Crimes Act 1900 (NSW)
Medicines, Poisons and Therapeutic Goods Act 2022 No 73 (not commenced)
Sec 93ZAC of this Act (sec 93ZAC repeals Part 3A, Div 8A on 16.8.2028)
Crimes Amendment (Sexual Offences and Female Genital Mutilation) Act 2025 No 54, Sch 1[11] (not commenced)
Crimes Amendment (Intimate Image and Audio Material) Act 2025 No 57 (not commenced)
Local Court and Bail Legislation Amendment Act 2025 No 61, Sch 2.23 (not commenced)
Crimes Amendment (Animal Sexual Abuse) Act 2025 No 67, Sch 1 (not commenced)
Anti-Discrimination and Crimes Legislation Amendment (Disability) Bill 2024 [Non-government Bill— Ms Abigail Boyd, MLC]
Crimes Legislation Amendment (Racial and Religious Hatred Legislation Repeal) Bill 2025 [Non-government Bill— the Hon John Ruddick, MLC]
Road Transport Legislation Amendment (Post-Crash Drug and Alcohol Testing) Bill 2025
Crimes Amendment (Deepfake Sexual Material) Bill 2025 [Non-government Bill— Ms F L Wilson, MP]
Crimes Legislation Amendment (Domestic Violence and Sexual Offences) Bill 2025
On 13 December 2023, the Supreme Court of New South Wales in Kvelde v State of New South Wales[2023] NSWSC 1560 declared that—
(a) section 214A(1)(c), to the extent that the paragraph makes it an offence for persons engaged in the conduct specified in the paragraph to cause part of the major facility to be closed is invalid, and
(b) section 214A(1)(d) is invalid.
An Act to consolidate the Statutes relating to Criminal Law.
This Act is the Crimes Act 1900.
(Repealed)
The Parts and sections mentioned in Schedule 2, so far as their provisions can be applied, shall be in force with respect to all offences, whether at Common Law or by Statute, whensoever committed and in whatsoever Court tried.
(Repealed)
In this Act, unless the context or subject-matter otherwise indicates or requires—
(a) a firearm, or an imitation firearm, within the meaning of the Firearms Act 1996, or
(b) a prohibited weapon within the meaning of the Weapons Prohibition Act 1998, or
(c) a spear gun.
(a) any building or other structure intended for occupation as a dwelling and capable of being so occupied, although it has never been so occupied,
(b) a boat or vehicle in or on which any person resides, and
(c) any building or other structure within the same curtilage as a dwelling-house, and occupied therewith or whose use is ancillary to the occupation of the dwelling-house.
(a) the destruction (other than in the course of a medical procedure or a termination of a pregnancy in accordance with the Abortion Law Reform Act 2019) of the foetus of a pregnant woman, whether or not the woman suffers any other harm, and
(b) any permanent or serious disfiguring of the person, and
(c) any grievous bodily disease (in which case a reference to the infliction of grievous bodily harm includes a reference to causing a person to contract a grievous bodily disease).
(a) a dangerous weapon, or
(b) any thing that is made or adapted for offensive purposes, or
(c) any thing that, in the circumstances, is used, intended for use or threatened to be used for offensive purposes, whether or not it is ordinarily used for offensive purposes or is capable of causing harm.
(a) a correctional centre within the meaning of the Crimes (Administration of Sentences) Act 1999,
(b) a detention centre within the meaning of the Children (Detention Centres) Act 1987.
The Interpretation Act 1987 contains definitions and other provisions that affect the interpretation and application of this Act.
A dwelling-house does not cease to be a dwelling-house by reason only of being temporarily unoccupied.
(Repealed)
In this Act, except in so far as the context or subject-matter otherwise indicates or requires, a reference to an offence mentioned in a specified provision of this Act that has been amended or repealed is, or includes, a reference to an offence mentioned in the provision as in force before the amendment or repeal.
(Repealed)
A reference in any offence under this Act to causing any poison, intoxicating substance or other destructive or noxious thing to be administered to or taken by any person includes a reference to causing any person to inhale, take or be exposed to the poison, intoxicating substance or thing by its release into the person’s environment.
In any provision of this Act where a reference to a firearm means a firearm within the meaning of the Firearms Act 1996, that reference is taken to include a paintball marker within the meaning of the Paintball Act 2018 and consequently, being authorised under that Act to possess a paintball marker satisfies any requirement in this Act that possession of the paintball marker be authorised under the Firearms Act 1996.
Notes included in this Act do not form part of this Act.
For the purposes of this Act, if an element of an offence is recklessness, that element may also be established by proof of intention or knowledge.
In this Act—
In a prosecution for an offence, dishonesty is a matter for the trier of fact.
For the purposes of this Act, a
(a) the person has a temporary or ongoing disturbance of thought, mood, volition, perception or memory, and
(b) the disturbance would be regarded as significant for clinical diagnostic purposes, and
(c) the disturbance impairs the emotional wellbeing, judgment or behaviour of the person.
A mental health impairment may arise from any of the following disorders but may also arise for other reasons—
(a) an anxiety disorder,
(b) an affective disorder, including clinical depression and bipolar disorder,
(c) a psychotic disorder,
(d) a substance induced mental disorder that is not temporary.
A person does not have a mental health impairment for the purposes of this Act if the person’s impairment is caused solely by—
(a) the temporary effect of ingesting a substance, or
(b) a substance use disorder.
(Repealed)
Where by this or any other Act the unlawful receiving of any property, or its possession without lawful cause or excuse, is expressed to be an offence, every person shall be deemed to have such property in his or her possession within the meaning of such Act who—
(a) has any such property in his or her custody, or
(b) knowingly has any such property in the custody of another person, or
(c) knowingly has any such property in a house, building, lodging, apartment, field, or other place, whether belonging to or occupied by himself or herself or not, and whether such property is there had or placed for his or her own use, or the use of another.
Where, by this or any other Act, or by any rule, regulation, ordinance or by-law, duly made under or by virtue of the provisions of any Act, any offence, conduct, or language, in a public place, or open and public place, or place of public resort, is made punishable, or a person guilty thereof is made liable to apprehension, the place shall be deemed public for the purposes of the enactment or taken to be otherwise within the meaning if the same, although a vessel or vehicle only, or a room, or field, or place, ordinarily private, was at the time used for a public purpose, or as a place of common resort, or was open to the public on the payment of money or otherwise.
(Repealed)
This Part applies to all offences.
This Part extends, beyond the territorial limits of the State, the application of a law of the State that creates an offence if there is the nexus required by this Part between the State and the offence.
If the law that creates an offence makes provision with respect to any geographical consideration concerning the offence, that provision prevails over any inconsistent provision of this Part.
This Part is in addition to and does not derogate from any other basis on which the courts of the State may exercise criminal jurisdiction.
For the purposes of this Part, the necessary geographical nexus is the geographical nexus required by section 10C.
For the purposes of this Part, the place in which an offence is committed is the place in which the physical elements of the offence occur.
For the purposes of this Part, the place in which an offence has an effect includes—
(a) any place whose peace, order or good government is threatened by the offence, and
(b) any place in which the offence would have an effect (or would cause such a threat) if the criminal activity concerned were carried out.
A reference in this Part to the State includes a reference to the coastal waters of the State in which the criminal law of the State applies (including in any part of the adjacent area of the State in which the substantive criminal law of the State applies by force of the law of the State or of the Commonwealth in accordance with the Crimes at Sea Act 1998).
If—
(a) all elements necessary to constitute an offence against a law of the State exist (disregarding geographical considerations), and
(b) a geographical nexus exists between the State and the offence,
the person alleged to have committed the offence is guilty of an offence against that law.
A geographical nexus exists between the State and an offence if—
(a) the offence is committed wholly or partly in the State (whether or not the offence has any effect in the State), or
(b) the offence is committed wholly outside the State, but the offence has an effect in the State.
This Part applies to an offence that is committed partly in the State and partly in another place outside the State, irrespective of whether it is also an offence in that other place.
This Part applies to an offence that is committed wholly in a place outside the State only if—
(a) it is also an offence in that place, or
(b) it is not also an offence in that place, but the trier of fact is satisfied that the offence constitutes such a threat to the peace, order or good government of the State that the offence warrants criminal punishment in the State.
The existence of the necessary geographical nexus for an offence is to be presumed and the presumption is conclusive unless rebutted under subsection (2).
If a person charged with an offence disputes the existence of the necessary geographical nexus, the court is to proceed with the trial of the offence in the usual way. If, at the conclusion of the trial, the trier of fact is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the necessary geographical nexus does not exist, it must (subject to subsection (3)) make or return a finding to that effect and the charge is to be dismissed.
