 1.85 | 4.8 |
3 | Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid) | 1.2 | 3.2 |
4 | Iodine | 1.2 | 3.2 |
5 | Methylamine | 0.6 | 1.6 |
For the purposes of paragraph 320.2(2)(l) of the Code, a substance that is imported into Australia in accordance with the conditions set out in section 19 of this instrument is prescribed.
For the purposes of paragraph 320.3(3)(f) of the Code, a substance that is imported into Australia in accordance with the conditions set out in section 19 of this instrument is prescribed.
(1) For the purposes of sections 17 and 18, the conditions are that:
(a) the person importing the substance (the
importer ) is the holder of a licence to import drugs granted by the Health Secretary or an authorised person under subregulation 5(5) of theCustoms (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956 ; and(b) the importer is covered by subsection (2); and
(c) before the substance is imported, the importer gives the Health Secretary or an authorised person a written notice about the proposed importation that includes:
(i) the identity and amount of the substance being imported; and
(ii) the purpose of the importation; and
(iii) a 30‑day period during which the importation is likely to occur; and
(iv) the importer’s name and import licence number; and
(v) if paragraph (2)(a), (d), (e) or (f) applies and the importer is employed by the body mentioned in the applicable paragraph—the name of the importer’s employer; and
(vi) any other information required by the Health Secretary.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the importer is covered by this subsection if:
(a) the importer is, or is employed by, a forensic laboratory and is importing the substance for the purposes of forensic analysis; or
(b) the importer is the Australian Federal Police, or a police force of a State or Territory, and is importing the substance for the purposes of law enforcement; or
(c) the importer is the Commissioner or a Deputy Commissioner of the Australian Federal Police, or is the head or deputy head (however described) of a police force of a State or Territory, and is importing the substance for the purposes of law enforcement; or
(d) the importer is, or is employed by, a medical research facility and is importing the substance for the purposes of medical research; or
(e) the importer is, or is employed by, a scientific research facility and is importing the substance for the purposes of scientific research; or
(f) all of the following apply:
(i) the importer is, or is employed by, an entity that imports drugs (within the meaning of subregulation 5(20) of the
Customs (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956 ) on behalf of a person or body mentioned in paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e);(ii) the person or body holds a licence of a kind mentioned in paragraph (1)(a);
(iii) the importer is importing the substance at the written request of the person or body.
(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(c), the Health Secretary may determine:
(a) information to be included in a notice; and
(b) the way a notice may be given to the Health Secretary or an authorised person.
For the purposes of the definition of
firearm law in subsections 360.2(3) and 360.3(2) of the Code, the following laws are prescribed:
(a) the
Firearms Act 1996 (NSW);(b) the
Firearms Act 1996 (Vic.);(c) the
Weapons Act 1990 (Qld);(d) the
Firearms Act 1973 (WA);(e) the
Firearms Act 2015 (SA);(f) the
Firearms Act 1996 (Tas.);(g) the
Firearms Act 1996 (ACT);(h) the
Firearms Act 1997 (NT);(i) the
Firearms and Prohibited Weapons Act 1997 (Norfolk Island);(j) any regulations made under any of the Acts referred to in paragraphs (a) to (i).
For the purposes of paragraph 395.34(3)(a) of the Code, the following matters are prescribed as matters that a Supreme Court of a State or Territory may take into account in determining whether circumstances are beyond a serious offender’s control in relation to a community safety order proceeding:
(a) the offender’s financial circumstances;
(b) whether the offender has engaged in unreasonable conduct during the proceeding that has contributed to the offender’s inability to afford any or all of the costs and expenses of obtaining legal representation for the proceeding;
(c) whether the offender has made any efforts to obtain legal aid or legal assistance, and the outcomes of any such efforts;
(d) any other matter that the Court considers relevant.
