Civil Aviation Order 40.2.3 Private I.F.R. rating (02/12/2004) (Cth)

Case

Civil Aviation Amendment Order

(No. R36) 2004

I, WILLIAM BRUCE BYRON, Director of Aviation Safety, on behalf of CASA, issue the following Civil Aviation Order under regulations 5.14, 5.16 and 5.18 of the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988.

[signed by Bruce Byron]

Bruce Byron

Director of Aviation Safety and

Chief Executive Officer

2 December 2004

__________________

  1. Name of Order

This Order is the Civil Aviation Amendment Order (No. R36) 2004.

  1. Commencement

This Order commences on gazettal.

  1. Replacement of section 40.2.3 of the Civil Aviation Orders

Section 40.2.3 of the Civil Aviation Orders is omitted and a new section substituted as set out in Schedule 1.

Schedule 1         Substitution of section 40.2.3 of the Civil Aviation Orders

SECTION 40.2.3

PRIVATE I.F.R. RATING

  1. Interpretation

1.1In this section, unless the contrary intention appears:

aeronautical experience means experience gained:

(a)during flight time as a pilot member of the operating crew of an aircraft; or

(b)during simulated flight as a pilot member of the operating crew of an approved synthetic flight trainer.

AIP means the Aeronautical Information Publication published under regulation 4.12 of the Air Services Regulations.

category of aircraft means:

(a)aeroplanes; or

(b)helicopters.

centre-line thrust aeroplane has the meaning given by paragraph 1.2.

CFI means chief flying instructor.

command grade, in relation to the instrument rating, means 1 of the following grades of the rating:

(a)the command (multi-engine aeroplane) grade;

(b)the command (single engine aeroplane) grade;

(c)the command (multi-engine helicopter) grade;

(d)the command (single engine helicopter) grade.

correspond, in relation to grades of the instrument rating or of the PIFR rating, has the meaning given by paragraph 1.3.

DME means Distance Measuring Equipment.

dual instrument flight instruction time means flight time in an aircraft during which a person receives instruction in instrument flight from an authorised flight instructor.

Note: Time spent in synthetic flight trainers is not dual instrument flight instruction time.

eligible operation, in relation to an aircraft, means:

(a)a private operation; or

(b)flying training for the purpose of increasing the flying skill of the aircraft’s pilot in command;

carried out within Australian territory.

FPA means a flight procedure authorisation.

GNSS means the Global Navigation Satellite System, a satellite navigation system used by a pilot in flight to determine position from satellite data.

GPS means Global Positioning System.

IAL means Instrument Approach to Land.

ILS means Instrument Landing System.

instrument approach procedure has the same meaning as in the Regulations.

instrument time means:

(a)instrument flight time; or

(b)instrument ground time.

Note: For instrument flight time and instrument ground time see subregulation 2 (1) of the Regulations.

LLZ means the component of an ILS that provides azimuth guidance to a runway.

LSALT means lowest safe altitude, as determined under subregulation 178 (1) and published in the AIP or NOTAMS.

multi-pilot aircraft means an aeroplane or helicopter that is required by its flight manual to be flown by 2 or more pilots.

navigation aid means DME, GNSS, ILS, LLZ, NDB or VOR.

NDB means Non-Directional radio Beacon.

PIFR rating means a private I.F.R. rating.

published means published in AIP or NOTAMS.

regulation means a regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988.

RNAV(GNSS) approach means an instrument approach using only lateral navigation information from the GNSS.

SID means Standard Instrument Departure, that is, a designated instrument flight rule departure route linking an aerodrome or a specified runway of an aerodrome with a specified significant point normally on a designated ATS route, at which the en-route phase of a flight commences.

single-pilot aircraft means an aeroplane or helicopter that is not a multi-pilot aircraft.

standard instrument arrival means a designated instrument flight rule arrival route linking a significant point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a published instrument approach procedure can be commenced.

the Regulations means the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988.

VOR means VHF omnidirectional radio range.

1.2An aeroplane is a centre-line thrust aeroplane if:

(a)it has 2 or more engines; and

(b)the failure of 1 or more of its engines does not produce asymmetric handling qualities in the aeroplane.


1.3The grade of the instrument rating set out in column 2 of an item in Table 1 and the grade of the PIFR rating set out in column 3 of that item correspond.

Table 1 — Corresponding grades of ratings

Column 1

Column 2

Column 3

Item No.

Grade of the instrument rating

Grade of the PIFR rating

1 Command (multi-engine aeroplane) Multi-engine aeroplane
2 Command (single engine aeroplane) Single-engine aeroplane
3 Command (multi-engine helicopter) Multi-engine helicopter
4 Command (single engine helicopter) Single-engine helicopter
  1. Application

2.1For the purposes of regulation 5.14:

(a)the flight tests that must be passed; and

(b)the other requirements and conditions that must be satisfied;

for the issue of each grade of the PIFR rating are set out in subsection 5.

2.2For the purposes of regulation 5.18:

(a)the authority given by each grade of the PIFR rating; and

(b)the limitations on that authority;

are set out in subsections 3 and 4.

  1. What do the different grades of the PIFR rating authorise?

3.1Subject to subsection 4, a grade of the PIFR rating authorises its holder to fly as pilot in command under the I.F.R. in the course of an eligible operation as follows:

(a)the multi-engine aeroplane grade of the PIFR rating authorises its holder to fly an aeroplane;

(b)the single-engine grade of the PIFR rating authorises its holder to fly a single-engine aeroplane or a multi-engine center-line thrust aeroplane;

(c)the multi-engine helicopter grade of the PIFR rating authorises its holder to fly a helicopter;

(d)the single-engine helicopter grade of the PIFR rating authorises its holder to fly a single-engine helicopter.

