Children’s Guardian Regulation 2022 (NSW)

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No judgment structure available for this case.

Part 1Preliminary1Name of Regulation

This Regulation is the Children’s Guardian Regulation 2022.

2Commencement(1)

Subject to subsection (2), this Regulation commences on the day on which it is published on the NSW legislation website.

(2)

Part 2 and Schedule 1 commence on 18 July 2022.

3Definitions

The Dictionary in Schedule 8 defines certain terms used in this Regulation.

Note—

The Act and the Interpretation Act 1987 contain definitions and other provisions that affect the interpretation and application of this Regulation.

s 3: Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[1].

4Residential care workers(1)

For the Act, definition of residential care worker, paragraph (b) the following persons are prescribed—

  • (a)

    a person who provides security services in a residential setting for a residential care provider,

  • (b)

    a person who spends 60% or more of the time the person works for a residential care provider in a residential setting doing the following—

    • (i)

      developing or implementing case management plans for children in statutory out-of-home care or supported out-of-home care,

    • (ii)

      providing administrative support.

(2)

The provisions of this regulation relating to the residential care workers register do not apply to a person who—

  • (a)

    is authorised or provisionally authorised as an authorised carer under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2022, section 18 or 19, and

  • (b)

    only provides statutory out-of-home care or supported out-of-home care in a private capacity.

s 4: Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[1]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[1].

Part 2Residential care workers registerDivision 1Preliminary5Dealing with information for purposes of keeping register

For the Act, section 85(1A), the following persons are prescribed—

  • (a)

    a residential care provider,

  • (b)

    the Children’s Guardian,

  • (c)

    the Secretary.

6Emergency authorisations not subject to Division 2(1)

A residential care provider is not required to comply with Division 2 in relation to a residential care worker who provides statutory out-of-home care or supported out-of-home care under an emergency authorisation given under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2022, section 22.

(2)

The residential care provider must instead, within 72 hours after giving the emergency authorisation, notify the Children’s Guardian of the authorisation and give the Children’s Guardian the following information—

  • (a)

    the worker’s full name, any former name and any known aliases,

  • (b)

    the worker’s date of birth,

  • (c)

    if the worker holds a working with children check clearance—

    • (i)

      the working with children number for the clearance, and

    • (ii)

      the date on which the clearance ceases to have effect,

  • (d)

    if the worker has a current application for a working with children check clearance that has not been finally determined, withdrawn or terminated—the application number.

s 6: Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[1].

7Secretary not subject to Division 2 for certain workers

The Secretary is not required to comply with Division 2 for a caseworker.

Division 2Worker checks and recording on register8Residential care provider check

A residential care provider that is required to undertake a check of a relevant individual with another residential care provider under this Division must—

  • (a)

    request information about the relevant individual from the other residential care provider using the form approved by the Children’s Guardian, and

  • (b)

    consider the information received in response to the request.

9Residential care provider must conduct certain checks—the Act, s 85(2)(d)(1)

A residential care provider that proposes to conduct a referee check of an applicant must, before conducting the check, undertake each of the following—

  • (a)

    a check to verify the applicant’s relevant details,

  • (b)

    a nationwide criminal record check for the applicant,

  • (c)

    a check of the residential care workers register to determine if the applicant is a relevant individual for another residential care provider,

  • (d)

    if the residential care workers register indicates the applicant is a relevant individual for another residential care provider—a check of the relevant individual with the other residential care provider.

(2)

A residential care provider is not required to undertake—

  • (a)

    a check of a relevant individual with another residential care provider if—

    • (i)

      the provider undertook the check with the other provider in the previous 12 months, and

    • (ii)

      the result was satisfactory, or

  • (b)

    a nationwide criminal record check if—

    • (i)

      the check has been undertaken by the residential care provider in the previous 12 months, and

    • (ii)

      the result was satisfactory.

(3)

A residential care provider is not required to undertake a check required by subsection (1) if—

  • (a)

    the provider is satisfied that the applicant is not suitable to be a residential care worker, or

  • (b)

    the applicant withdraws the application.

s 9: Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[2]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[2].

10Information to be recorded on register—the Act, s 85(2)(a)(1)

A residential care provider that proposes to conduct a referee check of an applicant must, before conducting the check, record the following information about the applicant on the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    the applicant’s full name, any former name and any known aliases,

  • (b)

    the applicant’s date of birth,

  • (c)

    if the applicant holds a working with children check clearance—

    • (i)

      the working with children number for the clearance, and

    • (ii)

      the date on which the clearance ceases to have effect,

  • (d)

    if the applicant has a current application for a working with children check clearance that has not been finally determined, withdrawn or terminated—the application number,

  • (e)

    for a check under section 9(1)(b) or (d)—

    • (i)

      the date the check was completed, and

    • (ii)

      the outcome of the check,

  • (f)

    whether the applicant was referred to the provider by a labour hire agency.

(2)

As soon as practicable after making a decision about whether or not to engage an applicant as a residential care worker, the residential care provider must record the following information on the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    the decision,

  • (b)

    if the decision is to not offer the applicant the position—the date the decision was made.

(3)

A residential care provider must, as soon as practicable after engaging an applicant as a residential care worker, record on the residential care workers register the date the applicant commences work as a residential care worker.

(4)

A residential care provider may, with a person’s consent, record the following information on the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    the person’s gender,

  • (b)

    whether the person identifies as an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander person.

s 10: Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[3]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[2]–[5].

11Residential care worker recommencing work within 12 months(1)

This section applies to a person if—

  • (a)

    a residential care provider intends to engage the person as a residential care worker, and

  • (b)

    the person was engaged as a residential care worker by the residential care provider within the previous 12 months.

(2)

Before offering to engage the person, the residential care provider—

  • (a)

    must undertake a check to verify the person’s relevant details, and

  • (b)

    must check the residential care workers register to see if the person is a relevant individual for another residential care provider, and

  • (c)

    if the register indicates the person is a relevant individual for another residential care provider—must undertake a residential care provider check under section 8, and

  • (d)

    may undertake a nationwide criminal record check.

(3)

The residential care provider must, as soon as practicable after engaging the person, record the following information on the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    the type and date of each check undertaken under this section,

  • (b)

    the date the person recommenced work as a residential care worker with the provider.

s 11: Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[2].

12Recording reportable allegations on residential care workers register—the Act, s 85(2)(a)(1)

This section applies to a residential care worker engaged by a residential care provider.

(2)

The residential care provider must make a recording on the residential care workers register within 7 business days after becoming aware of a reportable allegation having been made about the residential care worker.

(3)

The recording must specify—

  • (a)

    that the allegation was made, and

  • (b)

    the date the provider became aware of the allegation.

(4)

The residential care provider must make a recording on the residential care workers register within 14 business days after—

  • (a)

    completing an investigation into a reportable allegation about the residential care worker, or

  • (b)

    becoming aware of the completion of an investigation into a reportable allegation about the residential care worker.

(5)

The recording must specify—

  • (a)

    the outcome of the investigation, and

  • (b)

    the date the investigation was completed.

s 12: Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6].

13Updating information on register—the Act, s 85(2)(b) and (c)(1)

A residential care provider must update information on the residential care workers register about a relevant person as soon as practicable after becoming aware the information is incorrect or incomplete.

(2)

The residential care provider must, as soon as practicable after updating the register, notify the relevant person that the information has been updated.

(3)

A residential care provider must give a relevant person written notice of the reasons for not updating the residential care workers register if—

  • (a)

    the relevant person makes a written request to the provider to update the information, and

  • (b)

    the provider decides to not update the register because the information is not incomplete or incorrect.

(4)

If a residential care provider is incapable of updating information on the residential care workers register as required by this section, the Children’s Guardian may—

  • (a)

    update the information on the register on the provider’s behalf, and

  • (b)

    notify both the person to whom the information relates and the provider that the information on the register was updated.

(5)

This section applies in addition to the Privacy and Personal Information Protection Act 1998, section 15.

(6)

In this section—

relevant person, for a residential care provider, means a person whose information the residential care provider is required to have access to under the Act, section 86(2).

s 13: Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6].

14Residential care provider must update register in certain circumstances—the Act, s 85(2)(c)(1)

A residential care provider must, within 14 business days after a person ceases to work as a residential care worker with the provider, update the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    to record the date the person ceased work, and

  • (b)

    if the provider has relevant information to disclose about the person—to indicate the provider has relevant information to disclose.

(2)

A residential care provider must, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of relevant information about a person currently engaged by the provider as a residential care worker, update the register to indicate the provider has relevant information to disclose.

s 14: Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[2]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[3] (am 2024 No 82, Sch 2.1).

14AAdvanced stage in a recruitment process

For the Act, section 85(3), definition of advanced stage, the stage in a recruitment process at which the residential care provider decides to conduct a referee check of the applicant is prescribed.

s 14A: Ins 2022 (379), Sch 1[4].

Part 3Carers register—the Act, s 85(2)

pt 3: Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 1Information kept on carers register

pt 3, div 1: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

15Information to be recorded on carers register

Schedule 2 sets out the information a designated agency must record on the carers register.

s 15: Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

16Information on carers register must be accurate(1)

A designated agency must update information on the carers register about a relevant person as soon as practicable after becoming aware the information is incorrect or incomplete.

(2)

The designated agency must, as soon as practicable after updating the register, notify the relevant person that the information has been updated.

(3)

A designated agency must give a relevant person written notice of the reasons for not updating the carers register if—

  • (a)

    the relevant person makes a written request to the agency to update the information, and

  • (b)

    the agency decides to not update the register because the information is not incorrect or incomplete.

(4)

If a designated agency is incapable of updating information on the register as required by this section, the Children’s Guardian may—

  • (a)

    update the information on the register on the agency’s behalf, and

  • (b)

    notify both the person to whom the information relates and the agency that the information was updated.

(5)

This section applies in addition to the Privacy and Personal Information Protection Act 1998, section 15.