For the purposes of subsections 395.44(1) and (4) of the Code, the following persons are prescribed:
(a) an AFP employee (within the meaning of the
Australian Federal Police Act 1979 );(b) a member of the police force or police service of a State or Territory;
(c) an officer or employee of a State or Territory, or of an authority of a State or Territory, whose duties relate to corrective services (including prison medical, psychological and psychiatric services), justice or parole;
(d) a person who provides services for, or on behalf of:
(i) a State or Territory; or
(ii) an authority of a State or Territory;
in relation to corrective services (including prison medical, psychological and psychiatric services), justice or parole;
(e) a person who provides services for, or on behalf of, the Commonwealth in relation to a person (the
service recipient ) if:
(i) a community safety order is in force in relation to the service recipient; or
(ii) the Immigration Minister has made, or is considering making, an application for a community safety order in relation to the service recipient;
(f) the Director of Public Prosecutions or a person performing a similar function under a law of a State or Territory;
(g) a member of the staff of the Office of the Director of Public Prosecutions (within the meaning of the
Director of Public Prosecutions Act 1983 ) or of a similar body established under a law of a State or Territory;(h) the Director‑General of Security, a Deputy Director‑General of Security, an ASIO employee (within the meaning of the
Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979 ) or an ASIO affiliate (within the meaning of that Act);(i) an APS employee in a Department administered by:
(i) the Immigration Minister; or
(ii) the Minister administering the
Australian Passports Act 2005 ;(j) a person:
(i) who is an authorised officer (within the meaning of Division 9A of Part IB of the
Crimes Act 1914 ); or(ii) who, under a delegation from such an authorised officer, exercises powers or performs functions of the authorised officer under Division 9A of Part IB of the
Crimes Act 1914 ;(k) a person who is a relevant expert and who is:
(i) appointed by the Immigration Minister under section 395.43 of the Code; or
(ii) otherwise engaged by the Immigration Minister, or a person on behalf of the Immigration Minister;
to assess the risk of a serious offender committing a serious violent or sexual offence for the purposes of Division 395 of the Code (whether or not an application for a community safety order has been made);
(l) a person who is engaged as a consultant or contractor to perform services for the Department administered by the Immigration Minister;
(m) a person who is:
(i) engaged or employed by a person to whom paragraph (l) or this paragraph applies; and
(ii) performing services for the Department administered by the Immigration Minister in connection with that engagement or employment.
For the purposes of subparagraph 471.15(1)(b)(ii) of the Code, the following are dangerous or harmful substances or things that must not, without exception, be carried by post:
(a) gas that is so toxic or corrosive to humans as to pose a hazard to health;
(b) a thermally unstable substance that is likely to undergo a strongly exothermic decomposition;
(c) a substance that ignites or self‑heats when in contact with air.
(1) If:
(a) a thing was done for a particular purpose under the
Criminal Code Regulations 2002 as in force immediately before those Regulations were repealed; and(b) the thing could be done for that purpose under this instrument;
the thing has effect for the purposes of this instrument as if it had been done for that purpose under this instrument.
(2) Without limiting subsection (1), a reference in that subsection to a thing being done includes a reference to a notice, application or other instrument being given or made.
(1) To avoid doubt, a function or duty may be performed, or a power exercised, under this instrument in relation to conduct engaged in, an event that occurred, or a circumstance that arose, before this section commences.
(2) This section does not limit section 22 of this instrument or section 7 of the
Acts Interpretation Act 1901 (as that Act applies in relation to this instrument because of paragraph 13(1)(a) of theLegislation Act 2003 ).
Note: See section 11.
The following table lists substances that are controlled drugs and the quantities of those drugs that are commercial quantities, marketable quantities and trafficable quantities.
Note: A drug analogue of a substance listed in the table is also a controlled drug (see paragraph 301.1(1)(b) of the Code).
1 | Acetorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
2 | 4‑Acetoxy‑N, N‑dimethyltryptamine (4‑AcO‑DMT) | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
3 | 4‑Acetoxy‑N‑methyl‑N‑ethyltryptamine (4‑AcO‑MET) | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
4 | Acetyl‑alpha‑methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
5 | Acetylcodeine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
6 | Acetyldihydrocodeine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
7 | Acetylmethadol | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
8 | Allylprodine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
9 | Alphacetylmethadol | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
10 | Alphameprodine | 0.2 | 100.0 | 0.2 |
11 | Alphamethadol | 0.2 | 100.0 | 0.2 |
12 | alpha‑Methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
13 | alpha‑Methylthiofentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
14 | Alphaprodine | 25.0 | 12,500.0 | 25.0 |
15 | alpha‑Pyrrolidinobutiophenone (α‑PBP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
16 | alpha‑Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (α‑PPP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
17 | alpha‑Pyrrolidinovalerophenone (α‑PVP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
18 | 5‑(2‑Aminopropyl)‑2,3‑dihydro‑1h‑indene (5‑APDI) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
19 | 6‑(2‑Aminopropyl)‑2,3‑dihydrobenzofuran (6‑APDB) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
20 | Amphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
21 | Anileridine | 25.0 | 12,500.0 | 25.0 |
22 | Barbiturates | 5.0 | 5.0 | |
23 | Benzethidine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
24 | 1‑(Benzofuran‑6‑yl) propan‑2‑amine (6‑APB) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
24A | Benzoylbenzylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
25 | Benzoylecgonine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