Note: The PIFR rating only authorises flight within Australian territory.

  1. What are the limits of a grade of the PIFR rating?

4.1A grade of the PIFR rating referred to in subsection 3 is subject to the following limitations:

(a)the holder may only fly a single-pilot aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of 5 700 kg or less;

(b)unless otherwise authorised under subparagraph (c) the holder may:

(i)take off only during day time in VMC; and

(ii)fly below LSALT during departure and arrival only if the aircraft is clear of cloud and flight visibility is at least 5 000 metres;

(c)the holder may fly the aircraft to the extent only that the holder is authorised to do so by a FPA entered in the holder’s personal log book.

4.2In this subsection:

arrival and departure have the same meaning as in paragraph 178 (5) (aa) of the Regulations.

  1. Requirements for a grade of the PIFR rating

What are the requirements that all applicants must satisfy?

5.1Every applicant for a grade of the PIFR rating must hold:

(a)a private, commercial, air transport, or special,  pilot licence, authorising the applicant to fly aircraft of the same category as the aircraft relevant to the grade sought; or

(b)a certificate of validation for an overseas authorisation that is the equivalent of a licence mentioned in subparagraph (a).

What are the additional requirements if an applicant does not hold a command grade of instrument rating etc?

5.2In addition to satisfying the requirements set out in paragraph 5.1, an applicant who does not hold a grade of rating specified in column 3 in Table 2 in paragraph 5.4 must:

(a)have passed under subsection 7, the flight test for the grade of the PIFR rating sought; and

(b)have passed the tests, or satisfied any other requirements for the issue of the Navigation using NDB FPA, or the Navigation using VOR FPA; and

(c)have the aeronautical experience set out in paragraph 5.3 or hold an overseas authorisation that is the equivalent of a command grade of the instrument rating.

What aeronautical experience is required if an applicant does not hold a command grade of instrument rating etc?

5.3For the purposes of subparagraph 5.2 (c), the required aeronautical experience must:

(a)consist of at least 20 hours of instrument time of which 10 hours must be dual instrument flight instruction time in aircraft of the same category as the aircraft relevant to the grade of the PIFR rating sought by the applicant; and

(b)have been gained:

(i)while the applicant was a member of the Defence Force; or

(ii)while the applicant was receiving instruction from an authorised flight instructor approved under subregulation 5.20 (1) to give flying training for the issue of the grade of instrument rating that corresponds to the grade of the PIFR rating sought by the person; or

(iii)while the applicant was training for the purpose of obtaining a private pilot licence, or commercial pilot licence, of the kind referred to in subparagraph 5.1 (a) or a night V.F.R. rating.

Note: Table 1 in paragraph 1.3 sets out which grades of rating correspond.

Tests etc. not required by the holder of a command grade of instrument rating etc.

5.4An applicant for a grade of the PIFR rating set out in column 2 of an item in Table 2 does not need to satisfy the requirements in subparagraph 5.2 if the person’s log book is endorsed with the grade of rating set out in column 3 of that item and that rating is current.

Table 2 — Grade of rating that must be in log book

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3

Item

Grade of PIFR rating sought

Grade of rating that must be endorsed in personal log book

1 Single-engine aeroplane grade

Command (single engine aeroplane) grade; or

Command (multi-engine aeroplane) grade; or

Multi-engine aeroplane grade of the PIFR rating

2 Single-engine helicopter grade

Command (single engine helicopter) grade; or

Command (multi-engine helicopter) grade; or

Multi-engine helicopter grade of the PIFR rating

3 Multi-engine aeroplane grade Command (multi-engine aeroplane) grade
4 Multi-engine helicopter grade Command (multi-engine helicopter) grade
  1. Duration of the PIFR rating and recent experience requirements

How long does a grade of the PIFR rating remain in force?

6.1For the purposes of paragraph 5.17 (1) (a) of the Regulations, a grade of the PIFR rating remains in force as long as the holder holds:

(a)a private, commercial, air transport or special, pilot licence; or

(b)a certificate of validation for an overseas authorisation that is the equivalent of a licence mentioned in subparagraph (a);

that authorises the holder to fly aircraft of the same category as the aircraft relevant to the grade.

What recent experience is required to exercise the privileges of a PIFR rating?

6.2The holder of a grade of the PIFR rating must not fly an aircraft under the I.F.R. unless:

(a)within the period of 2 years immediately before the day of the proposed flight, the holder has completed:

(i)a flight test under subsection 7, or a flight review under subsection 8, relevant to the grade; or

(ii)a flight test for the issue or renewal of a command grade of the instrument rating; and

(b)the holder has sufficient recent experience to undertake the flight safely.

Note: Guidance on recent experience is contained in CAAP 5.13-1 “Private IFR rating”.

  1. Flight tests for the grades of the PIFR rating

7.1The flight test for a grade of the PIFR rating is a test of an applicant’s skills and knowledge in each unit listed in column 2 of an item in the Table in Appendix 1 (the relevant table).

How does a person pass the flight test?

7.2To pass the test the person must be awarded a pass in each unit.

7.3To obtain a pass in the unit set out in column 2 of an item in the relevant table, an applicant must demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the person conducting the test, proficiency in each requirement listed in column 3 of that item for the category of aircraft to which the grade relates.