If the trier of fact would, disregarding any geographical considerations, find the person not guilty of the offence, it must make or return a finding of not guilty. The trier of fact must make or return a finding of act proven but not criminally responsible because of mental health impairment or cognitive impairment in any such case if they were the only grounds on which the trier of fact would have found the person not criminally responsible.
This section also applies to any alternative verdict available by law to the trier of fact in respect of another offence with which the person was not charged. A finding of guilt may be made or returned in any such case, unless the trier of fact is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the necessary geographical nexus for that other offence does not exist.
The issue of whether the necessary geographical nexus exists must, if raised before the trial, be reserved for consideration at the trial.
A power or authority exercisable on reasonable suspicion or belief that an offence has been committed may be exercised in the State if the person in whom the power or authority is vested suspects on reasonable grounds or believes that the elements necessary to constitute the offence exist (whether or not the person suspects or believes or has any ground to suspect or believe that the necessary geographical nexus with the State exists).
In this section—
This section applies for the purposes of, but without limiting, this Part.
The necessary geographical nexus exists between the State and any of the following offences if the offence is committed by a public official (within the meaning of the Independent Commission Against Corruption Act 1988) and involves public money of the State or property held by the public official for or on behalf of the State—
(a) larceny or any offence that includes larceny,
(b) fraud or any other offence under Part 4AA.
The necessary geographical nexus exists between the State and an offence against section 45 or 45A if the person against whom the offence is committed is a person ordinarily resident in the State.
The provisions of the Act of the Parliament of Great Britain, thirty-sixth George the Third chapter seven, made perpetual by the Act of the Parliament of Great Britain and Ireland fifty-seventh George the Third chapter six, and all the provisions of the last mentioned Act in relation thereto, save such of the same respectively as relate to the compassing, imagining, inventing, devising, or intending death or destruction, or any bodily harm tending to death or destruction, maim, or wounding, imprisonment, or restraint of the person of the heirs and successors of His said Majesty King George the Third, and the expressing, uttering, or declaring of such compassings, imaginations, inventions, devices, or intentions, or any of them, shall be and the same are hereby repealed.
Whosoever, within New South Wales or without, compasses, imagines, invents, devises, or intends to deprive or depose Our Most Gracious Lady the Queen, her heirs or successors, from the style, honour, or Royal name of the Imperial Crown of the United Kingdom, or of any other of Her Majesty’s dominions and countries, or to levy war against Her Majesty, her heirs or successors, within any part of the United Kingdom, or any other of Her Majesty’s dominions, in order, by force or constraint, to compel her or them to change her or their measures or counsels, or in order to put any force or constraint upon, or in order to intimidate or overawe, both Houses or either House of the Parliament of the United Kingdom, or the Parliament of New South Wales, or to move or stir any foreigner or stranger with force to invade the United Kingdom, or any other of Her Majesty’s dominions, or countries under the obeisance of Her Majesty, her heirs or successors, and expresses, utters, or declares such compassings, imaginations, inventions, devices, or intentions, or any of them, by publishing any printing or writing, or by open and advised speaking, or by any overt act or deed, shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
(Repealed)
Nothing contained in this Part shall lessen the force of, or in any matter affect, anything enacted by the Statute passed in the twenty-fifth year of King Edward the Third “A declaration which offences shall be adjudged Treason”.
(Repealed)
(Repealed)
The rule of law that it is conclusively presumed that an injury was not the cause of death of a person if the person died after the expiration of the period of a year and a day after the date on which the person received the injury is abrogated.
This section does not apply in respect of an injury received before the commencement of this section.
(a) Murder shall be taken to have been committed where the act of the accused, or thing by him or her omitted to be done, causing the death charged, was done or omitted with reckless indifference to human life, or with intent to kill or inflict grievous bodily harm upon some person, or done in an attempt to commit, or during or immediately after the commission, by the accused, or some accomplice with him or her, of a crime punishable by imprisonment for life or for 25 years.
(b) Every other punishable homicide shall be taken to be manslaughter.
(a) No act or omission which was not malicious, or for which the accused had lawful cause or excuse, shall be within this section.
(b) No punishment or forfeiture shall be incurred by any person who kills another by misfortune only.
(Repealed)
A person who commits the crime of murder is liable to imprisonment for life.
A person sentenced to imprisonment for life for the crime of murder is to serve that sentence for the term of the person’s natural life.
Nothing in this section affects the operation of section 21 (1) of the Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999 (which authorises the passing of a lesser sentence than imprisonment for life).
This section applies to murder committed before or after the commencement of this section.
However, this section does not apply where committal proceedings (or proceedings by way of ex officio indictment) for the murder were instituted against the convicted person before the commencement of this section. In such a case, section 19 as in force before that commencement continues to apply.
Nothing in this section affects the prerogative of mercy.
A court is to impose a sentence of imprisonment for life for the murder of a police officer if the murder was committed—
(a) while the police officer was executing his or her duty, or
(b) as a consequence of, or in retaliation for, actions undertaken by that or any other police officer in the execution of his or her duty,
and if the person convicted of the murder—
(c) knew or ought reasonably to have known that the person killed was a police officer, and
(d) intended to kill the police officer or was engaged in criminal activity that risked serious harm to police officers.
A person sentenced to imprisonment for life under this section is to serve the sentence for the term of the person’s natural life.
This section does not apply to a person convicted of murder—
(a) if the person was under the age of 18 years at the time the murder was committed, or
(b) if the person had a significant cognitive impairment at that time (not being a temporary self-induced impairment).
If this section requires a person to be sentenced to imprisonment for life, nothing in section 21 (or any other provision) of the Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999 or in any other Act or law authorises a court to impose a lesser or alternative sentence.
Nothing in this section affects the obligation of a court to impose a sentence of imprisonment for life on a person convicted of murder in accordance with section 61 of the Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999.
Nothing in this section affects the prerogative of mercy.
This section applies to offences committed after the commencement of this section.
On the trial of a person for the murder of a child, such child shall be held to have been born alive if it has breathed, and has been wholly born into the world whether it has had an independent circulation or not.
Whosoever, being a woman delivered of a child is indicted for its murder, shall, if the jury acquit her of the murder, and specially find that she has in any manner wilfully contributed to the death of such child, whether during delivery, or at or after its birth, or has wilfully caused any violence, the mark of which has been found on its body, be liable to imprisonment for ten years.
Where, on the trial of a person for the murder or manslaughter of a child, the jury are not satisfied that the person is guilty thereof, but are satisfied that the person is guilty of an offence within section 85, they may acquit the person of the offence charged and find the person guilty of an offence under the said section, and the person shall be liable to punishment accordingly.
A woman is guilty of infanticide and not of murder if—
(a) the woman by an act or omission causes the death of a child, in circumstances that would constitute murder, within 12 months of giving birth to the child, and
(b) at the time of the act or omission, the woman had a mental health impairment that was consequent on or exacerbated by giving birth to the child.
A jury may, at the trial of a woman for the murder of her child, find the woman guilty of infanticide and not of murder if the jury is of the opinion that—
(a) the woman by an act or omission caused the death of the child, in circumstances that would constitute murder, within 12 months of giving birth to the child, and
(b) at the time of the act or omission, the woman had a mental health impairment that was consequent on or exacerbated by giving birth to the child.
A woman found guilty of infanticide under this section may be dealt with and punished as if the woman had been guilty of the offence of manslaughter of the child.
Nothing in this section affects the power of the jury on an indictment for the murder of a child to return—
(a) a verdict of manslaughter, or
(b) a special verdict of act proven but not criminally responsible (within the meaning of the Mental Health and Cognitive Impairment Forensic Provisions Act 2020), or
(c) concealment of birth.
If, on the trial of a person for murder, it appears that the act causing death was in response to extreme provocation and, but for this section and the provocation, the jury would have found the accused guilty of murder, the jury is to acquit the accused of murder and find the accused guilty of manslaughter.
An act is done in response to extreme provocation if and only if—
(a) the act of the accused that causes death was in response to conduct of the deceased towards or affecting the accused, and
(b) the conduct of the deceased was a serious indictable offence, and
(c) the conduct of the deceased caused the accused to lose self-control, and
(d) the conduct of the deceased could have caused an ordinary person to lose self-control to the extent of intending to kill or inflict grievous bodily harm on the deceased.
Conduct of the deceased does not constitute extreme provocation if—
(a) the conduct was only a non-violent sexual advance to the accused, or
(b) the accused incited the conduct in order to provide an excuse to use violence against the deceased.
Conduct of the deceased may constitute extreme provocation even if the conduct did not occur immediately before the act causing death.
For the purpose of determining whether an act causing death was in response to extreme provocation, evidence of self-induced intoxication of the accused (within the meaning of Part 11A) cannot be taken into account.