25A | Benzoylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
25B | Benzylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
25C | Benzylfuranylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
26 | Benzylmorphine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
27 | Benzylpiperazine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
28 | Betacetylmethadol | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
29 | beta‑Hydroxyfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
30 | beta‑Hydroxy‑3‑methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
31 | beta‑Keto‑methylbenzodioxolylpentanamine (pentylone) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
32 | beta‑Keto‑N‑methyl‑3,4‑ benzodioxyolylbutanamine (butylone) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
33 | Betameprodine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
34 | Betamethadol | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
35 | Betaprodine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
36 | Bezitramide | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
36A | Bromazolam | 5.0 | 1,250.0 | 30.0 |
37 | 2‑Bromoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
38 | 3‑Bromoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
39 | 4‑Bromoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
40 | 4‑Bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
41 | 2‑Bromo‑5‑methoxymethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
42 | 2‑Bromomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
43 | 3‑Bromomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
44 | 4‑Bromomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
45 | 2‑Bromomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
46 | 3‑Bromomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
47 | 4‑Bromomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
48 | Bufotenine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
49 | Bupropion | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
49A | Butonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
50 | Cannabis (in any form, including flowering or fruiting tops, leaves, seeds or stalks, but not including Cannabis resin or Cannabis fibre) | 125.0 | 25,000.0 | 250.0 |
51 | Cannabis resin | 125.0 | 25,000.0 | 20.0 |
52 | Cathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
53 | 1‑(4‑Chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑2‑ ethenamine (2C‑C) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
54 | 2‑Chloroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
55 | 3‑Chloroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
56 | 4‑Chloroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
57 | 2‑Chloromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
58 | 3‑Chloromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
59 | 4‑Chloromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
60 | 4‑Chloro‑N‑ethylamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
61 | 2‑Chloromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
62 | 3‑Chloromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
63 | 4‑Chloromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
64 | 4‑Chlorophenyl‑1‑methoxypropan‑2‑amine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
65 | Chlorphentermine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
66 | Clonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
67 | Cocaine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
68 | Codeine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
69 | Codeine‑N‑oxide | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
70 | Codoxime | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
70A | N‑Desethyl etonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
70B | N‑Desethyl isotonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
70C | N‑Desethyl protonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
71 | Desomorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
72 | Dexamphetamine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
73 | Dextromoramide | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
74 | Diampromide | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
75 | Diethylpropion (N, N‑Diethylcathinone) | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
76 | Diethylthiambutene | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
77 | N,N‑Diethyltryptamine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
78 | Difenoxin | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
79 | 1‑(2,3‑Dihydro‑1‑benzofuran‑5‑yl)propan‑2‑ amine (5‑APDB) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
80 | Dihydrocodeine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
81 | Dihydromorphine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
82 | Dimenoxadol | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
83 | Dimepheptanol | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
84 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑bromophenethylamine (2C‑B) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
85 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑ethylphenethylamine (2C‑E) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
86 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑iodophenethylamine (2C‑I) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
87 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑methylamphetamine (STP, DOM) | 0.75 | 250 | 0.75 |
88 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑methylphenethylamine (2C‑D) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
89 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑nitrophenethylamine (2C‑N) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
90 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑(n)‑propylphenethylamine (2C‑P) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
91 | 3,4‑Dimethoxymethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
92 | 1‑Dimethylamino‑1,2‑diphenylethane | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
93 | N,N‑Dimethylamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
94 | N, N‑Dimethylcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
95 | 1,1‑Dimethylheptyl‑11‑ hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol (HU‑210) | 5.0 | 1,000.0 | 5.0 |
96 | 3,4‑Dimethylmethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
97 | Dimethylthiambutene | 20.0 | 10,000.0 | 20.0 |
98 | N,N‑Dimethyltryptamine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
99 | Dioxaphetyl butyrate | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