Flight test must be recommended by a CFI

7.4An applicant must not undertake the flight test for a grade of the PIFR rating (the relevant grade) unless the applicant has been recommended in writing for the test by the CFI of a flying school authorised under an AOC to conduct flying training for the issue of the grade of the instrument rating that corresponds to the relevant grade.

Note: Table 1 in paragraph 1.3 sets out which grades of rating correspond.

When can a CFI recommend an applicant for a flight test?

7.5The CFI of the flying school must not recommend an applicant for the flight test unless:

(a)the applicant satisfies the requirements of paragraph 5.1; and

(b)the applicant has:

(i)passed a written examination set by CASA or the CFI, based on so much of the flight crew rating syllabus published by CASA under regulation 5.59 as relates to the PIFR rating; or

(ii)passed the instrument rating examination (within the meaning of section 40.2.1); and

(c)the CFI believes that the applicant is of the standard required to pass the flight test.

What kind of aircraft can be used in a flight test?

7.6The aircraft used for a flight test for the issue of a grade of the PIFR rating must:

(a)be fitted with dual controls; and

(b)be fitted with avionics systems that enable the person conducting the test:

(i)to communicate with the person taking the test; and

(ii)to monitor all radio signals received and transmitted during the test; and

(c)in relation to the grade of the PIFR rating specified in column 2 of an item in Table 3, be of a kind specified in column 3 of that item.

Table 3 — Aircraft that can be used for flight test

Column 1

Column 2

Column 3

Item

Grade of the PIFR rating

Kind of aircraft required for test

1 Multi-engine aeroplane grade Multi-engine aeroplane (except a multi-engine center-line thrust aeroplane)
2 Single-engine aeroplane grade Single-engine aeroplane or multi-engine aeroplane
3 Multi-engine helicopter grade Multi-engine helicopter
4 Single-engine helicopter grade Single-engine helicopter or multi-engine helicopter

Testing officer must occupy control seat

7.7While an aircraft is being used for a flight test, the person conducting the test must occupy a control seat in the aircraft.

Under what conditions can a PIFR rating flight test be conducted?

7.8A flight test for a grade of the PIFR rating must be conducted under the I.F.R.

7.9However, a flight test may be conducted in V.M.C. if I.M.C. are simulated to the satisfaction of the person conducting the test.

Note: Regulation 163A requires the flight crew of an aircraft (whether flying I.F.R. or V.F.R.) to maintain vigilance so as to see, and avoid, other aircraft when weather conditions permit.

Who can conduct a PIFR rating flight test?

7.10A flight test for a grade of the PIFR rating (the relevant grade) is to be conducted by:

(a)CASA; or

(b)an approved testing officer who holds a delegation that authorises him or her to conduct flight tests for the issue of the grade of the instrument rating that corresponds to the relevant grade.

  1. Flight reviews

8.1This subsection provides for PIFR rating flight reviews referred to in regulation 5.17A.

Note: Regulation 5.17A generally requires flight reviews every 2 years.

Flight review not required by the holder of a command grade of instrument rating

8.2A person who holds the grade of the instrument rating set out in column 2 of an item in Table 4 need not complete a PIFR rating flight review for the grade of the PIFR rating set out in column 3 of that item.

Table 4 — Grades of instrument rating and PIFR rating

Column 1

Column 2

Column 3

Item No.

Grade of the instrument rating

Grade of the PIFR rating

1 Command (multi-engine aeroplane)

Multi-engine aeroplane

Single-engine aeroplane

2 Command (single engine aeroplane) Single-engine aeroplane
3 Command (multi-engine helicopter)

Multi-engine helicopter

Single-engine helicopter

4 Command (single engine helicopter) Single-engine helicopter

What must be included in a PIFR rating flight review?

8.3A flight review for a grade of the PIFR rating consists of:

(a)a review of the holder’s knowledge of:

(i)each proficiency requirement listed in column 3 of item 1 or 2 in the Table in Appendix 1; and

(ii)the flight procedures covered by the FPA in the holder’s personal log book that are relevant to that grade of the rating (the relevant flight procedures); and

(b)an in-flight review of the holder’s aeronautical skills in:

(i)each proficiency requirement listed in column 3 of 1 of items 3 to 8 in the Table in Appendix 1; and

(ii)the relevant flight procedures.

Who can conduct a PIFR rating flight review?

8.4A flight review for a grade of the PIFR rating (the relevant grade) is to be conducted by:

(a)CASA; or

(b)an approved testing officer who holds a delegation that authorises him or her to conduct flight tests for the issue of the grade of the instrument rating that corresponds to the relevant grade; or

(c)a flight instructor who is authorised to conduct:

(i)a flight review under regulation 5.81 or 5.91; and

(ii)training for the issue of a command grade of the instrument rating;

in the category of aircraft in which the PIFR rating flight review is to be conducted.

What kind of aircraft can be used for a PIFR rating flight review?

8.5A flight review for the multi-engine aeroplane grade, or the multi-engine helicopter grade, of the PIFR rating must be conducted in a multi-engine aircraft of the relevant category.

8.6A flight review for the single-engine aeroplane grade, or the single-engine helicopter grade, of the PIFR rating may be conducted either in a single-engine aircraft or a multi-engine aircraft of the relevant category.

Successful candidate’s log book must be annotated

8.7If a holder of a grade of the PIFR rating has satisfactorily completed the flight review for that grade, the person who conducted the review must make an entry to that effect in the person’s personal logbook.

  1. Flight procedure authorisations

9.1For the purposes of paragraph 5.20C (a) of the Regulations, the FPAs that CASA may issue are those set out in column 2 of Table 1 in Appendix 2.