For the purpose of determining whether an act causing death was in response to extreme provocation, provocation is not negatived merely because the act causing death was done with intent to kill or inflict grievous bodily harm.
If, on the trial of a person for murder, there is any evidence that the act causing death was in response to extreme provocation, the onus is on the prosecution to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the act causing death was not in response to extreme provocation.
This section does not exclude or limit any defence to a charge of murder.
The substitution of this section by the Crimes Amendment (Provocation) Act 2014 does not apply to the trial of a person for murder that was allegedly committed before the commencement of that Act.
In this section—
A person who would otherwise be guilty of murder is not to be convicted of murder if—
(a) at the time of the acts or omissions causing the death concerned, the person’s capacity to understand events, or to judge whether the person’s actions were right or wrong, or to control himself or herself, was substantially impaired by a mental health impairment or a cognitive impairment, and
(b) the impairment was so substantial as to warrant liability for murder being reduced to manslaughter.
For the purposes of subsection (1) (b), evidence of an opinion that an impairment was so substantial as to warrant liability for murder being reduced to manslaughter is not admissible.
If a person was intoxicated at the time of the acts or omissions causing the death concerned, and the intoxication was self-induced intoxication (within the meaning of section 428A), the effects of that self-induced intoxication are to be disregarded for the purpose of determining whether the person is not liable to be convicted of murder by virtue of this section.
The onus is on the person accused to prove that he or she is not liable to be convicted of murder by virtue of this section.
A person who but for this section would be liable, whether as principal or accessory, to be convicted of murder is to be convicted of manslaughter instead.
The fact that a person is not liable to be convicted of murder in respect of a death by virtue of this section does not affect the question of whether any other person is liable to be convicted of murder in respect of that death.
If, on the trial of a person for murder, the person contends—
(a) that the person is entitled to be acquitted on the ground that the person was not criminally responsible because of mental health impairment or cognitive impairment, or
(b) that the person is not liable to be convicted of murder by virtue of this section,
evidence may be offered by the prosecution tending to prove the other of those contentions, and the Court may give directions as to the stage of the proceedings at which that evidence may be offered.
For the purposes of this section, a
(a) the person has an ongoing impairment in adaptive functioning, and
(b) the person has an ongoing impairment in comprehension, reason, judgment, learning or memory, and
(c) the impairments result from damage to or dysfunction, developmental delay or deterioration of the person’s brain or mind that may arise from a condition set out in subsection (9) or for other reasons.
A cognitive impairment may arise from any of the following conditions but may also arise for other reasons—
(a) intellectual disability,
(b) borderline intellectual functioning,
(c) dementia,
(d) an acquired brain injury,
(e) drug or alcohol related brain damage, including foetal alcohol spectrum disorder,
(f) autism spectrum disorder.
Whosoever commits the crime of manslaughter shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years—
Provided that, in any case, if the Judge is of the opinion that, having regard to all the circumstances, a nominal punishment would be sufficient, the Judge may discharge the jury from giving any verdict, and such discharge shall operate as an acquittal.
(Repealed)
A person is guilty of an offence under this subsection if—
(a) the person assaults another person by intentionally hitting the other person with any part of the person’s body or with an object held by the person, and
(b) the assault is not authorised or excused by law, and
(c) the assault causes the death of the other person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 20 years.
A person who is of or above the age of 18 years is guilty of an offence under this subsection if the person commits an offence under subsection (1) when the person is intoxicated.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
For the purposes of this section, an assault causes the death of a person whether the person is killed as a result of the injuries received directly from the assault or from hitting the ground or an object as a consequence of the assault.
In proceedings for an offence under subsection (1) or (2), it is not necessary to prove that the death was reasonably foreseeable.
It is a defence in proceedings for an offence under subsection (2)—
(a) if the intoxication of the accused was not self-induced (within the meaning of Part 11A), or
(b) if the accused had a significant cognitive impairment at the time the offence was alleged to have been committed (not being a temporary self-induced impairment).
In proceedings for an offence under subsection (2)—
(a) evidence may be given of the presence and concentration of any alcohol, drug or other substance in the accused’s breath, blood or urine at the time of the alleged offence as determined by an analysis carried out in accordance with Division 4 of Part 10 of the Law Enforcement (Powers and Responsibilities) Act 2002, and
(b) the accused is conclusively presumed to be intoxicated by alcohol if the prosecution proves in accordance with an analysis carried out in accordance with that Division that there was present in the accused’s breath or blood a concentration of 0.15 grams or more of alcohol in 210 litres of breath or 100 millilitres of blood.
If on the trial of a person for murder or manslaughter the jury is not satisfied that the offence is proven but is satisfied that the person has committed an offence under subsection (1) or (2), the jury may acquit the person of murder or manslaughter and find the person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) or (2). The person is liable to punishment accordingly.
If on the trial of a person for an offence under subsection (2) the jury is not satisfied that the offence is proven but is satisfied that the person has committed an offence under subsection (1), the jury may acquit the person of the offence under subsection (2) and find the person guilty of an offence under subsection (1). The person is liable to punishment accordingly.
Section 18 does not apply to an offence under subsection (1) or (2).
In this section,
A court is required to impose a sentence of imprisonment of not less than 8 years on a person guilty of an offence under section 25A (2). Any non-parole period for the sentence is also required to be not less than 8 years.
If this section requires a person to be sentenced to a minimum period of imprisonment, nothing in section 21 (or any other provision) of the Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999 or in any other Act or law authorises a court to impose a lesser or no sentence (or to impose a lesser non-parole period).
Nothing in this section (apart from subsection (2)) affects the provisions of the Crimes (Sentencing Procedure) Act 1999 or any other Act or law relating to the sentencing of offenders.
Nothing in this section affects the prerogative of mercy.
A person is guilty of an offence under this section if—
(a) the person supplies a prohibited drug to another person for financial or material gain, and
(b) the drug is self-administered by another person (whether or not the person to whom the drug was supplied), and
(c) the self-administration of the drug causes or substantially causes the death of that other person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 20 years.
In proceedings for an offence under this section, it is necessary to prove that the accused knew, or ought reasonably to have known, that supplying the prohibited drug would expose another person (whether or not the person to whom the drug was supplied) to a significant risk of death as a result of the self-administration of the drug.
A person does not commit an offence under this section for supplying a prohibited drug if the person is authorised to supply the drug under the Poisons and Therapeutic Goods Act 1966.
Proceedings for an offence under this section may only be instituted by or with the approval of the Director of Public Prosecutions.
Section 18 does not apply to an offence under this section.
In this section—
Whosoever—
• conspires and agrees to murder any person, whether a subject of Her Majesty or not, and whether within the Queen’s dominions or not, or
• solicits, encourages, persuades, or endeavours to persuade, or proposes to, any person to commit any such murder,
shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
Whosoever—
• administers to, or causes to be taken by, any person any poison, or other destructive thing, or
• by any means wounds, or causes grievous bodily harm to any person,
with intent in any such case to commit murder,
shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
Whosoever—
• sets fire to any vessel, or any chattel therein, or any part of her tackle apparel or furniture, or
• casts away or destroys any vessel, or
• by the explosion of gunpowder, or other explosive substance, destroys, or damages any building, or
• places, or throws, any matter or thing upon or across a railway, or
• removes, or displaces any sleeper, or other thing belonging to a railway,
with intent in any such case to commit murder,
shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
Whosoever—
• attempts to administer to, or cause to be taken by, any person any poison, or other destructive thing, or
• shoots at, or in any manner attempts to discharge any kind of loaded arms at any person, or
• attempts to drown, suffocate, or strangle any person,
with intent in any such case to commit murder,
shall, whether any bodily injury is effected or not, be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
Whosoever, by any means other than those specified in sections 27 to 29 both inclusive, attempts to commit murder shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
A person who intentionally or recklessly, and knowing its contents, sends or delivers, or directly or indirectly causes to be received, any document threatening to kill or inflict bodily harm on any person is liable to imprisonment for 10 years.
It is immaterial for the purposes of an offence under this section whether or not a document sent or delivered is actually received, and whether or not the threat contained in a document sent, delivered or received is actually communicated to the person concerned or to the recipient or intended recipient of the document (as relevant in the circumstances).
The rule of law that it is a crime for a person to commit, or to attempt to commit, suicide is abrogated.
The survivor of a suicide pact shall not be guilty of murder or manslaughter but may be guilty of an offence under section 31C.
In this section,
The onus of proving the existence of a suicide pact shall lie with the accused person on the balance of probabilities.
A person who aids or abets the suicide or attempted suicide of another person shall be liable to imprisonment for 10 years.