99A | Dipentylone (N,N‑dimethylpentylone) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
100 | Diphenoxylate | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
101 | Dipipanone | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
102 | Drotebanol | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
103 | Ecgonine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
104 | Ethchlorvynol | 50.0 | 50.0 | |
105 | Ethinamate | 50.0 | 50.0 | |
106 | N‑Ethylcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
106A | Ethylene etonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
106B | Ethyleneoxynitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
107 | Ethylmethylthiambutene | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
108 | Ethylmorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
109 | 3‑(2‑Ethylphenyl)‑2‑methyl‑quinazolin‑4‑one (Etaqualone) | 5.0 | 5.0 | |
109A | Etodesnitazene (etazene) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
110 | Etonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
110A | Etonitazepipne (N‑piperidinyl etonitazene) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
110B | Etonitazepyne (N‑pyrrolidino etonitazene) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
111 | Etorphine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
112 | Etoxeridine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
113 | Fentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
113A | Flunitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
114 | 4‑Fluoro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑F) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
115 | 2‑Fluoroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
116 | 3‑Fluoroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
117 | 4‑Fluoroamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
117A | 2‑Fluorodeschloroketamine (2‑FDCK) | 1.0 | 500.0 | 3.0 |
118 | 2‑Fluoromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
119 | 3‑Fluoromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
120 | 4‑Fluoromethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
121 | 2‑Fluoromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
122 | 3‑Fluoromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
123 | 4‑Fluoromethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
123A | Furanylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
124 | Furethidine | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
125 | Gammabutyrolactone (GBL) | 1.0 | 250.0 | 0.5 |
126 | Glutethimide | 50.0 | 50.0 | |
127 | Heroin (diacetylmorphine) | 1.5 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
128 | Hydrocodone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
129 | Hydromorphinol | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
130 | Hydromorphone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
131 | Hydroxyamphetamine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
132 | 4‑Hydroxybutanoic acid (GHB) | 1.0 | 250.0 | 0.5 |
133 | p‑Hydroxyephedrine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
134 | Hydroxypethidine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
135 | 2‑Iodoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
136 | 3‑Iodoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
137 | 4‑Iodoamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
138 | 2‑Iodomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
139 | 3‑Iodomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
140 | 4‑Iodomethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
141 | 2‑Iodomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
142 | 3‑Iodomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
143 | 4‑Iodomethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
144 | Isomethadone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
145 | 4‑Isopropoxy‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑O‑4) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
145A | Isotodesnitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
145B | Isotonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
146 | Ketamine | 1.0 | 500.0 | 3.0 |
147 | Ketobemidone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
148 | Levomethorphan | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
149 | Levophenacylmorphan | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
150 | Levorphanol, but not including dextrorphan | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
151 | Lysergamides | 0.01 | 0.01 | |
152 | Lysergide (LSD) | 0.002 | 0.05 | 0.002 |
153 | Meprobamate | 50.0 | 50.0 | |
154 | Mescaline | 7.5 | 3.75 | 7.5 |
155 | Metazocine | 7.0 | 3,500.0 | 7.0 |
156 | Methadone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
157 | Methamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
158 | Methaqualone | 5.0 | 5.0 | |
159 | Methcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
160 | Methorphan, but not including dextromethorphan | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
161 | 4’‑Methoxy‑alpha‑pyrrolidinopropiophenone (MOPPP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
162 | 4‑Methoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
163 | 4‑Methoxymethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
164 | 4‑Methoxymethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
165 | 4’‑Methyl‑alpha‑pyrrolidinobutiophenone (MPBP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
166 | 4’‑Methyl‑alpha‑pyrrolidinohexiophenone (MPHP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
167 | 4’‑Methyl‑alpha‑pyrrolidinopropiophenone (MPPP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
168 | 2‑Methylamino‑1‑phenylbutan‑1‑ one (buphedrone) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
169 | 4‑Methylamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
170 | N‑Methyl butylone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
171 | Methyldesorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
172 | Methyldihydromorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
173 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA) | 0.75 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
174 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) | |||
0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 | ||
175 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyethcathinone (MDEC) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
176 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxymethcathinone (MDMC) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
176A | Methylenedioxynitazene (2‑(2‑(benzo[d] [1,3]dioxol‑5‑ylmethyl)‑5‑nitro‑1H‑benzo [d]imidazol‑1‑yl)‑N,N‑diethylethan‑1‑amine) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