(6)

In this section—

relevant person, for a designated agency, means the following—

  • (a)

    a carer (a relevant authorised carer) authorised by the designated agency to provide statutory out-of-home care or supported out-of-home care in a private capacity,

  • (b)

    a person who was formerly a relevant authorised carer,

  • (c)

    a person who has applied to be a relevant authorised carer,

  • (d)

    a person, other than a child in out-of-home care, who resides for more than 21 days on the same property as a relevant authorised carer.

s 16: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 2Access to carers register

pt 3, div 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

17General access to carers register

The Children’s Guardian may give access to information held on the carers register to the following—

  • (a)

    a designated agency, but only to the extent the information relates to a relevant person for the designated agency within the meaning of section 16,

  • (b)

    an accredited adoption service provider, but only to the extent the information relates to—

    • (i)

      a person whose suitability to be an adoptive parent is being, or has been, assessed by the accredited adoption service provider, or

    • (ii)

      a person, other than a child in out-of-home care, who resides for more than 21 days on the same property as a person referred to in subparagraph (i),

  • (c)

    the parent of a child whose information is recorded on the register, but only to the extent the information relates to the child.

s 17: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

18Access to information about original decision or record(1)

The Children’s Guardian must ensure information held by the Children’s Guardian about a decision (the original decision) is not made available to a person if—

  • (a)

    the original decision was—

    • (i)

      to refuse to grant an authorisation as an authorised carer, or

    • (ii)

      to cancel an authorisation as an authorised carer, or

    • (iii)

      to suspend an authorisation as an authorised carer, and

  • (b)

    the original decision has been overturned by—

    • (i)

      a designated agency, or

    • (ii)

      a court, or

    • (iii)

      a tribunal.

(2)

The Children’s Guardian must ensure a historical version of a record held by the Children’s Guardian is not made available to a person if the record has been subsequently changed by a designated agency and is a record of—

  • (a)

    the agency’s refusal to grant an authorisation as an authorised carer based on an agency specific policy about carer eligibility or suitability, or

  • (b)

    the agency’s concerns about the suitability of a person to care for, or reside on the same property as, a child following—

    • (i)

      the person withdrawing an application for an authorisation as an authorised carer, or

    • (ii)

      the person surrendering an authorisation as an authorised carer, or

    • (iii)

      cancellation of the person’s authorisation as an authorised carer, or

  • (c)

    concerns the agency had arising from an investigation into a reportable allegation.

(3)

The Children’s Guardian may make an original decision or a historical version of a record available to the following—

  • (a)

    a designated agency if the designated agency made the original decision or historical version of the record,

  • (b)

    the Children’s Guardian,

  • (c)

    the Minister,

  • (d)

    the Ombudsman,

  • (e)

    the Secretary.

s 18: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 4Out-of-home care

pt 4: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 1Accreditation

pt 4, div 1: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

19Application for accreditation—the Act, Sch 3A, s 4(2)(c)(1)

An application for accreditation as a designated agency must include a policy (a behaviour support policy) that—

  • (a)

    sets out behaviour support practices, including the giving of support and counselling, to be applied by authorised carers in the care, management and discipline of children under the supervisory responsibility of the applicant, and

  • (b)

    describes procedures for the use of physical restraint, including consent processes and reporting on the use of restraint, and

  • (c)

    recognises that the following are prohibited—

    • (i)

      physical coercion or physical punishment,

    • (ii)

      punishment in the form of immobilisation,

    • (iii)

      force-feeding or the deprivation of food,

    • (iv)

      punishment intended to humiliate or frighten a child.

(2)

An application for accreditation as a designated agency must also include—

  • (a)

    a psychotropic drugs policy that sets out the steps the applicant will take on becoming aware that a psychotropic drug has been prescribed to a child in statutory out-of-home care, and

  • (b)

    a statement setting out the applicant’s views on the administration of psychotropic drugs to children.

(3)

In this section—

psychotropic drug means medication—

  • (a)

    issued under a prescription of a medical practitioner, and

  • (b)

    that can affect cognition, perception, thinking, mood, behaviour or level of arousal by acting on the central nervous system.

s 19: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

20Notice of decision to grant or refuse accreditation—the Act, Sch 3A, s 6(5)

Written notice of a decision to grant or refuse accreditation as a designated agency must include the following—

  • (a)

    the reasons for the decision,

  • (b)

    the date the decision takes effect,

  • (c)

    conditions imposed on the accreditation by the Children’s Guardian,

  • (d)

    if accreditation is granted on the basis the applicant substantially satisfies the accreditation criteria—

    • (i)

      the criteria not satisfied, and

    • (ii)

      the reasons the criteria were not considered to be satisfied, and

    • (iii)

      that the criteria must be satisfied within 12 months after the accreditation is granted,

  • (e)

    how the applicant may apply for a review of the decision.

s 20: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

21Extension of period of accreditation—the Act, Sch 3A, s 11(4)(1)

The Children’s Guardian may extend the period of accreditation of a designated agency if satisfied—

  • (a)

    proposed legislative or other changes to the administration of out-of-home care, including to accreditation criteria, make the extension appropriate, or

  • (b)

    events beyond the control of the agency, including a natural disaster or a public health emergency, make it unreasonable to require the agency to renew the accreditation.

(2)

The extension—

  • (a)

    must be given by written notice, and

  • (b)

    is for the period set out in the notice.

s 21: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

22Conditions of accreditation

For the Act, Schedule 3A, section 12(1)(a), the conditions in Schedule 3 are prescribed.

s 22: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 2Transfer of accreditation—the Act, Sch 3A, s 21(e)

pt 4, div 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

23Transfers to which Division applies

This Division applies to a transfer of accreditation under the Act, Schedule 3A, section 16 from a former agency to a new agency.

s 23: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

24Information to be provided(1)

The Children’s Guardian may, by written notice, require a former agency or new agency to provide information to the Children’s Guardian if the Children’s Guardian—

  • (a)

    is deciding whether to transfer accreditation, and

  • (b)

    reasonably requires the information to make the decision.

(2)

The information must be provided in the way, and by the date, specified in the notice.

s 24: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

25Matters to be considered(1)

The Children’s Guardian must consider the following when deciding whether to transfer accreditation—

  • (a)

    whether suitable arrangements have been made to ensure continuity of care for children in out-of-home care provided by or arranged by the former agency,

  • (b)

    whether the transfer will prejudice legal proceedings or proposed legal proceedings to which the former agency is, or is likely to become, a party.

(2)

The Children’s Guardian must refuse to transfer accreditation if the Children’s Guardian is of the opinion the transfer will not promote the best interests of children in out-of-home care.

(3)

The Children’s Guardian may refuse to transfer accreditation if the former agency has failed to comply with a condition of accreditation.

(4)

The Children’s Guardian must consult the Department before deciding whether to transfer accreditation.

s 25: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

26Notice of transfer(1)

The Children’s Guardian must give the former agency and the new agency written notice of the Children’s Guardian’s decision about the transfer of accreditation.

(2)

The notice must set out the following—

  • (a)

    the decision,

  • (b)

    the reasons for the decision,

  • (c)

    if the transfer is approved—

    • (i)

      the date the transfer takes effect, and

    • (ii)

      the conditions applying to the transfer.

s 26: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

27Effect of transfer(1)

On the transfer taking effect—

  • (a)

    the former agency ceases to be accredited as a designated agency, and

  • (b)

    the new agency is accredited as a designated agency, and

  • (c)

    the new agency is accredited for the remainder of the period of the transferred accreditation, and

  • (d)

    a condition of the accreditation imposed by the Children’s Guardian and in force immediately before the transfer continues to apply unless varied or revoked by the Children’s Guardian, and

  • (e)

    the new agency is taken to have adopted the former agency’s policies, procedures and practice about the provision of out-of-home care, as in force immediately before the transfer, and

  • (f)

    an authorised carer, authorised by the former agency, whose authorisation was in force immediately before the transfer is taken to be authorised by the new agency.

(2)

Anything concerning the provision of out-of-home care done by the former agency is taken to have been done by the new agency.

s 27: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

28Disclosure of information

Unless prohibited under an Act, the Children’s Guardian may disclose to a new agency information in the possession of the Children’s Guardian regarding the former agency.

s 28: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 3Miscellaneous—the Act, s 184(1)

pt 4, div 3: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

29Designated agency ceasing to provide or arrange out-of-home care(1)

A designated agency must give the Children’s Guardian written notice if the agency ceases to—

  • (a)

    provide out-of-home care, or

  • (b)

    arrange out-of-home care.

(2)

The notice must be given within 10 business days after the agency ceases to provide or arrange out-of-home care.

s 29: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

30Information about designated agencies to be publicly available(1)

The Children’s Guardian must ensure the following information about a designated agency is made publicly available on the Office of the Children’s Guardian’s website—

  • (a)

    the agency’s corporate and business names and ABN,

  • (b)

    whether the agency is provisionally accredited or fully accredited,

  • (c)

    the conditions imposed on the agency’s accreditation by the Children’s Guardian,

  • (d)

    the street and postal addresses of the agency’s principal office,

  • (e)

    the agency’s general telephone number and email address,

  • (f)

    the full name of the agency’s principal officer.

(2)

The information—

  • (a)

    must be made available as soon as practicable after the agency is accredited, and

  • (b)

    must be kept up to date.

s 30: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

30ACode of practice for designated agencies

For the Act, section 8DA(1), the code of practice in Schedule 3A is prescribed for designated agencies.

s 30A: Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[4].

Part 5Regulation of specialised substitute residential care—the Act, s 8ZD

pt 5: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 1Information

pt 5, div 1: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

31Child in specialised substitute residential care(1)

A designated agency must give written notice to the Children’s Guardian if the designated agency—

  • (a)

    provides or supervises specialised substitute residential care for a child, and

  • (b)

    becomes aware the child has been—

    • (i)

      in unsupervised care for more than a total of 90 days in a period of 12 months, or

    • (ii)

      in specialised substitute residential care, whether provided by the agency or another organisation, for more than a total of 180 days in a period of 12 months.

(2)

The notice must be given as soon as practicable.

(3)

In this section—

unsupervised care means specialised substitute residential care that is not provided or supervised by a designated agency.

s 31: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

32Case plans

A designated agency that prepares or reviews a case plan for a child in specialised substitute residential care must—

  • (a)

    within 5 business days after preparing or reviewing the plan, give the Children’s Guardian written notice of—

    • (i)

      the preparation or review of the plan, and

    • (ii)

      the date on which the preparation or review of the plan was completed, and

  • (b)

    if the plan does not meet the child’s needs—notify the Children’s Guardian as soon as practicable after becoming aware the plan does not meet the child’s needs, and

  • (c)

    keep the plan or review until the child is 18 years of age.

    Note—

    See the State Records Act 1998 in relation to other record keeping obligations.

s 32: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

33Record of entities that may provide or supervise specialised substitute residential care(1)

The Children’s Guardian may keep a record of the following—

  • (a)

    the names of entities providing or supervising specialised substitute residential care,

  • (b)

    the information about an entity providing or supervising specialised substitute residential care the Children’s Guardian considers appropriate for inclusion in the record.