Note 1: Regulation 5.20A sets out the purpose of a FPA.

Note 2: Regulation 5.20B sets out the general eligibility requirements for a FPA.

What does a FPA authorise?

9.2For the purposes of paragraph 5.20C (d) of the Regulations, the authority given by the FPA set out in column 2 of an item in Table 1 in Appendix 2 is set out in column 3 of that item.

FPA must be entered in log book

9.3If CASA issues a FPA to an applicant, then, for the purposes of paragraph 5.20C (c) of the Regulations, CASA must enter the FPA in the person’s personal logbook.

What are the requirements for obtaining a FPA?

9.4CASA may only issue a FPA set out in column 2 of an item in Table 2 in Appendix 2 to a person who satisfies the requirements specified in column 3 of that item.

9.5For the purposes of paragraph 5.20C (b) of the Regulations:

(a)the applicant for a FPA specified in column 2 of an item in Table 3 in Appendix 2 must have passed a flight test covering the person’s skills listed in column 3 of that item; and

(b)the applicant must also have:

(i)passed a written examination set by CASA or the CFI of a flying school that is authorised under an AOC to conduct flying training for the issue of an instrument rating, being an examination based on so much of the flight crew rating syllabus published by CASA under regulation 5.59 as relates to the FPA; or

(ii)passed the instrument rating examination (within the meaning of section 40.2.1).

Night FPA — holder of a NVFR rating

9.6Despite paragraph 9.5, a person who holds a NVFR rating may be issued with the Night FPA without taking the tests mentioned in that paragraph for that FPA.

GNSS FPA — holder of a PIFR rating and instrument rating etc

9.7Despite paragraph 9.5, a person who holds a PIFR rating may be issued with the Navigation using GNSS FPA without taking the tests mentioned in that paragraph for that FPA if the person:

(a)holds a grade of the instrument rating; and

(b)is authorised to use GNSS under paragraph 13.6 of section 40.2.1

GNSS FPA — holder of a PIFR rating and flight instructor satisfied about competence to use GNSS

9.8Despite paragraph 9.5, a person who holds a PIFR rating may be issued with the Navigation using GNSS FPA without taking the tests mentioned in that paragraph for that FPA if:

(a)the person has satisfactorily completed a course of training in accordance with the syllabus set out in Appendix IV of section 40.2.1 conducted by a           flying school authorised by its AOC to conduct training for the issue or renewal of a grade of the instrument rating; and

(b)a flight instructor who:

(i)is employed by, or working under an arrangement with, the school; and

(ii)holds a flight instructor (aeroplane) rating grade 1 or flight instructor (helicopter) rating grade 1 and a command instrument rating;

is satisfied that the person is competent to use GNSS when exercising the authority given by the person’s PIFR rating and has made an entry to that effect in the person’s personal log book.

GNSS FPA — holder of a PIFR rating and CASA satisfied about competence to use GNSS

9.9Despite paragraph 9.5, a person who holds a PIFR rating may be issued with the Navigation using GNSS FPA without taking the tests mentioned in that paragraph for that FPA if CASA:

(a)is satisfied that the person has received training in the subjects set out in the syllabus in Appendix IV of section 40.2.1; and

(b)is satisfied that the person is competent to use GNSS when exercising the authority given by the person’s PIFR rating and has made an entry to that effect in the person’s personal log book.

Issue of FPAs to holders of a command grade of instrument rating

9.10Despite paragraph 9.5, these provisions apply to a person who holds, or has satisfied the requirements for the issue of, a PIFR rating:

(a)if the person holds a command grade of the instrument rating, the person may be issued with each of the following FPAs without taking the tests mentioned in paragraph 9.5 for that FPA:

(i)Navigation using NDB;

(ii)NDB holding;

(iii)Night;

(iv)STAR;

(v)Instrument departure (SE);

(vi)Instrument departure (SE) SID;

(vii)Visual circling;

(viii)IAL NDB;

(b)if the person holds a command (multi-engine aeroplane) grade of the instrument rating, the person may, in addition to the FPAs mentioned in subparagraph (a), be issued with each of the following FPAs without taking the tests mentioned in paragraph 9.5 for that FPA:

(i)Instrument departure (MEA);

(ii)Instrument departure (MEA) SID;

(iii)Instrument approach (MEA);

(c)if the person holds a command (multi-engine helicopter) grade of the instrument rating, the person may, in addition to FPAs mentioned in subparagraph (a), be issued with each of the following FPAs without taking the tests mentioned in paragraph 9.5 for that FPA:

(i)Instrument departure (MEH);

(ii)Instrument departure (MEH) SID;

(iii)Instrument approach (MEH).

Issue of FPAs to holders of a command grade of instrument rating in relation to navigation aids and procedures endorsed in holder’s log book

9.11Despite paragraph 9.5, if a person:

(a)holds a command grade of the instrument rating; and

(b)has a navigation aid or procedure set out in column 2 of an item in Table 5 entered in his or her personal log book;

the person may, in addition to the FPAs that may be issued to the person under subparagraph 9.10 (a), (b) or (c), be issued with the FPA, or each FPA, set out in column 3 of that item without taking the tests mentioned in paragraph 9.5 for that FPA.

Table 5 — FPAs that may be issued

Column 1

Column 2

Column 3

Item No.