177 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
178 | 3’,4’‑Methylenedioxy‑alpha‑ pyrrolidinobutiophenone (MDPBP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
179 | 3’,4’‑Methylenedioxy‑alpha‑ pyrrolidinopropiophenone (MDPPP) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
180 | 4‑Methylethcathinone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
181 | 3‑Methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
182 | 4‑Methylmethamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
183 | 4‑Methylmethcathinone (4‑MMC) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
184 | Methylphenidate | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
185 | 1‑Methyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑propionoxypiperidine (MPPP) | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
186 | 4‑Methylthioamphetamine (4‑MTA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
187 | 4‑Methylthiobutylamphetamine (4‑MTBA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
188 | 4‑Methylthiodimethamphetamine (4‑MTDMA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
189 | 4‑Methylthioethylamphetamine (4‑MTEA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
190 | 3‑Methylthiofentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
191 | 4‑Methylthiomethamphetamine (4‑MTMA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
192 | 4‑Methylthiopropylamphetamine (4‑MTPA) | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
193 | Methyprylon | 50.0 | 50.0 | |
193A | Metodesnitazene (metazene) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
193B | Metonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
194 | Metopon | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
195 | Monoacetylmorphines | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
196 | Moramide | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
197 | Morphan, but not including dextrorphan | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
198 | Morpheridine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
199 | Morphine | 1.5 | 250.0 | 1.5 |
200 | Morphine‑N‑oxide | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
201 | Myrophine | 20.0 | 20.0 | |
202 | Nicocodine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
203 | Nicodicodine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
204 | Nicomorphine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
205 | Noracymethadol | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
206 | Norcodeine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
207 | Norlevorphanol | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
208 | Normethadone | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
209 | Normorphine | 20.0 | 20.0 | |
210 | Norpipanone | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
211 | Opium | 20.0 | 10,000.0 | 20.0 |
212 | Oripavine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
213 | Oxycodone | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
214 | Oxymorphone | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
215 | para‑Fluorofentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
216 | Pentazocine | 20.0 | 20.0 | |
217 | Pethidine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
218 | Phenadoxone | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
219 | Phenampromide | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
220 | Phenazocine | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
221 | Phencyclidine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
222 | Phendimetrazine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
223 | Phenmetrazine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
224 | Phenomorphan | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
225 | Phenoperidine | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
226 | Phentermine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
227 | 1‑Phenylethyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP) | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
227A | 3‑Phenylpropanoylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
228 | Pholcodine | 5.0 | 2,500.0 | 5.0 |
229 | Piminodine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
230 | Pipradrol | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
231 | Piritramide | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
232 | Proheptazine | 1.0 | 500.0 | 1.0 |
233 | Properidine | 25.0 | 12,500.0 | 25.0 |
234 | Propiram | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
234A | Protonitazene | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
234B | Protonitazepyne (N‑pyrrolidino protonitazene) | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
235 | Psilocine | 2.0 | 1,000.0 | 2.0 |
236 | Psilocybine | 2.0 | 1,000.0 | 2.0 |
237 | Pyrovalerone | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
237A | Secofentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
238 | Tetrahydrocannabinols (THC) | 5.0 | 1,000.0 | 2.0 |
239 | Thebacon | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
240 | Thebaine | 2.0 | 250.0 | 2.0 |
241 | Thiofentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
241A | Thiofuranylfentanyl | 0.005 | 2.5 | 0.005 |
242 | Trimeperidine | 10.0 | 5,000.0 | 10.0 |
243 | 2,3,4‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
244 | 2,3,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
245 | 2,3,6‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
246 | 2,4,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
247 | 2,4,6‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
248 | 3,4,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 250.0 | 0.75 |
249 | 2,4,5‑Trimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑O) | 0.5 | 100.0 | 0.5 |
Note: See section 14.
(1) The following table lists substances that are border controlled drugs and the quantities of those drugs that are commercial quantities and marketable quantities.
Note: A drug analogue of a substance listed in the table is also a border controlled drug (see paragraph 301.4(1)(b) of the Code).
1 | Acetorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
2 | Acetyl‑alpha‑methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
3 | Acetylcodeine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
4 | Acetyldihydrocodeine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
5 | Acetylmethadol | 2.0 | 2.0 |
6 | Allylprodine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
7 | Alphacetylmethadol | 10.0 | 10.0 |
8 | Alphameprodine | 0.2 | 0.2 |