Where—
(a) a person incites or counsels another person to commit suicide, and
(b) that other person commits, or attempts to commit, suicide as a consequence of that incitement or counsel,
the firstmentioned person shall be liable to imprisonment for 5 years.
Whosoever—
• intentionally or recklessly prevents or impedes any person on board of, or having quitted, any ship or vessel in distress, or wrecked, stranded, or cast on shore, in his or her endeavour to save his or her life, or
• intentionally or recklessly prevents or impedes any person in his or her endeavour to save the life of such first-mentioned person,
shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
(Repealed)
A person who—
(a) wounds any person, or
(b) causes grievous bodily harm to any person,
with intent to cause grievous bodily harm to that or any other person is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
A person who—
(a) wounds any person, or
(b) causes grievous bodily harm to any person,
with intent to resist or prevent his or her (or another person’s) lawful arrest or detention is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
If on the trial of a person charged with an offence against this section the jury is not satisfied that the offence is proven but is satisfied that the person has committed an offence against section 35, the jury may acquit the person of the offence charged and find the person guilty of an offence against section 35. The person is liable to punishment accordingly.
A person who—
(a) discharges any firearm or other loaded arms, or
(b) attempts to discharge any firearm or other loaded arms,
with intent to cause grievous bodily harm to any person is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
A person who—
(a) discharges any firearm or other loaded arms, or
(b) attempts to discharge any firearm or other loaded arms,
with intent to resist or prevent his or her (or another person’s) lawful arrest or detention is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
Any person who—
(a) uses, attempts to use, threatens to use or possesses an offensive weapon or instrument, or
(b) threatens injury to any person or property,
with intent to commit an indictable offence or with intent to prevent or hinder the lawful apprehension or detention either of himself or herself or any other person or to prevent or hinder a police officer from investigating any act or circumstance which reasonably calls for investigation by the officer is liable to imprisonment for 12 years.
A person is guilty of an offence under this subsection if the person commits an offence under subsection (1) in the company of another person or persons. A person convicted of an offence under this subsection is liable to imprisonment for 15 years.
(Repealed)
A person who, in the company of another person or persons—
(a) causes grievous bodily harm to any person, and
(b) is reckless as to causing actual bodily harm to that or any other person,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 14 years.
A person who—
(a) causes grievous bodily harm to any person, and
(b) is reckless as to causing actual bodily harm to that or any other person,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 10 years.
A person who, in the company of another person or persons—
(a) wounds any person, and
(b) is reckless as to causing actual bodily harm to that or any other person,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 10 years.
A person who—
(a) wounds any person, and
(b) is reckless as to causing actual bodily harm to that or any other person,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 7 years.
If on the trial of a person charged with an offence against any subsection of this section the jury is not satisfied that the offence is proven but is satisfied that the person has committed an offence against any other subsection of this section (that carries a lesser maximum penalty), the jury may acquit the person of the offence charged and find the person guilty of an offence against that other subsection. The person is liable to punishment accordingly.
A person who—
(a) has control of a dog, and
(b) does any act that causes the dog to inflict grievous bodily harm on another person, and
(c) is reckless as to the injury that may be caused to a person by the act,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 10 years.
A person who—
(a) has control of a dog, and
(b) does any act that causes the dog to inflict actual bodily harm on another person, and
(c) is reckless as to the injury that may be caused to a person by the act,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
If, on the trial of a person for an offence under subsection (1), it appears that grievous bodily harm was not inflicted on the other person but that actual bodily harm was inflicted, the person may be found not guilty of the offence charged but guilty of an offence under subsection (2) and be liable to punishment accordingly.
In this section, a reference to the doing of an act includes a reference to omitting to do the act.
(Repealed)
A person is guilty of an offence if the person intentionally chokes, suffocates or strangles another person without the other person’s consent.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for 5 years.
A person is guilty of an offence if the person—
(a) intentionally chokes, suffocates or strangles another person so as to render the other person unconscious, insensible or incapable of resistance, and
(b) is reckless as to rendering the other person unconscious, insensible or incapable of resistance.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for 10 years.
A person is guilty of an offence if the person—
(a) chokes, suffocates or strangles another person so as to render the other person unconscious, insensible or incapable of resistance, and
(b) does so with the intention of enabling himself or herself to commit, or assisting any other person to commit, another indictable offence.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for 25 years.
In this section—
A person who—
(a) administers an intoxicating substance to another person, or
(b) causes another person to take an intoxicating substance,
with intent to enable himself or herself, or to assist a third person, to commit an indictable offence is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 25 years.
In this section—
A person—
(a) who causes another person to be given or to consume drink or food—
(i) containing an intoxicating substance that the other person is not aware it contains, or
(ii) containing more of an intoxicating substance than the other person would reasonably expect it to contain, and
(b) who intends a person to be harmed by the consumption of the drink or food,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 2 years or 100 penalty units, or both.
For the purposes of this section, giving a person drink or food includes preparing the drink or food for the person or making it available for consumption by the person.
A person does not commit an offence against this section if the person has reasonable cause to believe that each person who was likely to consume the drink or food would not have objected to consuming the drink or food if the person had been aware of the presence and quantity of the intoxicating substance in the drink or food.
A person who uses an intoxicating substance in the course of any medical, dental or other health professional practice does not commit an offence against this section.
An offence against this section is a summary offence.
A person is guilty of an offence if—
(a) the person administers to another person, or causes another person to take, any poison, intoxicating substance or other destructive or noxious thing, and
(b) the poison, intoxicating substance or other thing endangers the life of, or inflicts grievous bodily harm on, the other person, and
(c) the person intends to injure, or is reckless about injuring, the other person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 10 years.
If on the trial of a person charged with an offence against this section the jury is not satisfied that the offence is proven but is satisfied that the person has committed an offence against section 41 or 41A, the jury may acquit the person of the offence charged and find the person guilty of an offence against section 41 or 41A. The person is liable to punishment accordingly.
(Repealed)
A person is guilty of an offence if—
(a) the person administers to another person, or causes another person to take, any poison, intoxicating substance or other destructive or noxious thing, and
(b) the person intends to injure, or to cause distress or pain to, the other person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
A person is guilty of an offence if—
(a) the person introduces any poison or other destructive or noxious thing into a supply of water, and
(b) the person intends to injure any person or persons.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
A person commits a crime if—
(a) the person (the
first person ) administers a prescribed substance to another person, and(b) the first person is not authorised by the Voluntary Assisted Dying Act 2022, section 60(6) to administer the prescribed substance to the other person.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for life.
In this section—
A person commits a crime if the person, by dishonesty or pressure or duress induces another person—
(a) to make a request for access to voluntary assisted dying, or
(b) to access voluntary assisted dying.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for 7 years.
In this section—
(a) a first request,
(b) a written declaration,
(c) a final request,
(d) an administration decision.
A person commits a crime if the person, by dishonesty or pressure or duress, induces another person to self-administer a prescribed substance.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for life.
In this section—
A person commits a crime if the person advertises a Schedule 4 poison or Schedule 8 poison as a voluntary assisted dying substance.
Maximum penalty—330 penalty units or imprisonment for 3 years, or both.
In this section—
Whosoever, during or after the delivery of a child, intentionally or recklessly inflicts on such child, whether then wholly born or not, any grievous bodily harm, shall be liable to imprisonment for fourteen years.
A person who, without reasonable excuse, intentionally abandons or exposes a child under 7 years of age is guilty of an offence if it causes a danger of death or of serious injury to the child.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
In this section—
A person—
(a) who has parental responsibility for a child, and
(b) who, without reasonable excuse, intentionally or recklessly fails to provide the child with the necessities of life,
is guilty of an offence if the failure causes a danger of death or of serious injury to the child.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
A person commits an offence if—
(a) the person is an adult who carries out work for an organisation, whether as an employee, contractor, volunteer or otherwise (a
position holder ), and(b) the organisation is the employer of an adult worker who engages in child-related work, and
(c) there is a serious risk that the adult worker will commit a child abuse offence against a child who is, or may come, under the care, supervision or authority of the organisation, and
(d) the position holder knows that the risk exists, and
(e) the position holder, by reason of the person’s position, has the power or responsibility to reduce or remove that risk, and
(f) the position holder negligently fails to reduce or remove that risk.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 2 years.
In proceedings for an offence under this section, it is not necessary to prove that a child abuse offence has been committed.
In this section—
(a) murder or manslaughter of a child (including under section 22A), or
(b) an offence under section 27, 29, 33, 35, 37, 38, 38A, 39, 41, 41A, 44, 45, 45A, 46, 59, 60E, 86 or 91J or Division 10, 10A, 10B or 15 of Part 3 where the alleged victim is a child, or
(c) an offence under section 42, 43, 43A, 91G or 91H, or
(d) an offence of attempting to commit an offence referred to in paragraphs (a)–(c).