(2)

The record may be published on the Office of the Children’s Guardian’s website.

s 33: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 2Specialised substitute residential care register—the Act, s 85(2)

pt 5, div 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

34Restricted access to register

The specialised substitute residential care register must only be made available to the following—

  • (a)

    a designated agency providing, or supervising, specialised substitute residential care for a child,

  • (b)

    an entity providing specialised substitute residential care for a child, if—

    • (i)

      the entity was immediately before 1 September 2022 a registered agency under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2012, or

    • (ii)

      the entity has completed a self-assessment under Schedule 4, section 6,

  • (c)

    the Minister,

  • (d)

    a person who is employed by or in the Department,

  • (e)

    the Ombudsman,

  • (f)

    the Privacy Commissioner,

  • (g)

    an Official Community Visitor,

  • (h)

    the Commissioner of Police or another police officer holding the rank of inspector or above in the NSW Police Force, but only for the purpose of the investigation of a missing person or a possible criminal offence,

  • (i)

    the State Coroner or a Deputy State Coroner, but only in connection with a death or suspected death the Coroner or Deputy Coroner is investigating.

s 34: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

35Entity providing specialised substitute residential care(1)

An entity must, within 5 business days after a child commences specialised substitute residential care with the entity, enter on the specialised substitute residential care register—

  • (a)

    the following information about the child, unless the information is already on the register—

    • (i)

      the child’s full name and other names the child is or has been known by,

    • (ii)

      the child’s gender,

    • (iii)

      the child’s date and place of birth,

    • (iv)

      whether the child is an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander person,

    • (v)

      whether the child has a significant disability, and

  • (b)

    the name of the entity, and

  • (c)

    the date the specialised substitute residential care commenced, and

  • (d)

    if a case plan has been prepared for the child—the date the plan was prepared and each review date for the plan.

(2)

The entity must, within 5 business days after the child finishes the specialised substitute residential care with the entity, enter on the specialised substitute residential care register the date the specialised substitute residential care ceased to be provided by the entity.

(3)

If the entity does not have access to the specialised substitute residential care register under section 34(b), the reference in subsection (1) to 5 business days after a child commences specialised substitute residential care with the entity is taken to be a reference to the later of the following—

  • (a)

    5 business days after a child commences specialised substitute residential care with the entity,

  • (b)

    5 business days after the entity has access to the specialised substitute residential care register.

(4)

In this section—

significant disability means a disability that—

  • (a)

    is attributable to 1 or more intellectual, psychiatric, sensory or physical impairments, and

  • (b)

    is permanent or likely to be permanent, and

  • (c)

    results in—

    • (i)

      significantly reduced capacity in 1 or more major life activities, including communication, learning, mobility, decision-making or self-care, and

    • (ii)

      the need for support, whether or not of an ongoing nature.

s 35: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

36Designated agency supervising specialised substitute residential care

A designated agency must, within 5 business days after a child commences specialised substitute residential care supervised by the designated agency, enter on the specialised substitute residential care register—

  • (a)

    the child’s full name and other names the child is or has been known by, and

  • (b)

    the name of the entity providing the specialised substitute residential care, and

  • (c)

    the designated agency’s name, and

  • (d)

    the date the supervision commenced.

s 36: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

37Children and parents may request details on register(1)

A person may apply to the Children’s Guardian for a copy of the information recorded on the specialised substitute residential care register about the person.

(2)

If the person is a child, the application may be made by a parent of the child.

(3)

The Children’s Guardian must give the information to the applicant as soon as practicable after the application is made.

s 37: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

38Children and parents may request correction of register(1)

A person may apply to the Children’s Guardian to update the specialised substitute residential care register to correct information about the person that is incorrect or incomplete.

(2)

If the person is a child, the application may be made by a parent of the child.

(3)

The Children’s Guardian must update the register if the Children’s Guardian is satisfied the information is incorrect or incomplete.

(4)

The Children’s Guardian must give the applicant written notice of the reasons for not updating the register if the Children’s Guardian decides the information is not incorrect or incomplete.

s 38: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 3Miscellaneous

pt 5, div 3: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

39Code of practice

For the Act, section 8DA(1), the code of practice in Schedule 4 is prescribed for entities providing specialised substitute residential care.

s 39: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

40Supervision meetings

A designated agency supervising the provision of specialised substitute residential care by an entity must arrange supervision meetings with the entity at least once in each calendar month.

s 40: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 6Adoption

pt 6: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 1Accreditation of adoption service providers

pt 6, div 1: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

41Notice of decision to grant or refuse accreditation—the Act, Sch 3B, s 6(5)

Written notice of a decision to grant or refuse accreditation must include the following—

  • (a)

    the reasons for the decision,

  • (b)

    the date the decision takes effect,

  • (c)

    conditions imposed on the accreditation by the Children’s Guardian,

  • (d)

    if accreditation is granted on the basis the applicant substantially satisfies the accreditation criteria—

    • (i)

      the criteria not satisfied, and

    • (ii)

      the reasons the criteria were not considered to be satisfied, and

    • (iii)

      that the criteria must be satisfied within 12 months after the accreditation is granted,

  • (e)

    how the applicant may apply for a review of the decision.

s 41: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

42Extension of period of accreditation—the Act, Sch 3B, s 11(4)(1)

The Children’s Guardian may extend the period of accreditation of an accredited adoption service provider if satisfied—

  • (a)

    proposed legislative or other changes to the administration of adoption services, including to accreditation criteria, make the extension appropriate, or

  • (b)

    events beyond the control of the provider, including a natural disaster or a public health emergency, make it unreasonable to require the provider to renew the accreditation.

(2)

The extension—

  • (a)

    must be given by written notice, and

  • (b)

    is for the period set out in the notice.

s 42: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

43Conditions of accreditation

For the Act, Schedule 3B, section 12(1)(a), the conditions in Schedule 5 are prescribed.

s 43: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 2Transfer of accreditation—the Act, Sch 3B, s 22(e)

pt 6, div 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

44Transfers to which Division applies

This Division applies to a transfer of accreditation under the Act, Schedule 3B, section 17 from a former organisation to a new organisation.

s 44: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

45Information to be provided(1)

The Children’s Guardian may, by written notice, require a former organisation or new organisation to provide information to the Children’s Guardian if the Children’s Guardian—

  • (a)

    is deciding whether to transfer accreditation, and

  • (b)

    reasonably requires the information to make the decision.

(2)

The information must be provided in the way, and by the date, specified in the notice.

s 45: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

46Matters to be considered(1)

The Children’s Guardian must consider the following when deciding whether to transfer accreditation—

  • (a)

    whether suitable arrangements have been made to ensure continuity of adoption services provided by the former organisation,

  • (b)

    whether the transfer will prejudice legal proceedings or proposed legal proceedings to which the former organisation is, or is likely to become, a party.

(2)

The Children’s Guardian may refuse to transfer accreditation if the former organisation has failed to comply with a condition of accreditation.

(3)

The Children’s Guardian must, before deciding whether to transfer accreditation, consult with—

  • (a)

    the Department, and

  • (b)

    if the new organisation will provide intercountry adoption services—the Commonwealth Central Authority within the meaning of the Family Law (Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoption) Regulations 1998 of the Commonwealth.

s 46: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

47Notice of transfer(1)

The Children’s Guardian must give the former organisation and the new organisation written notice of the Children’s Guardian’s decision about the transfer of accreditation.

(2)

The notice must set out the following—

  • (a)

    the decision,

  • (b)

    the reasons for the decision,

  • (c)

    if the transfer is approved—

    • (i)

      the date the transfer takes effect, and

    • (ii)

      the conditions applying to the transfer.

s 47: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

48Effect of transfer(1)

On the transfer taking effect—

  • (a)

    the former organisation ceases to be accredited as an adoption service provider, and

  • (b)

    the new organisation is accredited as an adoption service provider, and

  • (c)

    the new organisation is accredited for the remainder of the period of the transferred accreditation, and

  • (d)

    a condition of the accreditation imposed by the Children’s Guardian and in force immediately before the transfer continues to apply unless varied or revoked by the Children’s Guardian, and

  • (e)

    the new organisation is taken to have adopted the former organisation’s policies, procedures and practice about the provision of adoption services, as in force immediately before the transfer.

(2)

Anything concerning the provision of adoption services done by the former organisation is taken to have been done by the new organisation.

s 48: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

49Disclosure of information

Unless prohibited under an Act, the Children’s Guardian may disclose to a new organisation information in the possession of the Children’s Guardian regarding the former organisation.

s 49: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 3Miscellaneous

pt 6, div 3: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

50Accredited adoption service provider ceasing to provide adoption services—the Act, s 184(1)(1)

An accredited adoption service provider must give the Children’s Guardian written notice if the provider ceases to provide adoption services.

(2)

The notice must be given within 10 business days after the provider ceases to provide adoption services.

(3)

As soon as practicable after the provider ceases to provide adoption services, the provider must ensure records kept by the provider under the Act, this Regulation or the Adoption Act 2000 are given to the Secretary.

s 50: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

51Information about accredited adoption service providers to be publicly available—the Act, s 184(1)(1)

The Children’s Guardian must ensure the following information about an accredited adoption service provider is made publicly available on the Office of the Children’s Guardian’s website—

  • (a)

    the provider’s corporate and business names and ABN,

  • (b)

    whether the provider is provisionally accredited or fully accredited,

  • (c)

    the adoption services the provider is accredited to provide,

  • (d)

    the conditions imposed on the provider’s accreditation by the Children’s Guardian,

  • (e)

    the duration of the provider’s accreditation,

  • (f)

    the street and postal addresses of the provider’s principal office,

  • (g)

    the provider’s general telephone number and email address,

  • (h)

    the full name of the provider’s principal officer.

(2)

The information—

  • (a)

    must be made available as soon as practicable after the provider is accredited, and

  • (b)

    must be kept up to date.

s 51: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

51ACode of practice for adoption service providers

For the Act, section 8DA(1), the code of practice in Schedule 3A is prescribed for adoption service providers.

s 51A: Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[5].

Part 7Child employment

pt 7: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 1Preliminary

pt 7, div 1: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

52Definitions

In this Part—

arts student means a person enrolled in a tertiary course in film, television, radio, theatre or photography—

  • (a)

    accredited by the Australian Skills Quality Authority, or

  • (b)

    at a university.

employer’s exemption

  • (a)

    has the same meaning as in the Act, section 94(1)(b), and

  • (b)

    to avoid doubt, includes a performer representative exemption.

performer representative has the same meaning as in the Entertainment Industry Act 2013.

performer representative exemption means an exemption granted by section 55(1)(a).

preparatory activity means activities connected to a child’s employment in an activity for which an employer’s authority is required, including rehearsals, wardrobe fittings, publicity activities and the making of sound recordings.

s 52: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[2].