9 | Alphamethadol | 0.2 | 0.2 |
10 | alpha‑Methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
11 | alpha‑Methylthiofentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
12 | Alphaprodine | 25.0 | 25.0 |
13 | 3‑(2‑Aminopropyl)indole (alpha‑methyltryptamine (AMT)) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
14 | 5‑(2‑Aminopropyl)‑2,3‑dihydro‑1h‑indene (5‑APDI) | 0.75 | 0.5 |
15 | Amphecloral | 2.0 | 2.0 |
16 | Amphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
17 | Anileridine | 25.0 | 25.0 |
18 | Barbiturates | 5.0 | 50.0 |
19 | Benzethidine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
20 | 1‑(Benzofuran‑6‑yl) propan‑2‑amine (6‑APB) | 0.75 | 0.5 |
20A | Benzoylbenzylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
21 | Benzoylecgonine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
21A | Benzoylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
21B | Benzylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
21C | Benzylfuranylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
22 | Benzylmorphine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
23 | Benzylpiperazine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
24 | Betacetylmethadol | 5.0 | 5.0 |
25 | beta‑Hydroxyfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
26 | beta‑Hydroxy‑3‑methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
27 | beta‑Keto‑N‑methyl‑3,4‑benzodioxyolylbutanamine (butylone) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
28 | Betameprodine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
29 | Betamethadol | 5.0 | 5.0 |
30 | Betaprodine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
31 | Bezitramide | 5.0 | 5.0 |
31A | Bromazolam | 5.0 | 30.0 |
32 | 4‑Bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyamphetamine | 0.5 | 0.5 |
33 | 2‑(4‑bromo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl) methyl]ethanamine (25‑B‑NBOMe) | 0.002 | 0.002 |
34 | Bufotenine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
34A | Butonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
35 | Cannabinoids (other than a Cannabinoid of a kind that can be obtained from a plant that is not a Cannabis plant) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
36 | Cannabis (in any form, including flowering or fruiting tops, leaves, seeds or stalks, but not including Cannabis resin or Cannabis fibre) | 100.0 | 25,000.0 |
37 | Cannabis resin | 50.0 | 20.0 |
38 | Cathinone | 0.75 | 2.0 |
39 | 1‑(4‑Chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑2‑ethenamine (2C‑C) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
40 | 2‑(4‑chloro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl) methyl]ethanamine (25‑C‑NBOMe) | 0.002 | 0.002 |
41 | Chlorphentermine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
42 | Clonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
43 | Cocaine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
44 | Codeine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
45 | Codeine‑N‑oxide | 10.0 | 10.0 |
46 | Codoxime | 10.0 | 10.0 |
46A | N‑Desethyl etonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
46B | N‑Desethyl isotonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
46C | N‑Desethyl protonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
47 | Desomorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
48 | Dexamphetamine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
49 | Dextromoramide | 2.0 | 2.0 |
50 | Diampromide | 5.0 | 5.0 |
51 | Diethylpropion (N, N‑Diethylcathinone) | 5.0 | 5.0 |
52 | Diethylthiambutene | 5.0 | 5.0 |
53 | N,N‑Diethyltryptamine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
54 | Difenoxin | 2.0 | 2.0 |
55 | Dihydrocodeine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
56 | Dihydromorphine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
57 | Dimenoxadol | 10.0 | 10.0 |
58 | Dimepheptanol | 10.0 | 10.0 |
59 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑bromophenethylamine (2C‑B) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
60 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑(n)‑butylthiophenethylamine (2C‑T‑9) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
61 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑ethylphenethylamine (2C‑E) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
62 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑ethylthiophenethylamine (2C‑T‑2) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
63 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑iodophenethylamine (2C‑I) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
64 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑(β‑isobutylthio)phenethylamine (2C‑T‑17) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
65 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑isopropylthiophenethylamine (2C‑T‑4) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
66 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑(β‑methoxyethylthio)phenethylamine (2C‑T‑13) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
67 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑methylamphetamine (STP, DOM) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
68 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑methylphenethylamine (2C‑D) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
69 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑nitrophenethylamine (2C‑N) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
70 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑(n)‑propylphenethylamine (2C‑P) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
71 | 2,5‑Dimethoxy‑4‑n‑propylthiophenethylamine (2C‑T‑7) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
72 | 2‑(2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl)methyl] ethanamine (25‑H‑NBOMe) | 0.002 | 0.002 |
73 | 1‑Dimethylamino‑1,2‑diphenylethane | 5.0 | 5.0 |
74 | 1,1‑Dimethylheptyl‑11‑hydroxytetrahydrocannabinol (HU‑210) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
75 | Dimethylthiambutene | 20.0 | 20.0 |
76 | N,N‑Dimethyltryptamine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
77 | Dioxaphetyl butyrate | 2.0 | 2.0 |
77A | Dipentylone (N,N‑dimethylpentylone) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
78 | Diphenoxylate | 2.0 | 2.0 |
79 | Dipipanone | 10.0 | 10.0 |
80 | Drotebanol | 2.0 | 2.0 |
81 | Ecgonine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
82 | Ethchlorvynol | 50.0 | 50.0 |
83 | Ethinamate | 50.0 | 50.0 |
83A | Ethylene etonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
83B | Ethyleneoxynitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