A person—
(a) who is under a legal duty to provide another person with the necessities of life, and
(b) who, without reasonable excuse, intentionally or recklessly fails to provide that person with the necessities of life,
is guilty of an offence if the failure causes a danger of death or causes serious injury, or the likelihood of serious injury, to that person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
A person cannot be found guilty of both an offence against section 43A and an offence against this section in respect of the same act or omission.
A person who—
(a) excises, infibulates or otherwise mutilates the whole or any part of the labia majora or labia minora or clitoris of another person, regardless of the age of the other person, or
(b) aids, abets, counsels or procures a person to perform any of those acts on another person, regardless of the age of the other person,
is liable to imprisonment for 21 years.
To avoid doubt, subsection (1)(a) is not limited to acts performed for ritualistic or traditional purposes.
It is not an offence against this section to perform a surgical operation if that operation—
(a) is necessary for the health of the person on whom it is performed and is performed by a medical practitioner, or
(b) is performed on a person in labour or who has just given birth, and for medical purposes connected with that labour or birth, by a medical practitioner or authorised professional, or
(c) is a sexual reassignment procedure and is performed by a medical practitioner.
In determining whether an operation is necessary for the health of a person only matters relevant to the medical welfare of the person are to be taken into account.
Also, it is not an offence against this section to perform any of the following acts on another person—
(a) piercing or tattooing, if the piercing or tattooing is carried out in accordance with all relevant legal, professional and ethical requirements applicable to the piercing or tattooing, or
(b) another act that is prescribed by the regulations.
It is not a defence to a charge under this section that the person mutilated by or because of the acts alleged to have been committed consented to the acts.
This section applies only to acts occurring after the commencement of the section.
In this section—
(a) a registered midwife, or
(b) a midwifery student, or
(c) in relation to an operation performed in a place outside Australia—a person authorised to practise midwifery by a body established under the law of that place having functions similar to the functions of the Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia, or
(d) a medical student, or
(e) a person who is a member of a class of persons prescribed by the regulations.
(a) a person who is registered as a student within the meaning of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (NSW) in the medical profession, or
(b) in relation to an operation performed in a place outside Australia—a person undergoing a course of training with a view to being authorised to be a medical practitioner in that place.
(a) a person who is registered as a student within the meaning of the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (NSW) in the midwifery profession, or
(b) in relation to an operation performed in a place outside Australia—a person undergoing a course of training with a view to being authorised to be a midwife practitioner in that place.
A person is guilty of an offence if the person takes another person from the State, or arranges for another person to be taken from the State, with the intention of having female genital mutilation performed on the other person.
Maximum penalty—imprisonment for 21 years.
Subsection (1) applies regardless of the age of the person taken from the State or arranged to be taken from the State.
In proceedings for an offence under subsection (1) and in the absence of proof to the contrary, it is to be presumed that the accused took another person, or arranged for another person to be taken, from the State with the intention of female genital mutilation being performed on the other person if it is proved that—
(a) the accused took the person, or arranged for the person to be taken, from the State, and
(b) female genital mutilation was performed on the person while outside the State.
It is not a defence to a charge under this section that the person taken from the State consented to being so taken.
In this section—
See section 45(2), which provides that section 45(1)(a) is not limited to acts performed for ritualistic or traditional purposes.
Whosoever intentionally or recklessly by the explosion of gunpowder or other substance, or the use of any corrosive fluid, or destructive matter, burns maims disfigures disables, or does grievous bodily harm to, any person, shall be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
Whosoever—
• causes any gunpowder or other explosive substance to explode, or
• sends, or delivers to, or causes to be taken, or received by, any person, any explosive substance, or other dangerous or noxious thing, or
• puts or lays at any place, or casts or throws at, or upon, or otherwise applies to, any person, any corrosive fluid or any destructive or explosive substance (including petrol),
with intent in any such case to burn maim disfigure disable, or do grievous bodily harm to, any person,
shall, whether bodily injury is effected or not, be liable to imprisonment for 25 years.
A person who causes an explosive to be placed in or near—
(a) a building, or
(b) a vehicle, vessel, train or other conveyance, or
(c) a public place,
with the intention of causing bodily harm to any person, is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 14 years.
A person commits an offence under this section whether or not—
(a) any explosion occurs, or
(b) any bodily harm is caused.
Any person who—
(a) places or sets, or causes to be placed or set, any trap, device or thing (whether its nature be electronic, electric, mechanical, chemical or otherwise) capable of destroying human life or inflicting grievous bodily harm on any person, or
(b) knowingly permits any such trap, device or thing to continue to be placed or set,
with intent to inflict grievous bodily harm shall be liable to imprisonment for five years.
Nothing in subsection (1) shall extend to any gin or trap, placed with the intention of destroying vermin, or to any trap, device or thing placed in a dwelling-house for the protection thereof.
A person is guilty of an offence if—
(a) the person intentionally throws an object at, or drops an object on or towards, a vehicle or vessel that is on any road, railway or navigable waters, and
(b) there is a person in the vehicle or vessel, and
(c) the conduct risks the safety of any person.
Maximum penalty—Imprisonment for 5 years.
This section extends to a vehicle or vessel that is stationary at the time that the object is thrown or dropped.
In the prosecution of an offence under this section, it is not necessary to prove—
(a) that the accused was aware that his or her conduct risked the safety of any person, or
(b) that the object made contact with the vehicle or vessel.
In this section—
(a) a motor vehicle, and
(b) a train or tram, and
(c) a bicycle, and
(d) a vehicle drawn by an animal or an animal ridden by a person.
(Repealed)
The driver of a vehicle who, while in pursuit of or travelling near another vehicle—
(a) engages in a course of conduct that causes or threatens an impact involving the other vehicle, and
(b) intends by that course of conduct to cause a person in the other vehicle actual bodily harm,
is guilty of an offence and liable to imprisonment for 5 years.
This section does not take away the liability of any person to be prosecuted for or found guilty of an offence under this Act or of any other offence, or affect the punishment that may be imposed for any such offence. However, a person who—
(a) has been convicted or acquitted of an offence under this section cannot be prosecuted for any other offence under this Act on the same, or substantially the same, facts, or
(b) has been convicted or acquitted of any other offence under this Act cannot be prosecuted for an offence under this section on the same, or substantially the same, facts.
In this section—
(a) an impact with any other vehicle or with a person or object, or
(b) the vehicle overturning or leaving a road.
The driver of a vehicle—
(a) who knows, ought reasonably to know or has reasonable grounds to suspect that police officers are in pursuit of the vehicle and that the driver is required to stop the vehicle, and
(b) who does not stop the vehicle, and
(c) who then drives the vehicle recklessly or at a speed or in a manner dangerous to others,
is guilty of an offence.
Maximum penalty—
(a) in the case of a first offence—imprisonment for 3 years, or
(b) in the case of an offence on a second or subsequent occasion—imprisonment for 5 years.
In this section,
(Repealed)
A person is guilty of the offence of dangerous driving occasioning death if the vehicle driven by the person is involved in an impact occasioning the death of another person and the driver was, at the time of the impact, driving the vehicle—
(a) under the influence of intoxicating liquor or of a drug, or
(b) at a speed dangerous to another person or persons, or
(c) in a manner dangerous to another person or persons.
A person convicted of an offence under this subsection is liable to imprisonment for 10 years.
A person is guilty of the offence of aggravated dangerous driving occasioning death if the person commits the offence of dangerous driving occasioning death in circumstances of aggravation. A person convicted of an offence under this subsection is liable to imprisonment for 14 years.
A person is guilty of the offence of dangerous driving occasioning grievous bodily harm if the vehicle driven by the person is involved in an impact occasioning grievous bodily harm to another person and the driver was, at the time of the impact, driving the vehicle—
(a) under the influence of intoxicating liquor or of a drug, or
(b) at a speed dangerous to another person or persons, or
(c) in a manner dangerous to another person or persons.
A person convicted of an offence under this subsection is liable to imprisonment for 7 years.
A person is guilty of the offence of aggravated dangerous driving occasioning grievous bodily harm if the person commits the offence of dangerous driving occasioning grievous bodily harm in circumstances of aggravation. A person convicted of an offence under this subsection is liable to imprisonment for 11 years.