Navigation aid or procedure entered in person’s personal log book under section 40.2.1

FPAs that may be issued to the person

1 RNAV(GNSS)

(a)  Navigation using GNSS

(b)  GNSS holding

(c)  IAL RNAV(GNSS)

2 ILS

(a)  IAL ILS

(b)  IAL LLZ

3 LLZ IAL LLZ
4 VOR

(a)  Navigation using VOR

(b)  VOR holding

(c)  IAL VOR

5 DME or GPS arrival procedure DME or GPS Arrival
  1. Flight tests for the issue of FPAs

How do you pass the test for a FPA?

10.1To pass the flight test for a FPA listed in column 2 of an item in Table 3 in Appendix 2, a person must demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the person conducting the test, proficiency in each skill listed in column 3 of that item.

Who can conduct a FPA flight test?

10.2The flight test for a FPA is to be conducted by:

(a)CASA; or

(b)an approved testing officer who holds a delegation that authorises him or her to conduct flight tests for the issue of the grade of the instrument rating that corresponds to the relevant grade.

Prerequisites for FPA flight tests

10.3The flight test for the issue to a person of a FPA except:

(a)Navigation using NDB; or

(b)Navigation using VOR; or

(c)Navigation using DME; or

(d)Night;

may only be conducted after the person has been issued with, or has satisfied the requirements for the issue of, a grade of the PIFR rating.

Applicant for a FPA flight test must be of a suitable standard

10.4The flight test for a FPA may be conducted only if the CFI of a flying school authorised under an AOC to conduct flying training for the issue of an instrument rating has stated in writing that he or she believes that the applicant is of the standard required to pass the test.

What kind of aircraft must be used for a FPA flight test?

10.5The aircraft used for a flight test for a FPA must:

(a)be fitted with dual controls; and

(b)be fitted with avionics systems that enable the person conducting the test:

(i)to communicate with the person taking the test; and

(ii)to monitor all radio signals received and transmitted during the test.

10.6A multi-engine aeroplane, except a centre-line thrust aeroplane, must be used for a flight test for 1 of the following FPAs:

(a)Instrument departure (MEA);

(b)Instrument departure (MEA) SID;

(c)Instrument approach (MEA).

10.7A multi-engine helicopter must be used for a flight test for 1 of the following FPAs:

(a)Instrument departure (MEH);

(b)Instrument departure (MEH) SID;

(c)Instrument approach (MEH).

10.8A single-engine aircraft or a multi-engine aircraft may be used for a flight test for a FPA other than those mentioned in paragraph 10.6 or 10.7.

Testing officer must occupy a control seat

10.9While an aircraft is being used for a flight test, the person conducting the test must occupy a control seat in the aircraft.

Under what conditions can a FPA flight test be conducted?

10.10A flight test for a FPA must be conducted under the I.F.R.

10.11However, a flight test may be conducted in V.M.C. if I.M.C. are simulated to the satisfaction of the person conducting the test.

Note: Regulation 163A requires the flight crew of an aircraft (whether flying I.F.R. or V.F.R.) to maintain vigilance so as to see, and avoid, other aircraft when weather conditions permit.

  1. Automatic approval to give flying training for a PIFR rating

Approval for training in aeroplanes

11.1For the purposes of subregulation 5.20 (1), a person who:

(a)holds a flight instructor (aeroplane) rating; and

(b)is approved by CASA to give flying training for the issue of the command (multi-engine) aeroplane grade, or the command (single engine) aeroplane grade, of the instrument rating;

is approved to give flying training for the issue of the grade of the PIFR rating that corresponds to that grade.

Approval for training in helicopters

11.2For the purposes of that subregulation, a person who:

(a)holds a flight instructor (helicopter) rating; and

(b)is approved by CASA to give flying training for the issue of the command (multi-engine) helicopter grade, or the command (single engine) helicopter grade of the instrument rating;

is approved to give flying training for the issue of the grade of the PIFR rating that corresponds to that grade.

Note: Table 1 in paragraph 1.3 sets out which grades of rating correspond to that grade.

APPENDIX 1

Table — Flight tests for grades of PIFR rating

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. Units Proficiency requirements
1 Flight management and operational and fuel planning

(a)   ensuring that there are on board the aircraft to be used for the test, and knowing how to use, the latest of the aeronautical maps, charts and other aeronautical information and instructions, that are required under paragraph 233 (1) (h) of the Regulations to be carried in the aircraft

(b)   obtaining:

        (i)  current weather reports and forecasts for the route to be followed for the test and for the aerodromes to be used; and

       (ii)  information on the airways facilities available on that route and the condition of those facilities; and

      (iii)  information about the condition of the aerodromes to be used and their suitability for the aircraft

(c)   prepare a flight plan for the route to be followed for the test that satisfies any I.F.R. requirements for that route, and the Air Traffic Control rules and procedures pertaining to the flight, specified in the AIP

(d)   determining the need for an alternate aerodrome and calculating the minimum amount of fuel required for the flight

(e)   making an I.F.R. flight notification in accordance with the AIP

2 Management of pre- and post-flight actions

(a)   determining whether the     aircraft to be used for the test may be flown under the I.F.R.