53Persons taken to employ children—the Act, s 91(a)(1)

Children taking part in an activity regulated by an employer’s authority are taken to be employed by a person responsible for directing the children in the activity if—

  • (a)

    the person pays, or agrees to pay, another person for at least 1 child taking part in the activity, or

  • (b)

    the person is an arts student and the activity occurs as a requirement of the person’s studies.

(2)

Performer representatives for children are taken to employ the children they represent.

(3)

In this section—

pay includes conferring a material benefit on a person.

s 53: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 2Employers’ authorities and exemptions

pt 7, div 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

54Meaning of “relevant activity”

For the Act, section 90(1), definition of relevant activity, paragraph (c), the following activities are prescribed—

  • (a)

    a preparatory activity,

  • (b)

    a still photographic session,

  • (c)

    modelling work,

  • (d)

    promotional work,

  • (e)

    performance art,

  • (f)

    public speaking.

s 54: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2025 No 46, Sch 2[1] [2].

55Exemption from requirement to hold employer’s authority(1)

For the Act, section 93(1)(c), the following persons are exempt from the requirement to hold an employer’s authority—

  • (a)

    a person who only acts as the performer representative of a child,

  • (b)

    a person who employs a child who is—

    • (i)

      at least 10 years of age, and

    • (ii)

      only employed outside school hours, and

    • (iii)

      employed for no more than 10 hours per week.

(2)

For the Act, section 102(4)(b), the Children’s Guardian may revoke an exemption granted by this section.

s 55: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

56Condition of employer’s authority or exemption—the Act, ss 97(1)(a) and 102(5)

It is a condition of an employer’s authority and an employer’s exemption that the employer must give the Children’s Guardian information about the employment of children by the employer that the Children’s Guardian reasonably requires.

s 56: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Subst 2022 (731), Sch 1[3].

57Fee for employer’s authority—the Act, s 94(2)(b)(1)

The prescribed fee for an application for an employer’s authority is—

  • (a)

    for a still photographic session—

    Duration of authority

    Fee

    More than 6 months and up to 12 months

    $1,075

    More than 3 months and up to 6 months

    $914

    More than 1 week and up to 3 months

    $806

    1 week or less

    $100

  • (b)

    otherwise—

    Duration of authority

    Fee

    More than 6 months and up to 12 months

    $2,400

    More than 3 months and up to 6 months

    $2,040

    More than 1 week and up to 3 months

    $1,830

    1 week or less

    $200

(2)

An arts student is not required to pay a fee for an employer’s authority.

s 57: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Division 3Obligations of employers

pt 7, div 3: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

58Code of Practice(1)

For the Act, section 97(1B), the Code of Practice in Schedule 6 is prescribed.

(2)

It is a condition of an employer’s authority and an employer’s exemption, other than a performer representative exemption, that the employer must—

  • (a)

    comply with the Code of Practice, and

  • (b)

    use the employer’s best endeavours to ensure all adults employed by the employer comply with the Code of Practice.

(3)

It is a condition of a performer representative exemption that the performer representative must—

  • (a)

    comply with the Code of Practice, sections 3–5, and

  • (b)

    use the performer representative’s best endeavours to ensure all adults employed by the performer representative comply with the Code of Practice, sections 3–5, and

  • (c)

    not cause or procure a child to be employed if the performer representative knows, or would reasonably be expected to know, the child will be employed in contravention of the Code of Practice, section 26(1), (4) or (6).

(4)

It is a condition of an employer’s authority and an employer’s exemption, other than a performer representative exemption, that the employer must ensure a copy of 1 of the following is given to the parent of a child before the child commences employment with the employer—

  • (a)

    the Code of Practice,

  • (b)

    a document, approved by the Children’s Guardian, that explains the Code of Practice.

s 58: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[4]–[6].

59Code of conduct—the Act, s 97(1)(a)(1A)

It is a condition of an employer’s authority and an employer’s exemption, other than a performer representative exemption, that the employer must comply with this section.

(1)

The employer must prepare a code of conduct addressing the safety and welfare of children employed by the employer.

(2)

The employer’s code of conduct must be prepared in accordance with guidelines approved by the Children’s Guardian.

(3)

An employer must provide a copy of the code of conduct to each of the following persons before the person has contact with a child employed by the employer—

  • (a)

    a person employed by the employer,

  • (b)

    a parent of each child employed by the employer.

s 59: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[7] [8].

59AOffence—failure to comply with employer’s exemption condition

An employer must not fail to comply with a condition of an employer’s exemption.

Maximum penalty—50 penalty units.

Note—

Employment of a child in contravention of a condition of an employer’s authority is also an offence—see the Act, section 97(2).

s 59A: Ins 2022 (731), Sch 1[9].

Part 8Miscellaneous

pt 8: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

60Head of relevant entity

For the Act, section 17(1)(b), the following persons are prescribed as the head of a relevant entity—

  • (a)

    for an adult who, under the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012, section 10, is required to hold a working with children check clearance because the adult resides on the same property as an authorised carer for 3 weeks or more—the head of the relevant entity that authorised the authorised carer with whom the adult resides,

  • (b)

    for the Cancer Institute (NSW) constituted by the Cancer Institute (NSW) Act 2003—the Secretary of the Ministry of Health,

  • (c)

    for the NSW Health Service, as referred to in the Health Services Act 1997, section 115—the Secretary of the Ministry of Health.

s 60: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

61Subdelegation of functions

For the Act, section 133(3)(b), the head of a government sector agency, within the meaning of the Government Sector Employment Act 2013, section 3(1), is prescribed.

s 61: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

62Disclosure of information about reportable allegation or reportable conviction

For the Act, section 57(4)(b)(viii), a person, other than the Minister or the Secretary, is prescribed if the person had parental responsibility for a child immediately before—

  • (a)

    the child was placed in out-of-home care, or

  • (b)

    the Children’s Court made an order allocating parental responsibility for the child.

s 62: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

63Direction to give information to Children’s Guardian—the Act, s 180(7)

Information directed to be given to the Children’s Guardian under the Act, section 180(1)(b) must be written and in the form specified by the Children’s Guardian.

s 63: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

64Restriction on inspection of documents—the Act, s 114(1)

Records made in connection with the administration or execution of the Act, Part 7 are open to inspection by, and may be made available to, the following—

  • (a)

    officers of the Children’s Court,

  • (b)

    the Secretary,

  • (c)

    the principal officer of an accredited adoption service provider, for proceedings involving the service provider,

  • (d)

    if the records are for the exercise of the Children’s Guardian’s functions under the Act, Part 7 or under the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012—the Children’s Guardian.

s 64: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

65Procedure and criteria for exempting conduct from notification(1)

For the Act, section 30(2)(a), the Children’s Guardian must consult on the proposed exemption with persons or other bodies that, in the Children’s Guardian’s opinion, are relevant, including the following—

  • (a)

    the relevant entity intended to be subject to the exemption,

  • (b)

    if applicable—the relevant regulator or the representative body of the relevant entity.

(2)

For the Act, section 30(2)(b), the prescribed criteria a relevant entity must satisfy for a class or kind of conduct of its employees to be exempt is that—

  • (a)

    the relevant entity has—

    • (i)

      systems and practices that comply with the Act, section 54(2) for identifying and responding to reportable allegations and convictions, and

    • (ii)

      a consistent record of identifying and responding to reportable allegations and convictions in accordance with the Act, or

  • (b)

    the relevant entity must be required to report the class or kind of conduct of its employees to a relevant regulator, or

  • (c)

    the relevant entity must be a member of a representative body that provides advice, guidance and support on matters under the reportable conduct scheme.

(3)

In this section—

relevant regulator means a body, other than the Children’s Guardian, that, under a State, Territory or Commonwealth law—

  • (a)

    the relevant entity must notify in relation to reports about the class or kind of conduct proposed to be exempted, and

  • (b)

    must respond, or oversee the relevant entity’s response, to the class or kind of conduct proposed to be exempted.

representative body means a body that—

  • (a)

    is an organisation of which the relevant entity is a member, and

  • (b)

    provides advice, support and guidance to the relevant entity on matters under the reportable conduct scheme.

s 65: Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[6].

Schedule 1Savings and transitional provisionsPart 1Provisions consequential on commencement of Children’s Guardian Regulation 20221Definitions

In this Part—

commencement day means 18 July 2022.

existing worker, of a residential care provider, means a person other than a caseworker, who, immediately after the commencement of this Regulation, section 4—

  • (a)

    works for the residential care provider, and

  • (b)

    is a residential care worker to whom this Regulation applies.

2Existing applications for employment

This Regulation, Part 2, Division 2 extends to an application for employment as a residential care worker to which this Regulation applies, that was made, but not finally dealt with, before the commencement day.

3Existing workers(1)

Within 90 days after the commencement day a residential care provider must, for an existing worker of the residential care provider—

  • (a)

    conduct a check to verify the worker’s relevant details, and

  • (b)

    record the following information about the worker on the residential care workers register—

    • (i)

      the information specified in this Regulation, section 10(1)(a)–(d),

    • (ii)

      the information specified in this Regulation, section 10(4), if the worker consents to the information being recorded on the residential care workers register,

    • (iii)

      the date a nationwide criminal record check was conducted and the outcome of the check,

    • (iv)

      the date the worker commenced work with the provider.

(2)

As soon as practicable after the commencement day, and within 180 days after the commencement day, a residential care provider must, for an existing worker, undertake—

  • (a)

    a check of the residential care workers register to determine if the worker is a relevant individual for another residential care provider, and

  • (b)

    if the residential care workers register indicates the worker is a relevant individual for another residential care provider—a check of the relevant individual with the other residential care provider in accordance with this Regulation, Part 2, Division 2.

(3)

As soon as practicable after conducting a check under subsection (2), the residential care provider that conducted the check must record the following information on the residential care workers register—

  • (a)

    the date the check was conducted,

  • (b)

    the outcome of the check.

4Reportable allegations—current investigations(1)

This Regulation, section 12 extends to a reportable allegation made before the commencement day if the investigation of the allegation is not complete on the commencement day.

(2)

The requirement in section 12(1) for the residential care provider to record on the residential care workers register information about a reportable allegation within 7 business days of becoming aware of the allegation is be taken as a requirement to record the information within 7 business days of the commencement day.

Part 2Provisions consequential on commencement of Children’s Guardian (Amendment) Regulation (No 2) 20225Continuation of carers register

The carers register kept under Part 3 is taken to be a continuation of the carers register kept under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2012 immediately before 1 September 2022.