84 | Ethylmethylthiambutene | 10.0 | 10.0 |
85 | Ethylmorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
85A | Etodesnitazene (etazene) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
86 | Etonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
86A | Etonitazepipne (N‑piperidinyl etonitazene) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
86B | Etonitazepyne (N‑pyrrolidino etonitazene) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
87 | Etorphine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
88 | Etoxeridine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
89 | Fentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
89A | Flunitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
89B | 2‑Fluorodeschloroketamine (2‑FDCK) | 1.0 | 3.0 |
90 | 4‑Fluoro‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑F) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
91 | 4‑(2‑Fluoroethylthio)‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑T‑21) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
92 | 1‑(5‑fluoropentyl)‑3‑(2‑iodobenzyl)indole (AM‑694) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
92A | Furanylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
93 | Furethidine | 1.0 | 1.0 |
94 | Gammabutyrolactone (GBL) | 1.0 | 2.0 |
95 | Glutethimide | 50.0 | 50.0 |
96 | Harmaline | 5.0 | 2.0 |
97 | Harmine | 5.0 | 2.0 |
98 | Heroin (diacetylmorphine) | 1.5 | 2.0 |
99 | Hydrocodone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
100 | Hydromorphinol | 2.0 | 2.0 |
101 | Hydromorphone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
102 | Hydroxyamphetamine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
103 | 4‑Hydroxybutanoic acid (GHB) | 1.0 | 2.0 |
104 | 2‑[(1R,3S)‑3‑hydroxycyclohexyl]‑5‑ (2‑methyloctan‑2‑yl)phenol (CP 47,497) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
105 | 2‑[(1R,3S)‑3‑hydroxycyclohexyl]‑5‑ (2‑methylnonan‑2‑yl)phenol (CP 47,497‑C8) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
106 | Hydroxypethidine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
107 | 2‑(4‑iodo‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenyl)‑N‑[(2‑methoxyphenyl) methyl]ethanamine (25‑I‑NBOMe) | 0.002 | 0.002 |
108 | Isomethadone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
109 | 4‑Isopropoxy‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑O‑4) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
109A | Isotodesnitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
109B | Isotonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
110 | Ketamine | 1.0 | 3.0 |
111 | Ketobemidone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
112 | Levomethorphan | 2.0 | 2.0 |
113 | Levophenacylmorphan | 2.0 | 2.0 |
114 | Levorphanol, but not including dextrorphan | 1.0 | 1.0 |
115 | Lysergamide | 0.01 | 0.1 |
116 | Lysergide (LSD) | 0.002 | 0.002 |
117 | Meprobamate | 50.0 | 50.0 |
118 | Mescaline | 7.5 | 7.5 |
119 | Metazocine | 7.0 | 7.0 |
120 | Methadone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
121 | Methamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
122 | Methaqualone | 5.0 | 50.0 |
123 | Methcathinone | 0.75 | 2.0 |
124 | Methorphan, but not including dextromethorphan | 2.0 | 2.0 |
125 | 5‑Methoxy‑alpha‑methyltryptamine (5‑MeO‑AMT) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
126 | 4‑Methoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
127 | 5‑Methoxy‑N,N‑diisopropyltryptamine (5‑MeO‑DiPT) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
128 | 4‑Methoxymethamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
129 | 2‑(2‑Methoxyphenyl)‑1‑(1‑pentylindol‑3‑yl)ethanone (JWH‑250) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
130 | 4‑Methylamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
131 | Methyldesorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
132 | Methyldihydromorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
133 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxyamphetamine (MDA) | 0.75 | 0.5 |
134 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
134A | Methylenedioxynitazene (2‑(2‑(benzo[d] [1,3]dioxol‑5‑ylmethyl)‑5‑nitro‑1H‑benzo [d]imidazol‑1‑yl)‑N,N‑diethylethan‑1‑amine) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
135 | 3,4‑Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
136 | 3‑Methylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
137 | 4‑Methylmethamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
138 | 4‑Methylmethcathinone (4‑MMC) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
139 | Methylphenidate | 2.0 | 2.0 |
140 | 1‑Methyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑propionoxypiperidine (MPPP) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
141 | 4‑Methylthio‑2,5‑dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑T) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
142 | 4‑Methylthioamphetamine (4‑MTA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
143 | 4‑Methylthiobutylamphetamine (4‑MTBA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
144 | 4‑Methylthiodimethamphetamine (4‑MTDMA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
145 | 4‑Methylthioethylamphetamine (4‑MTEA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
146 | 3‑Methylthiofentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
147 | 4‑Methylthiomethamphetamine (4‑MTMA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
148 | 4‑Methylthiopropylamphetamine (4‑MTPA) | 0.75 | 2.0 |
149 | Methyprylon | 50.0 | 50.0 |
149A | Metodesnitazene (metazene) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
149B | Metonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
150 | Metopon | 2.0 | 2.0 |
151 | Monoacetylmorphines | 2.0 | 2.0 |
152 | Moramide | 2.0 | 2.0 |
153 | Morphan, but not including dextrorphan | 2.0 | 2.0 |
154 | Morpheridine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
155 | Morphine | 1.5 | 2.0 |
156 | Morphine‑N‑oxide | 2.0 | 2.0 |
157 | (1‑(2‑Morpholin‑4‑ylethyl)indol‑3‑yl)‑napthalen‑1‑ ylmethanone (JWH‑200) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
158 | Myrophine | 20.0 | 20.0 |
159 | Napthalen‑1‑yl‑(1‑butylindol‑3‑yl)methanone (JWH‑073) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
160 | Nicocodine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
161 | Nicodicodine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
162 | Nicomorphine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
163 | Noracymethadol | 2.0 | 2.0 |
164 | Norcodeine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
165 | Norlevorphanol | 2.0 | 2.0 |
166 | Normethadone | 5.0 | 5.0 |