(b)   conducting daily inspections of the aircraft

(c)   conducting pre-flight serviceability checks of flight and radio navigation instruments installed in the aircraft


Table — Flight tests for grades of PIFR rating — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. Units Proficiency requirements
3 Conduct of flight using I.F.R. procedures

(a)   conducting visual departure

(b)   conducting flight in I.M.C. or simulated I.M.C. at a safe height over a route that involves tracking over a distance of at least 100 nautical miles using at least 2 radio navigation aids

(c)   conducting a visual approach to the circuit area of an aerodrome other than the departure aerodrome

(d)   using altimeter setting procedures specified in the AIP

(e)   conducting a diversion to an alternate aerodrome

(f)    conducting holding procedures

4 Compliance with air traffic rules and procedures

(a)   obtaining and complying with the Air Traffic Control clearances for the flight

(b)   maintaining separation from other traffic as required by the Regulations and the AIP

(c)   complying with the radio communication, and transponder, requirements specified in the AIP or NOTAMS

5 Management of emergency procedures

In relation to aeroplanes and helicopters:

(a)   managing engine failure and subsequent flight when the aircraft is being flown by reference to instruments only

(b)   managing radio communication failure and navigation aid or navigation system failure

(c)   managing electrical and vacuum systems failure

(d)   avoiding hazardous weather conditions

(e)   demonstrating turbulence penetration technique

In relation to helicopters only:

(f)    in the case of a helicopter equipped with a single hydraulic system — flying the helicopter without hydraulic assistance if flight without hydraulic assistance is permitted by the aircraft’s flight manual


Table — Flight tests for grades of PIFR rating — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. Units Proficiency requirements
5 Management of emergency procedures — contd

(g)   in the case of a helicopter equipped with multiple hydraulic systems — flying the helicopter with the hydraulic system that provides full hydraulic assistance to all flight controls inoperative

(h)   flying the aircraft without stability augmentation

6 Task management

(a)   prioritising tasks

(b)   using autopilot or flight director

7 Conduct of instrument flight using full panel

In relation to aeroplanes and helicopters:

(a)   flying level, climbing and descending

(b)   making level, climbing and descending turns through at least 180o onto nominated HDG

(c)   recovering from unusual attitudes

In relation to helicopters only:

(d)   accelerating and decelerating in level flight

(e)   flying at low speed

8 Conduct of instrument flight using limited panel (without reference to attitude indicator or directional indicator)

(a)   flying level, climbing and descending

(b)   making level, climbing and descending turns through at least 180o onto nominated HDG

(c)   recovering from unusual attitudes

APPENDIX 2

Table 1 — FPAs

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No FPA Authority given by FPA
1 Navigation using NDB To navigate during daytime by reference to NDB along any route segment that is outside a standard instrument arrival
2 Navigation using VOR To navigate during daytime by reference to VOR along any route segment that is outside a standard instrument arrival
3 Navigation using GNSS To navigate during daytime by reference to GNSS along any route segment that is outside a standard instrument arrival
4 Navigation using DME

While navigating during daytime:

(a)   to obtain, or assist in obtaining, a positive position fix by using distance information provided by DME; and

(b)   to fly a DME Arc

5 NDB holding To carry out all approved holding procedures during daytime by reference to NDB
6 VOR holding To carry out all approved holding procedures during daytime by reference to VOR
7 GNSS holding To carry out all approved holding procedures during daytime by reference to GNSS
8 Night To fly at night to the same extent as the person is authorised to do during daytime under the other authorisations held by the person
9 STAR

To fly a standard instrument arrival using:

(a)   if the person holds a Navigation using NDB authorisation — NDB; or

(b)   if the person holds a Navigation using VOR authorisation — VOR; or

(c)   if the person holds a Navigation using GNSS authorisation — GNSS

10 Instrument departure (SE) To take off in a single-engine aircraft, and climb to the altitude that is the LSALT for the first route segment of the flight, during daytime not using a SID
11 Instrument departure (SE) SID To take off in a single-engine aircraft, and fly a SID, during daytime
12 Instrument departure (MEA) To take off in a single-engine or multi-engine aeroplane, and climb to the altitude that is the LSALT for the first route segment of the flight, during daytime not using a SID

Table 1 — FPA — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No FPA Authority given by FPA
13 Instrument departure (MEA) SID To take off in a single-engine or multi-engine aeroplane, and fly a SID, during daytime
14 Instrument departure (MEH) To take off in a single-engine or multi-engine helicopter, and climb to the altitude that is the LSALT for the first route segment of the flight, during daytime not using a SID
15 Instrument departure (MEH) SID To take off in a single-engine or multi-engine helicopter, and fly a SID, during daytime
16 Visual circling To carry out during daytime the visual circling procedure associated with published instrument approach procedures
17 IAL NDB To carry out in a single-engine aircraft during daytime all approved instrument approach procedures (other than the DME or GPS Arrival procedure) whose tracks are defined by reference to NDB
18 IAL VOR To carry out in a single-engine aircraft during daytime all approved instrument approach procedures (other than the DME or GPS Arrival procedure) whose tracks are defined by reference to VOR
19 DME or GPS Arrival

To carry out in a single-engine aircraft during daytime all approved DME or GPS Arrival procedures using:

(a)   for azimuth guidance:

        (i)  if the person holds a Navigation using NDB authorisation — NDB; or

       (ii)  if the person holds a Navigation using VOR authorisation — VOR; and

(b)   for distance information:

        (i)  if the person holds a Navigation using DME authorisation — DME; or

       (ii)  if the person holds a Navigation using GNSS authorisation — GNSS


Table 1 — FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No FPA Authority given by FPA
20 RNAV(GNSS) To carry out all approved instrument approach procedures in a single-engine aircraft during daytime using information obtained only from a GNSS
21 IAL LLZ To carry out all approved instrument approach procedures in a single-engine aircraft during daytime using a localiser but without reference to an ILS glideslope
22 IAL ILS To carry out all approved instrument approach procedures in a single-engine aircraft during daytime using an instrument landing system
23 Instrument approach (MEA)