6Transfer of information to specialised substitute residential care register

Information on the register established and maintained under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2012, clause 82 immediately before 1 September 2022 is transferred to the specialised substitute residential care register kept under the Act, section 85(1)(c).

7Child employment

An act, matter or thing that, immediately before the repeal of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) (Child Employment) Regulation 2015, had effect under that Regulation continues to have effect under this Regulation.

sch 1: Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[8]–[16].

Schedule 2Information to be recorded on carers register

section 15

1Definitions

In this Schedule—

application number has the meaning given by the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012.

continuing residence approval has the meaning given by the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012.

suitability assessment, in relation to a person, means the suitability assessment required under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2022, Part 6, Division 2.

working with children check status information means the following information about a person—

  • (a)

    whether the person has—

    • (i)

      a working with children check clearance, or

    • (ii)

      a current application and, if the person has a current application, the application number, or

    • (iii)

      a continuing residence approval,

  • (b)

    if the person has a current working with children check clearance—

    • (i)

      the working with children number, and

    • (ii)

      the expiry date,

  • (c)

    whether the person is subject to 1 or more of the following decisions of the Children’s Guardian under the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012

    • (i)

      a decision to refuse to grant a working with children check clearance,

    • (ii)

      a decision to cancel a working with children check clearance,

    • (iii)

      a decision to impose an interim bar on a working with children check clearance holder or applicant,

  • (d)

    whether the person has previously held a working with children check clearance that has expired.

2Information about authorised carers and applicants(1)

This section sets out the information to be entered on the carers register about the following persons—

  • (a)

    a relevant authorised carer,

  • (b)

    a person who was formerly a relevant authorised carer,

  • (c)

    a person who has applied to be a relevant authorised carer.

(2)

A designated agency must enter the following information on the carers register within 14 business days after a person first applies to be an authorised carer—

  • (a)

    the person’s full name and other names the person is or has been known by,

  • (b)

    the person’s gender,

  • (c)

    the person’s date of birth,

  • (d)

    the date on which the person’s application was made or taken to be made.

(3)

A designated agency must, before approving a person’s application to be an authorised carer, or within 14 business days after the application is refused, withdrawn or otherwise terminated, enter the following information on the carers register—

  • (a)

    the person’s home address,

  • (b)

    whether the person has been authorised as an authorised carer, or similar, in another State or a Territory,

  • (c)

    the person’s working with children check status information,

  • (d)

    the date and the outcome of—

    • (i)

      if the person’s home has been inspected by the agency—the inspection, and

    • (ii)

      other suitability assessments completed by the agency,

  • (e)

    if the agency required the person to complete education or training before being authorised—the education or training completed,

  • (f)

    whether the agency has determined the person is capable and suitable to be an authorised carer and the date the determination was made,

  • (g)

    whether the person identifies as an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander person,

  • (h)

    if the application is withdrawn—

    • (i)

      the date the application was withdrawn, and

    • (ii)

      concerns the agency had about the person’s suitability to care for, or reside on the same property as, a child,

  • (i)

    if the application is terminated because of the death of the person—

    • (i)

      the date the person died, or

    • (ii)

      if the date the person died is not known—the date the agency became aware the person died,

  • (j)

    if the application is refused—

    • (i)

      the date the application was refused, and

    • (ii)

      whether the refusal was on the grounds of a policy specific to the agency about carer eligibility or suitability.

(4)

For a relevant authorised carer who is provisionally authorised, the following information must be entered on the carers register within 14 business days after the first child is placed with the carer—

  • (a)

    the date the first child was placed with the carer,

  • (b)

    the information required to be entered on the register under subsection (3)(a), (c), (d)(i), (f) and (g).

(5)

A designated agency must, within 14 business days after approving an application for authorisation as an authorised carer, enter the following on the carers register—

  • (a)

    the date of the approval,

  • (b)

    if the approval is subject to a condition that the authorised carer may provide out-of-home care only to a child who is a relative or kin of the carer or who knows the carer—that condition.

3Other information about authorised carers(1)

This section applies to the following persons—

  • (a)

    a relevant authorised carer,

  • (b)

    a person who was formerly a relevant authorised carer.

(2)

A designated agency must enter the following information on the carers register within 14 business days after becoming aware of the information—

  • (a)

    if a person died while authorised by the agency—

    • (i)

      the date the person died, or

    • (ii)

      if the date the person died is not known—the date the agency became aware the person died,

  • (b)

    if a person’s authorisation by the agency has been suspended—the date of the suspension,

  • (c)

    if the suspension of a person’s authorisation by the agency has ended—the date the suspension ended,

  • (d)

    if a person’s authorisation by the agency has been surrendered or cancelled—

    • (i)

      the date of the surrender or cancellation, and

    • (ii)

      concerns, associated with the surrender or cancellation, the agency had about the person’s suitability to care for, or reside on the same property as, a child.

4Information about relevant resident(1)

A designated agency must, within 14 business days after becoming aware a person is a relevant resident, enter the following information about the person on the carers register—

  • (a)

    the person’s full name and other names the person is or has been known by,

  • (b)

    the person’s gender,

  • (c)

    the person’s date of birth,

  • (d)

    whether the person identifies as an Aboriginal person or a Torres Strait Islander person,

  • (e)

    the person’s working with children check status information.

(2)

A designated agency must enter on the carers register the following information about a relevant resident within 14 business days after becoming aware of the information—

  • (a)

    the date and the outcome of suitability assessments completed by the agency,

  • (b)

    if the person has died—

    • (i)

      the date the person died, or

    • (ii)

      if the date the person died is not known—the date the agency became aware the person died,

  • (c)

    if the person no longer resides on the same property as the authorised carer or applicant—

    • (i)

      the date the person ceased to reside on the property, or

    • (ii)

      if the date the person ceased to reside on the property is not known—the date the agency became aware the person ceased to reside on the property.

5Recording reportable allegations on carers register(1)

A designated agency must, within 7 business days after becoming aware of a reportable allegation, record the following information on the carers register—

  • (a)

    that the allegation has been made,

  • (b)

    the date the designated agency became aware of the allegation.

(2)

A designated agency must, within 14 business days after finalising, or becoming aware of the finalisation of, the investigation of a reportable allegation, record the following information on the carers register—

  • (a)

    the outcome of the investigation,

  • (b)

    the date the investigation was finalised.

sch 2 (as originally made): Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[5]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[17] [18]. Renumbered as Sch 8, 2022 (480), Sch 1[19].

sch 2: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20].

Schedule 3Conditions of accreditation—designated agencies

section 22

Part 1General conditions of accreditation1Emergency authorisations

A designated agency must, when authorising a person as an authorised carer under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2022, section 22, comply with relevant guidelines issued by the Children’s Guardian.

2Arranging out-of-home care(1)

A designated agency must not arrange out-of-home care for a child unless—

  • (a)

    the Children’s Court or another court has ordered the child be placed in out-of-home care, or

  • (b)

    for a child under the age of 16 years—at the request of a person having parental responsibility for the child, or

  • (c)

    for a child who is at least 16 years of age—at the request of the child.

(2)

A request for out-of-home care may be made orally or in writing.

(3)

A designated agency that arranges out-of-home care must confirm the following requests in writing with the person with parental responsibility for the child within 5 business days after making the arrangements—

  • (a)

    an oral request under subsection (1)(b),

  • (b)

    a request under subsection (1)(c).

3Agency to ensure needs of child are able to be met

A designated agency must not arrange out-of-home care for a child unless the agency is satisfied the following are able to meet the needs of the child—

  • (a)

    the designated agency,

  • (b)

    an authorised carer with whom the child is placed.

4Care in private home

A designated agency must not arrange out-of-home care to be provided to a child in a private home unless the authorised carer providing the care is authorised under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Regulation 2022, section 18 or 19.

5Social and medical history

A designated agency that arranges the placement of a child in out-of-home care must use the agency’s best endeavours to document the social and medical history of the child and the child’s family.

6Cooperation with authorised persons

A designated agency must cooperate with an authorised person who enters the premises of the designated agency to inspect or search the premises under the Act, Schedule 2.

Part 2Conditions requiring information be given to Children’s Guardian or Secretary7Information about child in care(1)

A designated agency that arranges out-of-home care for a child must give—

  • (a)

    the Secretary the information about the child the Secretary may reasonably require, and

  • (b)

    the Children’s Guardian the information about the child the Children’s Guardian may reasonably require.

(2)

A designated agency that places a child less than 12 years of age in residential care must give the Children’s Guardian the following information—

  • (a)

    the child’s full name,

  • (b)

    information about the residential unit in which the child is placed,

  • (c)

    the reasons the child is placed in residential care.

(3)

The information must be given to the Secretary and the Children’s Guardian in writing.

8Information about reportable allegations

A designated agency must ensure procedures are in place for the principal officer of the agency to be notified as soon as practicable if a reportable allegation is made about—

  • (a)

    a person who is or has been authorised as an authorised carer by the designated agency, or

  • (b)

    an adult who is a relevant resident.

9Notification of inability to satisfy accreditation criteria(1)

A designated agency that is unable to satisfy 1 or more accreditation criteria applying to the agency must notify the Children’s Guardian as soon as practicable after becoming aware the agency is unable to satisfy the criteria.

(2)

Subsection (1) does not apply if the Children’s Guardian has given the agency written notice that notification is not required.

10Notification of inability to comply with accreditation condition

A designated agency that is unable to comply with a condition of the agency’s accreditation must notify the Children’s Guardian as soon as practicable after the agency becomes aware the agency is unable to comply with the condition.

11Notification of change to contact details(1)

A designated agency must give the Children’s Guardian and the Secretary written notice of a change to 1 or more of the following—

  • (a)

    the agency’s ABN,

  • (b)

    the agency’s business address,

  • (c)

    the agency’s business name,

  • (d)

    the agency’s email address,

  • (e)

    the agency’s telephone number,

  • (f)

    the agency’s principal officer.

(2)

Notice must be given within 1 business day after the change.

12Notification of change to governance arrangements(1)

A designated agency must give the Secretary written notice of a change in—

  • (a)

    the terms of the documents governing the agency’s constitution, or

  • (b)

    the terms of a trust the agency has established in connection with the arrangements the agency makes for out-of-home care.

(2)

Notice must be given within 10 business days after the change.

sch 3: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20].

Schedule 3ACode of practice for designated agencies and adoption service providers

sections 30A and 51A

Part 1General1Definitions

In this schedule—

caregiver means the following—

  • (a)

    a relevant authorised carer within the meaning of the Act, section 85(1B)(a),

  • (b)

    an applicant within the meaning of the Adoption Act 2000, Chapter 4, Part 3 or 3A,

  • (c)

    a prospective guardian within the meaning of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998.

critical event—see section 16.

entity means—

  • (a)

    a designated agency, or

  • (b)

    an adoption service provider.

practice requirement means a practice requirement set out in Part 3.