For the purposes of this section, the circumstances in which a vehicle is involved in an impact occasioning the death of, or grievous bodily harm to, a person include if the death or harm is occasioned through any of the following—
(a) the vehicle overturning or leaving a road while the person is being conveyed in or on that vehicle (whether as a passenger or otherwise),
(b) an impact between any object and the vehicle while the person is being conveyed in or on that vehicle (whether as a passenger or otherwise),
(c) an impact between the person and the vehicle,
(d) the impact of the vehicle with another vehicle or an object in, on or near which the person is at the time of the impact,
(e) an impact with anything on, or attached to, the vehicle,
(f) an impact with anything that is in motion through falling from the vehicle,
(g) the person falling from the vehicle, or being thrown or ejected from the vehicle, while being conveyed in or on the vehicle (whether as a passenger or otherwise),
(h) an impact between any object (including the ground) and the person, as a consequence of the person (or any part of the person) being or protruding outside the vehicle, while the person is being conveyed in or on the vehicle (whether as a passenger or otherwise).
For the purposes of this section, a vehicle is also involved in an impact occasioning the death of, or grievous bodily harm to, a person if—
(a) the death or harm is occasioned through the vehicle causing an impact between other vehicles or between another vehicle and any object or person or causing another vehicle to overturn or leave a road, and
(b) the prosecution proves that the vehicle caused the impact.
In this section,
(a) the prescribed concentration of alcohol was present in the accused’s breath or blood, or
(b) the accused was driving the vehicle concerned on a road at a speed that exceeded, by more than 45 kilometres per hour, the speed limit (if any) applicable to that length of road, or
(c) the accused was driving the vehicle to escape pursuit by a police officer, or
(d) the accused’s ability to drive was very substantially impaired by the fact that the accused was under the influence of a drug (other than intoxicating liquor) or a combination of drugs (whether or not intoxicating liquor was part of that combination).
It is a defence to any charge under this section if the death or grievous bodily harm occasioned by the impact was not in any way attributable (as relevant)—
(a) to the fact that the person charged was under the influence of intoxicating liquor or of a drug or a combination of drugs, or
(b) to the speed at which the vehicle was driven, or
(c) to the manner in which the vehicle was driven.
In this section—
Sec 512
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 513
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (w); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 514
Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 11 (x).
Sec 515
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (y); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 516
Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 11 (z).
Sec 517
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (aa); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [39]; 2003 No 82, Sch 2.6 [1] [2]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 518
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (bb); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 519
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 11 (cc).
Sec 520
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (dd); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 521
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (ee); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 521A
Ins 1980 No 53, Sch 1 (9). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [40]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 522
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (ff); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [39] [41]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 523
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (gg); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [39] [41]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 524
Am 1951 No 31, Sch; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [42].
Sec 525
Am 1974 No 50, sec 11 (hh); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1995 No 11, Sch 1.28 [2]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 526
Am 1951 No 31, Sch; 1995 No 11, Sch 1.28 [3].
Sec 526A, short heading
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 25. Rep 1992 No 2, Sch 1 (14).
Sec 526A
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 25. Am 1951 No 31, sec 4 (c); 1955 No 16, sec 6 (d); 1974 No 50, sec 11 (ii); 1980 No 53, Sch 1 (10); 1988 No 81, Sch 3 (4). Rep 1992 No 2, Sch 1 (14).
Sec 526B, heading
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 12. Rep 1951 No 59, sec 4 (b).
Sec 526B
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 12. Am 1937 No 29, sec 5 (2). Rep 1951 No 59, sec 4 (b).
Sec 527
Am 1974 No 50, sec 11 (jj); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [24].
Sec 527A, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2).
Sec 527A
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [25].
Sec 527B, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2).
Sec 527B
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [26].
Sec 527C, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2).
Sec 527C
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (2). Am 1985 No 9, Sch 1 (2); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [17]; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 84, Sch 1 [17] [18]; 2006 No 26, Sch 1 [11]–[14]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2; 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [27].
Sec 528
Am 1974 No 50, sec 11 (kk); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [28].
Part 14A, Div 2, heading
Ins 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [47]. Am 2005 No 77, Sch 5.1 [3].
Sec 529
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (f). Subst 1974 No 50, sec 11 (ll). Am 1985 No 9, Sch 1 (3). Rep 1987 No 289, Sch 1 (4). Ins 2005 No 77, Sch 5.1 [4].
Sec 530, heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (a).
Sec 530
Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (a). Ins 2005 No 94, Sch 1. Am 2017 No 13, Sch 6.1 [1]–[3].
Sec 531
Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (b). Ins 2005 No 94, Sch 1.
Sec 532, heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (c).
Secs 532, 533
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e). Rep 1951 No 31, sec 4 (d).
Sec 534
Rep 1951 No 31, sec 4 (d).
Secs 535–538
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e). Rep 1951 No 31, sec 4 (d).
Sec 539, heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (c).
Sec 539
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e). Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (c).
Sec 540
Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (d).
Sec 541, heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (e).
Sec 541
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (e).
Sec 542
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (e); 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (f).
Sec 543 and heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (g).
Sec 544 and heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (h).
Sec 545
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (i).
Sec 545A, heading
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 26 (a).
Sec 545A
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 26 (a). Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (j); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [43]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [29].
Sec 545AB
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 2 [5]. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [2].
Sec 545B, heading
Ins 1929 No 31, sec 2 (a).
Sec 545B
Ins 1929 No 31, sec 2 (a). Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (k); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1993 No 101, Sch 2 (1); 1996 No 6, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [44]; 2007 No 82, Sch 2.1 [1] [2]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2; 2018 No 87, Sch 1.8 [3]–[9]; 2019 No 11, Sch 2.1[4].
Sec 545C, heading
Ins 1929 No 31, sec 2 (a).
Sec 545C
Ins 1929 No 31, sec 2 (a). Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (l); 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (29); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 545D, heading
Ins 1951 No 31, sec 6 (d) (i).
Sec 545D
Ins 1951 No 31, sec 6 (d) (i). Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (m); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [39] [41]. Rep 2004 No 48, Sch 1 [8].
Sec 545E, heading
Ins 1989 No 27, Sch 1 (8).
Sec 545E
Ins 1989 No 27, Sch 1 (8). Am 1994 No 17, sec 3; 1998 No 54, Sch 2.6 [2]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [45]. Renumbered as sec 93FB, 2004 No 48, Sch 1 [9].
Sec 546
Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (n); 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [37]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 546A, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3).
Sec 546A
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2006 No 61, Sch 1 [18]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2012 No 3, Sch 1 [10].
Sec 546B, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3).
Sec 546B
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2006 No 26, Sch 1 [15]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 546C, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3). Rep 2022 No 48, Sch 1[15].
Sec 546C
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (3). Am 1990 No 51, Sch 1 (4); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2006 No 94, Sch 3.7 [2]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2022 No 48, Sch 1[15].
Sec 546D
Ins 2006 No 94, Sch 3.7 [3].
Sec 547, heading
Subst 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (4).
Sec 547
Am 1924 No 10, sec 23 (g) (h). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 547AA
Ins 1982 No 116, Sch 3 (2). Am 1983 No 116, Schs 1 (2), 2. Rep 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (5).
Sec 547A, heading
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 13.
Sec 547A
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 13. Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1995 No 62, Sch 2; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [46]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2. Rep 2009 No 99, Sch 2 [30].
Sec 547B, heading
Ins 1974 No 50, sec 12 (o).
Sec 547B
Ins 1974 No 50, sec 12 (o). Am 1990 No 51, Sch 1 (5); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2006 No 94, Sch 3.7 [4]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 547C, heading
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (4).
Sec 547C
Ins 1979 No 72, Sch 5 (4). Am 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [3]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 547D (previously sec 353B)
Renumbered 2006 No 128, Sch 4.1 [1]. Am 2006 No 128, Sch 4.1 [2].
Sec 547E
Ins 2021 No 46, Sch 1.1[2].
Part 14A, Div 3, heading
Ins 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [48].
Part 14A, Div 4, heading
Rep 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [49].
Sec 548 and short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 548A and heading
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 27 (1) (a). Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (p).
Sec 549, short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 549
Am 1999 No 31, Sch 4.20 [4]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 550, short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Secs 550, 551
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 552, heading
Rep 1951 No 31, sec 4 (c). Ins 1987 No 287, Sch 1 (9). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 552
Rep 1951 No 31, sec 4 (c). Ins 1987 No 287, Sch 1 (9). Am 1995 No 22, Sch 2.3 [7]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 553, short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 553
Am 1951 No 31, sec 4 (f). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 554, short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 554
Subst 1924 No 10, sec 27 (1) (b). Am 1929 No 2, sec 14; 1940 No 6, sec 4; 1951 No 31, sec 4 (g); 1951 No 59, sec 4 (c); 1967 No 14, sec 8 (b); 1974 No 50, sec 12 (q); 1979 No 101, Sch 1 (2) (am 1984 No 153, Sch 16); 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (30); 1984 No 70, Sch 1 (4); 1987 No 238, Sch 1. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 555 and short heading
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [6].
Sec 556
Am 1955 No 16, sec 4 (j).