To carry out in a multi-engine aeroplane during daytime the instrument approach procedures that the person is authorised to carry out in a single-engine aircraft under those of the following flight procedure authorisations that the person holds:

(a)   IAL NDB;

(b)   IAL VOR;

(c)   DME or GPS Arrival;

(d)   IAL RNAV(GNSS);

(e)   IAL LLZ;

(f)    IAL ILS

24 Instrument approach (MEH)

To carry out in a multi-engine helicopter during daytime the instrument approach procedures that the person is authorised to carry out in a single-engine aircraft under those of the following flight procedure authorisations that the person holds:

(a)   IAL NDB;

(b)   IAL VOR;

(c)   DME or GPS Arrival;

(d)   IAL RNAV(GNSS);

(e)   IAL LLZ;

(f)    IAL ILS


Table 2 — Prerequisites for the issue of certain FPAs

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Prerequisite
1

IAL NDB

IAL VOR
IAL RNAV(GNSS);
IAL LLZ

IAL ILS

The person must hold the Visual circling flight procedure authorisation
2 DME or GPS Arrival

The person must hold:

(a)   the Navigation using DME flight procedure authorisation or the Navigation using GNSS flight procedure authorisation; and

(b)   the Visual circling flight procedure authorisation

3

Instrument departure (MEA)

Instrument departure (MEA) SID

The person must hold the multi-engine aeroplane grade of the PIFR rating
4

Instrument departure (MEH)

Instrument departure (MEH) SID

The person must hold the multi-engine helicopter grade of the PIFR rating
5 Instrument approach (MEA)

The person must hold the multi-engine aeroplane grade of the PIFR rating and at least 1 of the following flight procedure authorisations:

(a)   IAL NDB;

(b)   IAL VOR;

(c)   DME or GPS Arrival;

(d)   IAL RNAV(GNSS);

(e)   IAL LLZ;

(f)    IAL ILS

6 Instrument approach (MEH)

The person must hold the multi-engine helicopter grade of the PIFR rating and at least 1 of the following flight procedure authorisations:

(a)   IAL NDB;

(b)   IAL VOR;

(c)   DME or GPS Arrival;

(d)   IAL RNAV(GNSS);

(e)   IAL LLZ;

(f)    IAL ILS


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
1

Navigation using NDB

Navigation using VOR

(a)   tuning the aircraft receiver to each NDB or VOR (as the case may be) to be used during the test and identifying and monitoring it

(b)   determining the bearing of the aircraft in flight in relation to each NDB or VOR (as the case may be) to be used during the test

(c)   intercepting and maintaining desired track to and from, and making station passage over, each NDB or VOR (as the case may be) that is an on-track aid used during the test

2 Navigation using GNSS

(a)   accessing the modes of the aircraft’s GNSS receiver

(b)   entering into, retrieving from, and deleting from, the aircraft’s GNSS receiver flight plans and waypoints and editing, and activating, those flight plans and waypoints

(c)   determining the position of the aircraft in flight

(d)   intercepting and maintaining desired track to selected waypoints

(e)   diverting from the route specified in the flight plan and tracking to selected waypoints

(f)    conducting confidence checks of GNSS navigational information

(g)   monitoring integrity of GPS navigation system

(h)   responding to GNSS messages

3 Navigation using DME

(a)   tuning the appropriate aircraft receiver to each DME station to be used during the flight and identifying the station

(b)   using DME radio navigation system:

        (i)  to obtain distance information from a DME station; and

       (ii)  to determine the aircraft’s position in conjunction with another radio navigation aid

(c)     flying a DME arc

4

NDB holding

VOR holding
GNSS holding

For each approved holding procedure:

(a)   making sector entry to the holding pattern; and

(b)   flying the holding pattern


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
5 Night

(a)   determining whether an aerodrome satisfies the operational requirements published in the AIP:

        (i)  for its use at night as a destination aerodrome; and

       (ii)  for its use at night as an alternate aerodrome

(b)   determining whether an aircraft may be flown under the I.F.R. at night

(c)   taxiing at night

(d)   taking-off at night from an aerodrome when lighting, other than aerodrome lighting, is insufficient to enable the aircraft to be flown by reference to the ground or water

(e)   making a visual departure under the I.F.R. at night

(f)    flying under the I.F.R. at night to an aerodrome other than the departure aerodrome

(g)   making a visual approach under the I.F.R. at night

(h)   activating PAL

(i)    landing at night with and without the use of aircraft landing lights at an aerodrome when lighting, other than aerodrome lighting, is insufficient to enable the aircraft to be flown by reference to the ground or water

(j)    making missed approach at night

(k)   managing electrical system failure at night

6 STAR showing ability to fly a standard arrival route using NDB, VOR or GNSS
7 Instrument Departure (SE)

(a)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the aeroplane to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(b)   planning a departure path for a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima referred to in paragraph (a) (the relevant ceiling) from a runway that is not linked by a SID to the route planned for the flight

(c)   taking-off and departing during daytime in a single-engine aeroplane:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the relevant ceiling; or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
8 Instrument Departure (SE) SID

(a)   finding out whether the performance of the aircraft enables it to fly along a SID

(b)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the aeroplane to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(c)   taking-off and departing during daytime in a single-engine aircraft:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima referred to in paragraph (b) (the relevant ceiling); or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling

(d)   flying the aircraft along the flight path defined by a SID

9 Instrument departure (MEA)

(a)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the aeroplane to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(b)   planning a departure path for a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima referred to in paragraph (a) (the relevant ceiling) from a runway that is not linked by a SID to the route planned for the flight, allowing for the failure of 1 engine at any time after take-off