2Application of code

This code of practice applies to the following entities—

  • (a)

    designated agencies,

  • (b)

    adoption service providers.

3Objects of code

The objects of this code of practice are as follows—

  • (a)

    to promote the safety, welfare, wellbeing, rights and best interests of children—

    • (i)

      in out-of-home care, or

    • (ii)

      the subject of an adoption arrangement,

  • (b)

    to facilitate compliance with the Child Safe Standards,

  • (c)

    to establish practice requirements for entities,

  • (d)

    to set out the steps that must be taken by an entity to obtain and maintain accreditation under the Act.

Part 2Guiding principles4Guiding principles(1)

The principal officer of a designated agency must ensure that, in arranging or providing out-of-home care, the agency is guided by the principles set out in this part.

(2)

The principal officer of an adoption service provider must ensure that, in providing an adoption service, the provider is guided by the principles set out in this part.

5Best interests of children

The best interests of the child must be the paramount consideration in all decisions that affect a child’s life.

6Right to safety

A child has a right to be safe and to be cared for in safe, nurturing, stable and secure care environments.

7Trauma-informed care

A child in out-of-home care or the subject of an adoption arrangement may have experienced abuse or neglect and require the support of caregivers and staff who understand the impact of trauma on psychosocial, psychological and physical development.

8Right to participate(1)

A child has a right to participate in decisions that affect the child’s life.

(2)

Decision-making must take account of the child’s views, preferences, personal goals and aspirations.

9Diversity and inclusion

All decisions about a child must take into account the child’s—

  • (a)

    culture and language, and

  • (b)

    religion and spirituality, and

  • (c)

    gender identity and sexuality, and

  • (d)

    if the child lives with a disability—strengths and needs.

10Role of family, kin and community

Decision-making must be collaborative and support the participation of a child’s family, kin and community.

11Openness in adoption(1)

An adopted child has a right to—

  • (a)

    be given information on the child’s family history, and

  • (b)

    be supported to understand why the child was adopted, and

  • (c)

    experience connections to family and culture.

(2)

The adoptive parents of an adopted child must demonstrate a commitment and capacity to support openness in adoption to meet the child’s lifelong identity needs.

12Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Children and Young Persons Principle

Decisions about the lives of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander children must be made by applying each of the elements of the Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Children and Young Persons Principle referred to in the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, section 12A.

13Principle of active efforts

Decisions about placement or casework must be made with regard to the principle of active efforts referred to in the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, section 9A.

Part 3Practice requirementsDivision 1Preliminary14Compliance with practice requirements(1)

The principal officer of a designated agency must ensure the agency complies with the practice requirements that apply to designated agencies.

(2)

The principal officer of an adoption service provider must ensure the provider complies with the practice requirements that apply to adoption service providers.

(3)

Nothing in this code of practice affects an entity’s obligations under a NSW or Commonwealth privacy law.

15Nature of practice requirements(1)

For the Act, section 8DA(6)(a), the following practice requirements are steps that must be taken to implement the corresponding Child Safe Standards—

  • (a)

    practice requirement 1—Child Safe Standard 1,

  • (b)

    practice requirement 2—Child Safe Standard 2,

  • (c)

    practice requirement 3—Child Safe Standard 3,

  • (d)

    practice requirement 4—Child Safe Standard 4,

  • (e)

    practice requirement 5—Child Safe Standards 5 and 7,

  • (f)

    practice requirement 6—Child Safe Standard 6,

  • (g)

    practice requirement 7—Child Safe Standard 8,

  • (h)

    practice requirement 8—Child Safe Standards 9 and 10.

(2)

For the Act, section 8DA(7), the practice requirements are steps that must be taken to obtain and maintain accreditation under the Act.

16Meaning of “critical event”(1)

In this regulation, a critical event means an incident or circumstances with significant actual or potential impact on the safety, welfare or wellbeing of a child—

  • (a)

    in the care of an entity, or

  • (b)

    to whom an entity has a supervisory responsibility.

(2)

A critical event includes the following—

  • (a)

    the death of, or a serious injury to—

    • (i)

      the child, or

    • (ii)

      an authorised carer of the child,

  • (b)

    the child going missing,

  • (c)

    the child—

    • (i)

      becoming pregnant, or

    • (ii)

      requesting a termination of a pregnancy,

  • (d)

    the child intending to get married,

  • (e)

    the child being exposed to—

    • (i)

      a confirmed or suspected registrable person under the Child Protection (Offenders Registration) Act 2000, section 3A, or

    • (ii)

      a person listed on the Child Protection Register under the Child Protection (Offenders Registration) Act 2000, section 19,

  • (f)

    an allegation that the child has committed a serious criminal offence,

  • (g)

    a planned end-of-life event for the child,

  • (h)

    a reportable allegation or conviction relating to a staff member of the entity,

  • (i)

    a finding by the entity that a person has engaged in conduct set out in the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012, Schedule 1, clause 2,

  • (j)

    a cancellation or suspension of the entity’s accreditation as a designated agency or adoption service provider,

  • (k)

    an event affecting the child that has the potential to—

    • (i)

      become a matter of public interest, or

    • (ii)

      result in a potential loss of public confidence, or

    • (iii)

      result in media attention requiring a media response.

Division 2Practice requirement 1—governance and leadership17Systems, policy and procedure(1)

An entity must clearly document—

  • (a)

    the persons to whom the entity delegates its functions, and

  • (b)

    the decisions of its governing body and the reasons for the decisions.

(2)

An entity must have policies and processes for managing conflicts of interest.

(3)

An entity must have systems, policies and procedures that set out the entity’s commitment to child safety and how the entity will achieve that commitment.

18Principal officer and governing body(1)

An entity must have a transparent recruitment process for the entity’s principal officer and the members of its governing body, including—

  • (a)

    keeping records of recruitment or nomination processes, and

  • (b)

    completing probity and suitability checks.

(2)

An entity’s principal officer and governing body must have, or have access to, expertise in—

  • (a)

    child protection, and

  • (b)

    if the entity provides out-of-home care—out-of-home care, and

  • (c)

    if the entity is an adoption service provider—adoption services.

(3)

An entity’s governing body must understand, and have the skills necessary to fulfil, its roles and responsibilities.

19Staff(1)

An entity’s staff must report information to the entity’s principal officer and governing body about risks to the safety, welfare or wellbeing of children, including the following—

  • (a)

    critical events,

  • (b)

    complaints,

  • (c)

    reportable allegations.

(2)

An entity must ensure staff who work with and care for children have the training, supervision, support and resources necessary to perform their roles.

Division 3Practice requirement 2—supporting participation of children20Application of division

In the application of this division, an entity must have due regard to the age and developmental capacity of a child.

21Information(1)

An entity must—

  • (a)

    give a child a copy of the Charter of Rights prepared under the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, section 162, and

  • (b)

    explain the Charter of Rights to the child in a way the child can understand.

(2)

An entity must give information to a child in a way the child can understand, taking into account the child’s age, capacity and development, to help the child make informed decisions about and, if relevant, give consent to guardianship or adoption.

(3)

An entity must support a child to access information about the child and the child’s family and care history.

(4)

An entity must uphold a child’s right to privacy and confidentiality.

22Decisions involving a child(1)

An entity must support a child to—

  • (a)

    make informed choices about the child’s personal appearance, personal space, name and identity, and

  • (b)

    maintain relationships with siblings and peers in accordance with the child’s wishes and best interests.

(2)

An entity must ensure—

  • (a)

    if possible and appropriate—meetings and discussions about decisions that affect a child’s life occur in a place and at a time that supports the child’s participation, or

  • (b)

    if the child does not attend formal meetings—the child’s views are gathered in other ways.

(3)

If a child can form the child’s own views about the child’s safety, welfare and wellbeing, an entity must ensure—

  • (a)

    the child is given the opportunity to express the child’s views, and

  • (b)

    the entity gives the child’s views due weight.

(4)

An entity must explain decisions to a child in a way the child can understand.

Division 4Practice requirement 3—participation of family and community23Family and community(1)

An entity must take all reasonable steps to locate and gather information about a child’s parents, extended family and community.

(2)

An entity must, if possible and appropriate, support the following persons (relevant persons) to participate in making decisions about a child’s life, including inviting the persons to meetings—

  • (a)

    the child’s parents,

  • (b)

    the child’s extended family,

  • (c)

    members of the child’s community,

  • (d)

    other persons who have a close connection with the child.

(3)

An entity must, if a relevant person does not want to participate in making decisions, ensure the person’s views are gathered in other ways.

(4)

An entity must give a relevant person for a child information about the child’s placement and progress in care—

  • (a)

    to the extent it is safe to do so, and

  • (b)

    having consideration for the child’s wishes, and

  • (c)

    in accordance with the children’s care legislation.

(5)

An entity must, if possible and appropriate—

  • (a)

    give a relevant person information about how to contact the entity, and

  • (b)

    be responsive to the person’s requests and concerns.

(6)

An entity must give the parents and family of a child information about future care options for the child—

  • (a)

    in a way the parents and family can understand, and

  • (b)

    to help the parents and family—

    • (i)

      participate in decision-making processes, and

    • (ii)

      make informed decisions about restoration, guardianship or adoption, and

    • (iii)

      if relevant, give informed consent to adoption.

(7)

An entity must give parents and family information and support to facilitate restoration where relevant and appropriate.

Division 5Practice requirement 4—meeting individual needs of children24Case plans, documentation and record keeping(1)

An entity must ensure a child has a case plan that addresses all the child’s care needs and sets out responsibilities and timeframes for completing casework tasks.

(2)

The entity must review the case plan—

  • (a)

    at least annually, and

  • (b)

    if there is an unplanned placement change or a significant change in the child’s circumstances.

(3)

An entity must maintain accurate, up-to-date information and records about a child, including records of casework and the reasons for casework decisions, including placement decisions.

(4)

An entity must work collaboratively with other persons responsible for providing care and support to a child, the child’s carers and the child’s family, including sharing information relating to the child’s safety, welfare and wellbeing in accordance with the children’s care legislation.

(5)

An entity must ensure the following persons are given information about, and supported to engage in the development and review of, a child’s case plan—

  • (a)

    the child,

  • (b)

    the child’s family,

  • (c)

    persons who are important to the child and to the child’s family,

  • (d)

    the child’s caregivers.

25Health and education(1)

An entity must review a child’s health and educational needs at least annually, as part of the annual case plan review.