Part 15, heading
Ins 1974 No 50, sec 12 (r). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [7].
Sec 556A, heading
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 15. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (r).
Sec 556A
Ins 1929 No 2, sec 15. Am 1951 No 31, sec 4 (h); 1974 No 50, sec 12 (s); 1982 No 81, Sch 1 (6) (rep); 1984 No 70, Sch 1 (5); 1987 No 58, Sch 3; 1987 No 238, Sch 1; 1998 No 120, Sch 2.8. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [7].
Sec 556B
Ins 1951 No 31, sec 4 (i) (i). Am 1974 No 50, sec 12 (t). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [7].
Sec 557, heading
Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (a).
Sec 557
Am 1937 No 35, Second Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (a).
Sec 558
Am 1924 No 10, sec 28 (a); 1951 No 31, Sch. Subst 1974 No 50, sec 13 (b). Am 1982 No 81, Sch 1 (7) (rep); 1987 No 58, Sch 3; 1996 No 99, Sch 2.5 [6]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [7].
Sec 559
Am 1924 No 10, sec 28 (b). Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (c).
Sec 560
Am 1935 No 13, sec 7 (1); 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (d).
Sec 560A
Ins 1924 No 10, sec 28 (c). Am 1987 No 48, Sch 32. Rep 1989 No 87, Sch 5.
Sec 561
Subst 1924 No 10, sec 28 (d). Am 1951 No 31, sec 4 (j), Sch; 1970 No 96, Sch 1. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 12 (e).
Sec 562
Am 1951 No 31, sec 4 (k), Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (f).
Part 15A
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, heading
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (4); 1994 No 83, Sch 1 (4). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 1, heading
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (1). Am 1994 No 83, Sch 1 (5). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 1
Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562A
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (5); 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (2); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (1); 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [2]; 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [4]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [4]–[6]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [47] (rep 2003 No 40, Sch 1.22 [1]); 2002 No 99, Sch 1.1. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Am 2007 No 74, Sch 1 [3]. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562AB
Ins 1993 No 101, Sch 2 (2). Am 1994 No 83, Sch 1 (6); 1995 No 22, Sch 2.3 [8]. Subst 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [7]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Part 15A, Div 1A
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [8]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Secs 562AC–562AF
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [8]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562AG
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [8]. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [48]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Part 15A, Div 1B
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [8]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Secs 562AH–562AK
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [8]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562AL
Ins 2002 No 130, Sch 4 [7]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562B
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Subst 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (6). Am 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (2); 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [1]. Rep 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [9]. Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562BA
Ins 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (3). Am 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [2]; 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [5] [6]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [10] [11]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BB
Ins 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (3). Am 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [3]; 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [3]; 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [7]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [12] [13]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BBA
Ins 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [8]. Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [14]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [49] [50]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BBB
Ins 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [8]. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [49] [51]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BC
Ins 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (3). Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BD
Ins 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (3). Am 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [4]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BE
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [5]. Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [15] [16]; 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [50]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562BF
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [6]. Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [17]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562C
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (7); 1992 No 13, Sch 5 (6); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (4); 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [7]; 1998 No 158, Sch 2.11 [2]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [31] [52] (am 2003 No 40, Sch 1.22 [2]). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562D
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (8); 1992 No 2, Sch 1 (15); 1992 No 13, Sch 5 (7); 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [8]; 1998 No 54, Sch 2.6 [2]; 1998 No 127, Sch 3.2 [4]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [18]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562DA
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [9]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Part 15A, Div 2, heading
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (3). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 2
Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562E
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (8). Subst 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (5). Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [19]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562F
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (8); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (6); 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [10]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [20] [21]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562FA
Ins 1997 No 14, Sch 1. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562G
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (9); 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [18]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [22]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562GA
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [11]. Rep 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [23].
Sec 562GB
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [11]. Rep 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [24].
Sec 562GC
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [11]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562H
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Subst 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (7). Am 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [12]–[20]; 1998 No 158, Sch 2.11 [3]; 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [9]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [25]–[30]; 2001 No 117, Sch 3 [7] [8]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [53] [54]; 2006 No 58, Sch 2.9. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 3, heading
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (4). Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [40]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 3
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (4). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562I
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (8); 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [19]; 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [21]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [31]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562J
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (8); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (9); 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [32]–[34]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [49]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562K
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (9); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (10); 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [20]; 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [22]. Rep 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [35]. Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562L
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562M
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1998 No 137, Sch 2.7 [1] [2]; 1999 No 40, Sch 2 [10]. Rep 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [36]. Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1 (am 2006 No 120, Sch 2.17 [1]). Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562N
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (9); 1992 No 13, Sch 5 (8); 1993 No 101, Sch 1 (11). Subst 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [37]. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [55]–[57]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1 (am 2006 No 120, Sch 2.17 [1]). Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562NA
Ins 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [23]. Am 1997 No 143, Sch 1.2 [2]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Secs 562NB, 562NC
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [38]. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [58]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562ND
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [39]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Part 15A, Div 4
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 4, Subdiv 1
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562O
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Am 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [24]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562P
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Rep 2000 No 93, Sch 2.10. Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562Q
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Rep 1997 No 135, Sch 1 [8]. Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562R
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 1 (6). Subst 1989 No 62, Sch 1 (10); 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562RA
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [41]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Secs 562S, 562T
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (4). Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [42]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [49]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562U
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (4). Am 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [21]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [42]–[44]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562V
Ins 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (4). Am 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [42]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562W
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562WA
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [59]. Am 2004 No 91, Sch 2.12. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562WB
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [58] [60]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562WC
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Rep 2006 No 73, Sch 1.
Sec 562X
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562Y
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [61]; 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562Z
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 4, Subdiv 2 (secs 562ZA–562ZC)
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 5
Ins 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [45]. Subst 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Secs 562ZD–562ZG
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Div 6
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562ZH
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Am 2007 No 6, Sch 2.2 [1] [2]. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Secs 562ZI–562ZM
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562ZN
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Am 2007 No 6, Sch 2.2 [3]. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 562ZO
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Part 15A, Divs 7–11 (secs 562ZP–562ZZX)
Ins 2006 No 73, Sch 1. Rep 2007 No 80, Sch 2.7 [3].
Sec 563
Am 1970 No 52, Second Sch (am 1972 No 41, Second Sch); 1973 No 9, Sch 2. Rep 1977 No 19, Sch 1. Ins 1998 No 38, Sch 2. Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]. Rep 2002 No 103, Sch 4.16 [7].
Sec 564
Am 1978 No 166, Sch 1 (6). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 565
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 565A
Ins 1978 No 166, Sch 1 (7). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 566
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 567
Am 1970 No 52, Second Sch (am 1972 No 41, Second Sch). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 567A
Ins 1979 No 95, Sch 1 (6). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 568
Am 1957 No 13, sec 11. Rep 1973 No 9, Sch 2.
Secs 569–571
Rep 1973 No 9, Sch 2.
Sec 572
Am 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (31). Rep 1986 No 212, Sch 1.
Sec 573
Am 1937 No 35, Second Sch; 1964 No 74, Sch 2. Rep 1996 No 6, Sch 1.
Sec 574A
Ins 1974 No 18, Sch 1. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 574B
Ins 1983 No 180, Sch 1 (5).
Secs 575–577
Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 577A
Ins 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [22]. Am 1995 No 99, Sch 2.4 [2]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 578
Ins 1955 No 16, sec 6 (e). Am 1974 No 50, sec 13 (g); 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (32); 1981 No 42, Sch 1 (18); 1984 No 7, Sch 1 (11); 1985 No 149, Schs 1 (7), 2 (21); 1987 No 184, Schs 2 (11), 3 (10); 1988 No 115, Sch 1 (6); 1989 No 198, Sch 1 (12); 1992 No 112, Sch 1; 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [4] [5]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [17].
Sec 578A
Ins 1987 No 184, Sch 3 (11). Am 1992 No 34, Sch 1; 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [51]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2005 No 25, Sch 2.2; 2006 No 88, Sch 2; 2007 No 94, Sch 2; 2016 No 55, Sch 3.5; 2018 No 34, Sch 3.3.
Sec 578B
Ins 1995 No 63, Sch 2 (5). Am 1997 No 142, Sch 1 [5]; 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [6]; 2001 No 117, Sch 3 [9] [10]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]. Rep 2004 No 95, Sch 1 [5].
Sec 578C
Ins 1995 No 63, Sch 2 (5). Am 1997 No 142, Sch 1 [6]–[10]; 2001 No 117, Sch 3 [11]; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2004 No 82, Sch 2.2; 2004 No 95, Sch 1 [6]–[9]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 578D
Ins 1995 No 63, Sch 2 (5). Am 2004 No 95, Sch 1 [10]. Rep 2002 No 103, Sch 4.16 [8].