167 | Normorphine | 20.0 | 20.0 |
168 | Norpipanone | 10.0 | 10.0 |
169 | Opium | 20.0 | 20.0 |
170 | Oripavine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
171 | Oxycodone | 5.0 | 5.0 |
172 | Oxymorphone | 2.0 | 2.0 |
173 | para‑Fluorofentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
174 | Pentazocine | 20.0 | 20.0 |
175 | 1‑Pentyl‑3‑(1‑napthoyl)indol (JWH‑018) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
176 | 1‑Pentyl‑3‑(4‑methyl‑1‑napthoyl)indole (JWH‑122) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
177 | Pethidine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
178 | Phenadoxone | 10.0 | 10.0 |
179 | Phenampromide | 10.0 | 10.0 |
180 | Phenazocine | 1.0 | 1.0 |
181 | Phencyclidine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
182 | Phendimetrazine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
183 | Phenmetrazine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
184 | Phenomorphan | 5.0 | 5.0 |
185 | Phenoperidine | 1.0 | 1.0 |
186 | Phentermine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
187 | 1‑Phenylethyl‑4‑phenyl‑4‑acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP) | 2.0 | 2.0 |
187A | 3‑Phenylpropanoylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
188 | Pholcodine | 5.0 | 5.0 |
189 | Piminodine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
190 | Pipradrol | 1.0 | 1.0 |
191 | Piritramide | 1.0 | 1.0 |
192 | Proheptazine | 1.0 | 1.0 |
193 | Properidine | 25.0 | 25.0 |
194 | Propiram | 10.0 | 10.0 |
194A | Protonitazene | 0.005 | 0.005 |
194B | Protonitazepyne (N‑pyrrolidino protonitazene) | 0.005 | 0.005 |
195 | Psilocine | 0.1 | 0.1 |
196 | Psilocybine | 0.1 | 0.1 |
197 | Pyrovalerone | 0.75 | 2.0 |
197A | Secofentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
198 | Tetrahydrocannabinols (THC) | 5.0 | 2.0 |
199 | Thebacon | 2.0 | 2.0 |
200 | Thebaine | 2.0 | 2.0 |
201 | Thiofentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
201A | Thiofuranylfentanyl | 0.005 | 0.005 |
202 | Trimeperidine | 10.0 | 10.0 |
203 | 2,3,4‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
204 | 2,3,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
205 | 2,3,6‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
206 | 2,4,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
207 | 2,4,6‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
208 | 3,4,5‑Trimethoxyamphetamine | 0.75 | 2.0 |
209 | 2,4,5‑Trimethoxyphenethylamine (2C‑O) | 0.5 | 0.5 |
Restricted listing (2) The following table lists:
(a) substances that are taken to be border controlled drugs only in relation to the following:
(i) an offence against subsection 307.1(1), 307.2(1), 307.3(1) or 307.4(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to importing a substance;
(ii) an offence against subsection 307.5(1), 307.6(1), 307.7(1), 307.8(1), 307.9(1) or 307.10(1) of the Code;
(iii) an offence against subsection 309.12(1) or 309.13(1) of the Code, if the offence relates to procuring an individual to import a substance; and
(b) the quantities of those drugs that are commercial quantities and marketable quantities.
Note: For a drug analogue of a substance listed in the table, see paragraph 301.4(1)(b) and subsection 301.4(3) of the Code.
1 | 1,4‑Butanediol (1,4‑BD) | 1.0 | 2.0 |
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
The
If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe how an amendment is to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, then the misdescribed amendment can be incorporated through an editorial change made under section 15V of the
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the amendment is not incorporated and “(md not incorp)” is added to the amendment history.
ad = added or inserted | o = order(s) |
am = amended | Ord = Ordinance |
amdt = amendment | orig = original |
c = clause(s) | par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
Ch = Chapter(s) | pres = present |
def = definition(s) | prev = previous |
Dict = Dictionary | (prev…) = previously |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | Pt = Part(s) |
Div = Division(s) | r = regulation(s)/rule(s) |
ed = editorial change | reloc = relocated |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | renum = renumbered |
effect | rep = repealed |
F = Federal Register of Legislation | rs = repealed and substituted |
gaz = gazette | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
LA = | Sch = Schedule(s) |
LIA = | Sdiv = Subdivision(s) |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
effect | SR = Statutory Rules |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
cannot be given effect | SubPt = Subpart(s) |
mod = modified/modification | |
No. = Number(s) | commenced or to be commenced |
Criminal Code Regulations 2019 | 8 Apr 2019 (F2019L00561) | 9 Apr 2019 (s 2(1) item 1) | |
Criminal Code and Customs Legislation Amendment (Precursors and Drugs) Regulations 2020 | 10 Aug 2020 (F2020L01003) | Sch 1 (items 1–12): 12 Aug 2020 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Counter‑Terrorism Legislation Amendment (High Risk Terrorist Offenders) Regulations 2021 | 20 Dec 2021 (F2021L01842) | Sch 1 (item 1): 21 Dec 2021 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Crimes Legislation Amendment (Community Safety Orders and Other Measures) Regulations 2023 | 7 Dec 2023 (F2023L01628) | Sch 1 (items 1–5): 8 Dec 2023 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Criminal Code Amendment (Border Controlled Drugs and Precursors) Regulations 2024 | 29 Feb 2024 (F2024L00249) | 1 Mar 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | Sch 1 (item 10) |
Criminal Code Amendment (Controlled and Border Controlled Drugs and Precursors) Regulations 2025 | 24 Jan 2025 (F2025L00032) | 1 Mar 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
s 2............................................. | rep LA s 48D |
s 10............................................ | am F2021L01842; F2023L01628 |
s 13............................................ | am F2020L01003; F2025L00032 |
s 14............................................ | am F2024L00249 |
s 15............................................ | am F2024L00249 |
s 16............................................ | am F2020L01003; F2024L00249; F2025L00032 |
Division 4.................................. | ad F2023L01628 |
s 20A......................................... | ad F2023L01628 |
s 20B......................................... | ad F2023L01628 |
c 1............................................. | am F2025L00032 |
c 1............................................. | am F2024L00249; F2025L00032 |
0
0
0