(2)

An entity must support a child to—

  • (a)

    attend an appropriate educational institution, and

  • (b)

    access health services.

(3)

An entity must ensure—

  • (a)

    a child’s health and educational needs are addressed as required, and

  • (b)

    recommendations for further assessment, treatment, supports or interventions are followed up.

(4)

An entity must support Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander children to access culturally appropriate health services.

26Social and emotional development, identity and connections to family and culture(1)

An entity must support a child to—

  • (a)

    develop and maintain safe and healthy peer relationships, and

  • (b)

    engage in social and recreational activities, and

  • (c)

    develop and maintain connections with the child’s community, culture, language and spirituality.

(2)

An entity must include a child’s family and persons who are important to the child in decisions about how to support cultural and community connections.

(3)

The entity must support the child’s relationships with the child’s family and persons who are important to the child in accordance with the child’s wishes and best interests.

(4)

An entity must—

  • (a)

    develop restoration, adoption and guardianship plans for a child in consultation with the child’s birth family, and

  • (b)

    ensure an adoption or guardianship plan includes strategies to support ongoing family contact and connections to culture.

(5)

An entity must—

  • (a)

    undertake life story work, and

  • (b)

    record a child’s achievements and important milestones, and

  • (c)

    assist carers to participate in life story work with the child and support family contact if appropriate.

(6)

An entity must gather and keep safe a child’s personal belongings, photos, mementos and important family information.

(7)

In this section—

life story work means assisting a child to understand the child’s personal history, including—

  • (a)

    assisting the child to gather knowledge about the child’s family, heritage, culture, community and history in care, and

  • (b)

    creating a record of the important events in the child’s life.

27Behaviour support(1)

An entity must develop a behaviour support plan for a child if the child has behaviour support needs requiring a planned, consistent response from the child’s caregivers and the entity’s staff, including if—

  • (a)

    the child is prescribed psychotropic medication, or

  • (b)

    practices that restrict the child’s ordinary freedoms are used to support positive behaviour change.

(2)

The behaviour support plan must include strategies to develop the child’s capacity to manage the child’s own emotions and behaviours, with input from—

  • (a)

    the child, and

  • (b)

    the child’s caregivers, and

  • (c)

    the entity’s staff and relevant professionals.

(3)

The entity must review the behaviour support plan—

  • (a)

    at the request of the child, the child’s caregivers or the entity’s staff, and

  • (b)

    if the child’s medication or behaviour changes, and

  • (c)

    as recommended by a relevant professional or, if a relevant professional makes no recommendation, at least annually.

(4)

The entity must—

  • (a)

    provide appropriate training and supervision to persons implementing the behaviour support plan, and

  • (b)

    communicate changes to the behaviour support plan to all persons who work with or care for the child.

(5)

An entity must ensure there are clear protocols about the use of police to respond to challenging or risk-taking behaviour by a child.

(3)

In this section—

associate means the following—

  • (a)

    a spouse or former spouse,

  • (b)

    a de facto partner or former de facto partner,

  • (c)

    a child, grandchild, sibling, parent or grandparent,

  • (d)

    a business partner.

9Notification of change to contact details(1)

An accredited adoption service provider must give the Children’s Guardian and the Secretary written notice of a change to 1 or more of the following—

  • (a)

    the provider’s ABN,

  • (b)

    the provider’s business address,

  • (c)

    the provider’s business name,

  • (d)

    the provider’s email address,

  • (e)

    the provider’s telephone number,

  • (f)

    the provider’s principal officer.

(2)

Notice must be given within 1 business day after the change.

10Notification of change to governance arrangements(1)

An accredited adoption service provider must give the Secretary written notice of a change in—

  • (a)

    the terms of the documents governing the provider’s constitution, or

  • (b)

    the terms of a trust the provider has established in connection with the provision of adoption services, or

  • (c)

    the criteria used to assess the suitability of applicants to adopt a child.

(2)

Notice must be given within 10 business days after the change.

11Assessment criteria for prospective adoptive parents(1)

An accredited adoption service provider must give each prospective adoptive parent a document setting out the criteria used to assess the prospective parent’s suitability as an adoptive parent.

(2)

An accredited adoption service provider that uses assessment criteria that are different from the assessment criteria prescribed for the purposes of the Adoption Act 2000 must—

  • (a)

    give the Secretary written notice of the assessment criteria used, and

  • (b)

    publish the criteria on the provider’s website.

12Cooperation with authorised persons

An accredited adoption service provider must cooperate with an authorised person who enters the provider’s premises to inspect or search the premises under the Act, Schedule 2.

sch 5: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[9].

Schedule 6Code of Practice—child employment

section 58

Part 1GeneralDivision 1Preliminary1Objects

The objects of this Code of Practice are as follows—

  • (a)

    to protect children in employment from exploitation and abuse,

  • (b)

    to prevent inappropriate or unreasonable demands being made of children in employment,

  • (c)

    to ensure a person employing a child in regulated activities takes responsibility for the child’s interactions with adults,

  • (d)

    to ensure children are provided with a safe work environment.

2Definition

In this Code of Practice—

parent’s nominee, in relation to a child, means an adult authorised in writing by a parent of the child to exercise the functions of the parent under this Code.

Division 2Records3Record keeping

A record required to be kept under this Schedule must be kept for at least 6 years and with reasonable safeguards to prevent the following—

  • (a)

    unauthorised access, use, modification or disclosure,

  • (b)

    loss.

4Records to be given to Children’s Guardian(1)

A record required to be kept under this Schedule must, if required by the Children’s Guardian by written notice, be given to the Children’s Guardian along with the additional information relating to the record specified in the notice.

(2)

Records and information must be given to the Children’s Guardian within the time and in the form specified in the notice.

5Records for employed child

The following records must be kept for each employed child—

  • (a)

    the name, address and personal telephone number of the child,

  • (b)

    the name, address and telephone number of 1 or both of the parents of the child,

  • (c)

    the name, address and telephone number of the parent’s nominee,

  • (d)

    the child’s date of birth,

  • (e)

    the nature of the work the child is employed to undertake,

  • (f)

    if employment of the child requires consent under a law—the consent,

  • (g)

    the date, time and place of work for each occasion the child is employed,

  • (h)

    the employer’s authority reference number applying on each occasion the child is employed,

  • (i)

    the name, address and telephone number of the child’s supervisor for each occasion the child is employed.

6Incident register(1)

An incident register must be kept in the form approved by the Children’s Guardian.

(2)

The following incidents must be recorded on the incident register, for each child employed by the employer—

  • (a)

    an accident involving the child,

  • (b)

    an injury to the child,

  • (c)

    an incident subject to a complaint made by the child, the child’s parent or the parent’s nominee,

    Examples—

    complaints relating to the contract of employment, including not being paid for services, and more serious complaints, including allegations of physical abuse or sexual misconduct occurring during the child’s employment

  • (d)

    an incident involving a breach of this Code of Practice, other than this section.

(3)

The record of an incident must include the following—

  • (a)

    the name of the child,

  • (b)

    the time, date and location of the incident,

  • (c)

    the action taken in response to the incident.

(4)

The record of an incident must be made and given to the Children’s Guardian within 72 hours of the employer becoming aware of the incident.

Division 3Insurance and risk management7Notification to Children’s Guardian(1)

A child must not be employed unless the prospective employer has, at least 7 days before the child is employed, given the Children’s Guardian written notice, in the form approved by the Children’s Guardian, of the following—

  • (a)

    the employer’s intention to employ the child,

  • (b)

    the address or location of the proposed place of work,

  • (c)

    the period in which the child will be employed,

  • (d)

    risks associated with the employment of the child, to the extent the risk can reasonably be identified by the employer, including—

    • (i)

      a risk associated with the proposed place of work, and

    • (ii)

      a risk associated with the child’s proposed role or employment schedule,

  • (e)

    the strategies the employer proposes to adopt to minimise identified risks,

  • (f)

    modifications to this Code of Practice sought by the employer.

(2)

The Children’s Guardian may accept a notice under subsection (1) less than 7 days before the child is employed in a particular case or class of cases.

8Insurance(1)

A child must be covered by a policy of personal accident insurance with benefits for injuries no less than the benefits payable for the same injuries under—

  • (a)

    the Workers Compensation Act 1987, or

  • (b)

    the Workplace Injury Management and Workers Compensation Act 1998.

(2)

This section does not apply to a child covered under——

  • (a)

    the Workers Compensation Act 1987, or

  • (b)

    the Workplace Injury Management and Workers Compensation Act 1998.

Division 4General welfare9Punishment prohibited

A child must not be subjected to physical punishment, social isolation, immobilisation or other behaviour likely to humiliate or frighten the child.

10Contact with parents

A child must at all times be able to make contact with a parent, or a parent’s nominee, and the employer must facilitate the making of contact whenever—

  • (a)

    the child requests contact, or

  • (b)

    it is otherwise in the interests of the child.

11Schooling requirements

A child of compulsory school-age under the Education Act 1990 must not be employed in the child’s usual hours of school attendance unless—

  • (a)

    the employment is for a period in which the child is not required to attend school under an approval given by—

    • (i)

      the principal of the school the child attends, or

    • (ii)

      the Secretary of the Department of Education, or

  • (b)

    the child is enrolled at a school to undertake courses of study by distance education, or

  • (c)

    the child is registered for home schooling under the Education Act 1990, Part 7, Division 2 and the employment is permitted by the conditions of registration.

12Food and drink(1)

A child must, at regular intervals, be provided with food that is varied, sufficient, nutritious and appropriate having regard to the age, taste and culture of the child.

(2)

Water and other nutritious drinks must be readily available to the child at all times during the child’s employment.

13Toilet facilities

A child must have access to clean and easily accessible toilet, hand-washing and hand-drying facilities at the place of work where the child is employed.

14Recreation and rest facilities(1)

A child must be given adequate recreation materials and rest facilities during breaks in work.

(2)

The recreation materials and rest facilities must be appropriate for a child of the child’s age and level of maturity.

15Dressing room facilities

A child must be given appropriate dressing room facilities to allow the child to dress and undress in private.

16Protection from the elements

A child must be adequately clothed and otherwise protected from extremes of climate while the child is employed.

17Notification of illness or injury

A parent of a child or a parent’s nominee must be notified immediately if during the child’s employment—

  • (a)

    the child is injured or becomes ill, or

  • (b)

    the child appears to the relevant employer to have become ill, or

  • (c)

    the child reports feeling ill.

18Industrial instruments or agreements

If there is an inconsistency between a provision of this Code of Practice and a provision of an industrial instrument or agreement applying to a child, the provision that is more beneficial to the child prevails.