Sec 578E
Ins 1995 No 63, Sch 2 (5). Am 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [19]; 2007 No 94, Sch 2.
Sec 579
Ins 1961 No 70, sec 2 (f). Am 1974 No 18, Sch 1; 1995 No 27, Sch 1; 2001 No 121, Sch 2.72 [62]; 2005 No 77, Sch 5.1 [5]; 2006 No 120, Sch 3.6 [3].
Sec 580
Ins 1984 No 7, Sch 1 (12).
Sec 580A
Ins 1993 No 52, sec 3.
Sec 580B
Ins 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [23].
Sec 580C | Ins 1995 No 53, Sch 2. |
Sec 580D | Ins 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [7]. |
Secs 580E–580G | Ins 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [68]. |
Sec 580H | Ins 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [29]. |
Sec 581 | Ins 1989 No 198, Sch 1 (13). Am 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [30]. |
Sec 582 | Ins 1997 No 135, Sch 1 [9]. |
Sec 583 | Ins 2021 No 43, Sch 1[24]. |
Sec 584 | Ins 2022 No 37, Sch 1[2]. |
First Sch | Am 1987 No 15, Sch 2. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [18]. |
Sch 1A | Ins 2018 No 33, Sch 1 [59]. Am 2018 No 94, Sch 2.3 [2]. |
Sch 2, heading (previously Second Sch, heading) | Subst 1974 No 50, sec 13 (h); 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [31]. |
Sch 2 (previously Second Sch) | Subst 1974 No 50, sec 13 (h). Am 1987 No 184, Sch 3 (12); 1987 No 287, Sch 1 (10); 1992 No 83, Sch 1 (4); 1993 No 64, Sch 1 (5); 1996 No 6, Sch 1; 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [8]–[11]; 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [19] [69]; 2000 No 43, Sch 1 [10]; 2001 No 89, Sch 1 [2]; 2006 No 70, Sch 2.1 [5]. Renumbered 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [31]. Am 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [32]; 2018 No 33, Sch 1 [60]. |
Sch 3 (previously Third Sch) | Am 1986 No 212, Sch 1; 1998 No 54, Sch 2.6 [11]. Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [18]. Ins 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [33]. Am 2011 No 27, Sch 3.5; 2012 No 67, Sch 1 [4]; 2019 No 11, Sch 2.1[5]. |
Fourth Sch | Am 1974 No 50, sec 13 (i); 1987 No 287, Sch 1 (11). Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [18]. |
Fifth Sch | Rep 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [18]. |
Sixth Sch | Am 1929 No 2, sec 16 (1). Rep 1974 No 50, sec 13 (j). |
Seventh Sch | Rep 1985 No 58, Sch 1 (11). |
Eighth Sch | Ins 1929 No 2, sec 11 (2) (c). Rep 1989 No 219, sec 5. |
Ninth Sch | Ins 1955 No 16, sec 4 (k). Am 1980 No 53, Sch 1 (11); 1987 No 48, Sch 4 (12). Rep 1989 No 40, Sch 2 (3). |
Sch 10 (previously Tenth Sch) | Ins 1979 No 95, Sch 1 (7). Am 1981 No 65, Sch 1 (2); 1981 No 123, Sch 8; 1988 No 64, Sch 2 (2); 1989 No 71, Sch 1 (13); 1990 No 51, Sch 1 (6); 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [52]. Renumbered 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [34]. Am 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [35]; 2016 No 54, Sch 1.4 [2] [3]. |
Sch 11, heading (previously Eleventh Sch, heading) | Ins 1989 No 198, Sch 1 (14). Subst 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [36]. Am 2018 No 33, Sch 1 [61]. |
Sch 11 (previously Eleventh Sch) | Ins 1989 No 198, Sch 1 (14). Am 1992 No 2, Sch 1 (16); 1993 No 6, Sch 1 (5); 1993 No 64, Sch 1 (6); 1993 No 108, Sch 1; 1994 No 26, Sch 1 (5); 1994 No 84, Sch 1 (16); 1994 No 95, Sch 2; 1995 No 23, Sch 1.2 [24]; 1996 No 65, Sch 1 [14]; 1996 No 68, Sch 1 [8]; 1996 No 93, Sch 1 [25]; 1997 No 48, Sch 1 [6]; 1997 No 85, Sch 1.2 [6]; 1997 No 106, Sch 1 [3]; 1997 No 115, Sch 4.4 [6]; 1997 No 142, Sch 1 [11]; 1997 No 143, Sch 1.2 [3]; 1998 No 149, Sch 1 [12]; 1999 No 82, Sch 2 [5]; 1999 No 88, Sch 1 [46]; 2000 No 43, Sch 1 [11]; 2002 No 130, Sch 4 [8]; 2003 No 9, Sch 1 [22]. Cll 51–55 (previously secs 64, 69, 70, 78E, 78T) renumbered 2003 No 9, Sch 1 [7]. Am 2003 No 27, Sch 3 [10]; 2004 No 11, Sch 4 [5]; 2004 No 95, Sch 1 [11]; 2006 No 61, Sch 1 [19]; 2006 No 73, Sch 2 [6]; 2007 No 38, Sch 1 [26]. Renumbered 2007 No 38, Sch 2 [36]. Am 2007 No 66, Sch 1 [4]; 2008 No 74, Sch 1 [7]; 2008 No 105, Sch 1 [33]; 2009 No 27, Sch 1.3 [2]; 2012 No 3, Sch 1 [11]; 2012 No 41, Sch 1 [7]; 2012 No 64, Sch 1 [2]; 2012 No 67, Sch 1 [5]; 2013 No 90, Sch 1.2; 2014 No 2, Sch 1 [5]; 2015 No 13, Sch 1 [6]; 2018 No 33, Sch 1 [62]; 2018 No 50, Sch 1 [7]; 2019 No 10, Sch 1.6 [3]; 2021 No 36, Sch 1[2]; 2021 No 43, Sch 1[25]; 2022 No 45, Sch 1[16]; 2022 No 65, Sch 1[2]; 2023 No 21, Sch 1[2]; 2023 No 47, Sch 1[3]; 2024 No 18, Sch 2[2]; 2025 No 11, Sch 1[6]. |
The whole Act | Am 1999 No 31, Sch 5.27 [4] (“CHAPTER” omitted wherever occurring, “Division” inserted instead) [5] (“Chapter” omitted wherever occurring, “Division” inserted instead). |
The whole Act (except secs 475A and 580F) | Am 1999 No 94, Sch 3 [70] (“penal servitude” omitted wherever occurring, “imprisonment” inserted instead). |
The whole Act (all italicised or capitalised headings (except Part, Div, Subdiv and Sch headings)) | Rep 2000 No 53, Sch 3.3 [1]. |
Part 4, Chapter 2, originally consisted of secs 194–249. Historical information concerning the Chapter before its substitution is as follows—
Sec 195 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 196 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (q); 1955 No 16, sec 5 (h). |
Sec 197 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (r). |
Sec 198 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (s). |
Sec 200 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 201 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (t). |
Sec 202 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (u), Sch. |
Sec 203 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (v). |
Sec 204 | Am 1951 No 31, sec 2 (w). |
Secs 204A–204E and heading | Ins 1967 No 77, sec 2 (f). |
Sec 206 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 213 | Am 1974 No 50, sec 6 (jj). |
Sec 214 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch; 1974 No 50, sec 6 (kk). |
Sec 216 | Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (ll). |
Sec 217 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (mm). |
Sec 218 | Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (nn). |
Sec 219 | Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (oo). |
Sec 222 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 230, heading | Am 1974 No 50, sec 6 (pp). |
Sec 231 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 233 | Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (qq). |
Sec 234 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (rr). |
Sec 235 | Am 1955 No 16, sec 5 (i). |
Sec 240 | Am 1955 No 16, sec 5 (j). |
Sec 241 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch. |
Sec 244 | Am 1924 No 10, sec 9 (e). |
Sec 245 | Am 1974 No 50, sec 6 (ss). |
Sec 246 | Rep 1974 No 50, sec 6 (tt). |
Sec 247, heading | Am 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (5) (a). |
Sec 247 | Am 1951 No 31, Sch; 1974 No 50, sec 6 (uu); 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (5) (b). |
Sec 248 | Am 1974 No 50, sec 6 (vv). |
Sec 248A and heading | Ins 1974 No 50, sec 6 (ww). |
As a result of the substitution of Part 4, Chapter 2, and the insertion of Part 4AA, secs 215–249 have been repealed.
Sec 299 originally formed part of Part 5, and was repealed by 1951 No 31, sec 5 (a). The short heading to the section was repealed by 1980 No 53, Sch 2 (9).
0