(c)   taking-off, and departing with a simulated engine failure at anytime after take-off, during daytime in a multi-engine aeroplane:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the relevant ceiling; or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling

10 Instrument departure (MEA) SID

(a)   finding out whether the performance of the aeroplane to be used for the flight enables it to fly along a SID, allowing for the failure of 1 engine at any time after take-off

(b)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the aeroplane to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(c)   taking-off, and departing with a simulated engine failure at anytime after take-off, during daytime in a multi-engine aeroplane:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
10 Instrument departure (MEA) SID — contd

            referred to in paragraph (b) (the relevant ceiling); or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling

(d)   flying the aircraft along the flight path defined by a SID

11 Instrument departure (MEH)

(a)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the aeroplane to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(b)   planning a departure path for a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima referred to in paragraph (a) (the relevant ceiling) from a runway that is not linked by a SID to the route planned for the flight

(c)   taking-off, and departing with a simulated engine failure at anytime after take-off, during daytime in a multi-engine helicopter:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the relevant ceiling; or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling

12 Instrument departure (MEH) SID

(a)   finding out whether the performance of the helicopter to be used for the flight enables it to fly along a SID, allowing for the failure of 1 engine at any time after take-off

(b)   finding out the meteorological minima for the taking-off of the helicopter to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(c)   taking-off, and departing with a simulated engine failure at anytime after take-off, during daytime in a multi-engine helicopter:

        (i)  with a ceiling equal to the ceiling specified in the meteorological minima referred to in paragraph (b) (the relevant ceiling); or

       (ii)  in conditions simulating the relevant ceiling

(d)   flying the aircraft along the flight path defined by a SID

13 Visual circling (a)   finding out the meteorological minima for visual circling by the aircraft to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
13 Visual circling — contd (b)   conducting a visual circling procedure for the aerodrome to be used following an instrument approach
14

IAL NDB

IAL VOR

(a)   selecting the chart that specifies the correct instrument approach procedure by reference to NDB or VOR (as the case may be) for the aerodrome to be used

(b)   finding out the meteorological minima for the landing of the aircraft to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(c)   monitoring that the signal identifying the NDB or VOR (as the case may be) is received

(d)   tracking to the NDB or VOR (as the case may be) from a point at least 25 nautical miles away while the aircraft is at or above LSALT

(e)   conducting entry to the holding pattern for the NDB or VOR (as the case may be) and flying the holding pattern

(f)    conducting the instrument approach procedure for the aerodrome to be used

(g)   conducting the published missed approach procedure appropriate to IAL NDB or IAL VOR (as the case may be) for the aerodrome to be used

15

IAL LLZ

IAL LLS

(a)   selecting the chart that specifies the correct instrument approach procedure by reference to LLZ or ILS (as the case may be) for the aerodrome to be used

(b)   finding out the meteorological minima for the landing of the aircraft to be used for the flight at the aerodrome to be used

(c)   monitoring that the signal identifying the LLZ or ILS (as the case may be) is received

(d)   conducting entry to the holding pattern for the LLZ or ILS (as the case may be) and flying the holding pattern

(e)   conducting the instrument approach procedure for the aerodrome to be used

(f)    conducting the published missed approach procedure appropriate to IAL LLZ or IAL ILS (as the case may be) for the aerodrome to be used


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required

16

DME or GPS Arrival

(a)   selecting from the DME or GPS Arrival procedures approved in respect of the aerodrome to be used the correct procedure relating to the flight by reference to the inbound track or sector

(b)   selecting and using the appropriate tracking aid and monitoring that the signal identifying the tracking aid is received

(c)   obtaining distance information:

     (i)    if using DME — by selecting the appropriate DME and monitoring that the signal identifying the DME is received; or

     (ii)   if using GNSS — by selecting the appropriate GNSS reference waypoint and monitoring the integrity of the signal received from the GPS

(d)   conducting the DME or GPS Arrival procedure for the aerodrome to be used

(e)   conducting the published missed approach procedure appropriate to the DME or GPS Arrival procedure for the aerodrome to be used

17 IAL RNAV(GNSS)

(a)   selecting a IAL RNAV(GNSS) procedure approved in respect of the aerodrome to be used that will allow compliance with paragraph 166 (1) (b) of the Regulations

(b)   selecting the appropriate approach procedure from the GNSS receiver’s database, loading it into the active flight plan in the GNSS receiver, and activating it

(c)   monitoring the integrity of the signal received from the GNSS

(d)   tracking to the initial approach fix or waypoint from a point at least 30 nautical miles away while the aircraft is at or above LSALT

(e)   conducting entry to the holding pattern for the procedure and flying the holding pattern

(f)    changing from the holding pattern mode to the approach mode

(g)   conducting the IAL RNAV(GNSS) procedure for the aerodrome to be used


Table 3 — Flight tests for the issue of FPAs — continued

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3
Item No. FPA Skills in which proficiency required
17 GPS/NPA — contd (h)   conducting the published missed approach procedure appropriate to the IAL RNAV(GNSS) procedure for the aerodrome to be used
18

Instrument approach (MEA)

Instrument approach (MEH)

(a)   flying a multi-engine aeroplane or helicopter (as the case may be) along the path specified in an instrument approach procedure (the relevant procedure) following a simulated failure of 1 engine

(b)   conducting the published missed approach procedure appropriate to the relevant procedure with simulated engine failure

Actions
Download as PDF Download as Word Document


Cases Citing This Decision

0

Cases Cited

0

Statutory Material Cited

0