Note—

The Industrial Relations Act 1996, section 9B(2) provides that a reference in an Act or instrument to an industrial instrument or agreement, however described, includes a reference to a relevant federal industrial instrument or agreement.

19Work directions(1)

Before a child is cast in a role or situation, the employer must—

  • (a)

    fully inform the child and a parent of the child of the nature of the role or situation, and

  • (b)

    take into account comments made by the child or the parent.

(2)

A child must not be cast in a role or situation that is inappropriate for the child, having regard to the child’s age, maturity, emotional or psychological development and sensitivity.

(3)

A child must not—

  • (a)

    be exposed to scenes likely to cause distress to the child, or

  • (b)

    be allowed to become distressed for the purpose of obtaining a more realistic depiction of a particular emotion or reaction.

(4)

A child must not be employed in a situation in which—

  • (a)

    the genitals or anus of the child or another person is exposed, or

  • (b)

    the buttocks or breasts of the child are exposed, or

  • (c)

    the buttocks of another person are exposed, or

  • (d)

    the breasts of another person are exposed, except for the purpose of breastfeeding an infant.

Division 5Supervision and travel20Supervision(1)

When working, a child must be supervised in a way appropriate for the child’s age and level of maturity.

(2)

A child less than 6 years of age must be supervised by 1 of the following—

  • (a)

    the child’s parent or a parent’s nominee,

  • (b)

    an adult who holds an approved child care qualification,

  • (c)

    a registered nurse or a midwife.

(3)

A child who is at least 6 years of age must be supervised by 1 of the following—

  • (a)

    the child’s parent or a parent’s nominee,

  • (b)

    an adult with training and experience in the care of children of the child’s age.

(4)

A supervisor must not at any time supervise more than—

  • (a)

    2 children, if 1 or more of the children are less than 3 years of age, or

  • (b)

    5 children, if no child is less than 3 years of age and 1 or more of the children are at least 3 years of age and less than 6 years of age, or

  • (c)

    10 children, if all of the children are at least 6 years of age.

(5)

A child being supervised must be in the view of the person providing the supervision at all times.

(6)

A supervisor must not have other responsibilities.

(7)

In this section—

approved child care qualification means the following qualifications approved by the Australian Children’s Education and Care Quality Authority—

  • (a)

    an approved certificate III level education and care qualification,

  • (b)

    an approved diploma level education and care qualification,

  • (c)

    an approved early childhood teaching qualification.

Australian Children’s Education and Care Quality Authority means the Australian Children’s Education and Care Quality Authority established by the Children (Education and Care Services) National Law (NSW), section 224.

21Nursing or midwifery supervision

A child less than 3 years of age must not be employed unless—

  • (a)

    a registered nurse or a midwife who is neither the child’s employer nor a parent of the child is present to supervise the child’s employment at all times, and

  • (b)

    the nurse or midwife advises the child’s employer—

    • (i)

      the child is suitable to be employed, and

    • (ii)

      the environment in which the child will work, including the lighting and temperature, will not cause distress or harm to the child, and

  • (c)

    the employer follows the advice of the nurse or midwife in all matters relating to the care of the child, including the use of make-up.

22Babies less than 12 weeks of age(1)

A baby must not be employed unless the employer’s authority expressly authorises the employment of a baby.

(2)

The registered nurse or midwife advising the employer under section 21 must not advise the employer a baby is suitable for employment unless the nurse or midwife is satisfied of the following—

  • (a)

    the baby was delivered full term and in good health,

  • (b)

    the baby’s birth weight was at least 3kg,

  • (c)

    the baby has not had postnatal problems,

  • (d)

    the baby is feeding successfully,

  • (e)

    the baby’s weight gain from birth has been satisfactory.

(3)

A baby must not be exposed to direct lighting during the baby’s employment.

(4)

Make-up must not be applied to a baby during the baby’s employment unless the make-up is non-irritating and uncontaminated.

(5)

A baby must not be handled by more than 4 people, including the baby’s parents and the nurse or midwife required by section 21, during a single period of employment.

(6)

A person who has a respiratory or skin infection must not be allowed to come into contact with a baby during the baby’s employment.

(7)

In this section—

baby means an infant less than 12 weeks of age.

23Travel(1)

A child must be accompanied by a parent of the child or a parent’s nominee when travelling between—

  • (a)

    the child’s home and the child’s place of work, or

  • (b)

    between places of work.

(2)

Subsection (1) does not apply to a child who is at least 13 years of age if—

  • (a)

    the distance travelled is less than 10km, and

  • (b)

    the travel is by public transport, and

  • (c)

    the travel will be completed in daylight hours.

(3)

A child’s journey home must commence within 30 minutes after the child finishes work unless the child is accompanied by a parent of the child or a parent’s nominee.

(4)

If the child’s work requires the child to spend 1 or more nights away from the child’s home, the child and the child’s parent, or a parent’s nominee, must be provided with appropriate accommodation.

Part 2Hours of work24Definition

In this Part—

work includes preparatory activities.

25Calculation(1)

The calculation of a child’s hours of work in a 24-hour period must include the following—

  • (a)

    time, in excess of 90 minutes, spent travelling from the child’s home to the child’s place of work,

  • (b)

    if the child’s employer is responsible for taking the child to the child’s place of work—the time between the child’s arrival at the place of work and the child’s commencement of work,

  • (c)

    the entire time the child is required to be at the place of work, excluding a rest break required by—

    • (i)

      section 26(3), or

    • (ii)

      a prevailing industrial instrument or agreement if the instrument or agreement provides the rest break is not to be counted towards the hours of work,

  • (d)

    time, in excess of 90 minutes, spent travelling from the child’s place of work to the child’s home,

  • (e)

    if the child’s employer is responsible for taking the child to the child’s home from the child’s place of work—the time between the child finishing work and the start of the journey to the child’s home.

(2)

In this section—

employer includes a performer representative.

26Limitations on hours of work(1)

A child must not work for more than—

  • (a)

    1 shift a day, and

  • (b)

    5 consecutive days.

(2)

A child must not work for more than 4 hours on a day the child also receives schooling.

(3)

A child must be given the following rest breaks—

  • (a)

    adequate rest breaks determined by taking into account—

    • (i)

      the age and needs of the child, and

    • (ii)

      the type of work the child is engaged in,

  • (b)

    a 1-hour rest break in each 4-hour period.

(4)

A child must not start work less than 12 hours after previously finishing work, whether with the same or a different employer.

(5)

A child must not work after 9pm if the child is to receive schooling the next day.

(6)

A child must not work and receive schooling for more than 50 hours in a week.

27Hours of work—entertainment or exhibition(1)

This section applies to the employment of a child in the following—

  • (a)

    film, television, radio or shopping centre performances,

  • (b)

    still photography, including the production of images for broadcasting, modelling purposes and other exhibitions.

(2)

A child must not work other than as follows—

Age of child

Maximum days per week

Hours during which child may be employed

Maximum hours per day

Under 6 months

1 day

6am–6pm

4 hours

6 months–under 3 years

2 days

6am–6pm

4 hours

3 years–under 8 years

4 days

6am–11pm

6 hours

8 years–under 16 years

5 days

6am–11pm

8 hours

28Hours of work—live performances(1)

This section applies to the employment of a child in a live performance other than a performance referred to in section 27.

(2)

A child must not work other than as follows—

Age of child

Maximum days per week

Hours during which child may be employed

Maximum hours per day

Under 6 months

1 day

6am–6pm

4 hours

6 months–under 3 years

2 days

6am–6pm

4 hours

3 years–under 6 years

4 days

6am–9pm

4 hours

6 years–under 8 years

4 days

6am–10pm

6 hours

8 years–under 16 years

4 days

6am–11pm

8 hours

sch 6: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[10]; 2025 No 46, Sch 2[3].

Schedule 7Penalty notice offences1Application of Schedule(1)

For the purposes of the Act, section 172—

  • (a)

    each offence created by a provision specified in this Schedule is an offence for which a penalty notice may be issued, and

  • (b)

    the amount payable for the penalty notice is the amount specified opposite the provision.

(2)

If the provision is qualified by words that restrict its operation to limited kinds of offences or to offences committed in limited circumstances, the penalty notice may be issued only for—

  • (a)

    that limited kind of offence, or

  • (b)

    an offence committed in those limited circumstances.

Column 1

Column 2

Provision

Penalty

Offences under the Act

Section 8DA(5)

$550

Section 8V(2)

$275

Section 29(4)

$550

Section 36(1)

$550

Section 36(2)

$550

Section 92(1)–(3)

$5,500

Section 97(2) for breach of the condition in this Regulation, section 58 relating to—

  • (a)

    Schedule 6, sections 3–6, 8, 12–14 and 23

$110

  • (b)

    Schedule 6, sections 7, 9, 10, 15, 19 and 20

$1,100

  • (c)

    Schedule 6, sections 11, 21 and 22

$550

  • (d)

    Schedule 6, sections 16 and 17

$220

  • (e)

    Schedule 6, sections 26–28

$330

Section 97(2) for breach of the condition in this regulation, section 58(4)

$110

Section 97(2) for breach of the condition in this Regulation, section 59

$110

Section 152F(1)—

  • (a)

    for a corporation

$5,500

  • (b)

    otherwise

$1,100

Section 152J(1)—

  • (a)

    for a corporation

$11,000

  • (b)

    otherwise

$2,200

Section 161(1)

$550

Section 169(1)

$550

Section 180(2)

$550

Schedule 2, clause 15(1)

$550

Schedule 2, clause 16(1)

$550

Schedule 2, clause 18

$550

Schedule 2, clause 29(2)

$550

Schedule 2, clause 29(3)

$3,300

Offences under this Regulation

Section 59A for failure to comply with the condition in section 58(2) relating to—

  • (a)

    Schedule 6, sections 3–6, 8, 12–14 and 23

$110

  • (b)

    Schedule 6, sections 7, 9, 10, 15, 19 and 20

$1,100

  • (c)

    Schedule 6, sections 11, 21 and 22

$550

  • (d)

    Schedule 6, sections 16 and 17

$220

  • (e)

    Schedule 6, sections 26–28

$330

Section 59A for failure to comply with the condition in section 58(3)(a) or (b)

$110

Section 59A for failure to comply with the condition in section 58(3)(c)

$330

Section 59A for failure to comply with the condition in section 58(4)

$110

Section 59A for failure to comply with the condition in section 59

$110

sch 7: Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[11]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[10]–[12].

Schedule 8Dictionary

section 3

applicant means a person who has applied to be a residential care worker.

application number, for Schedule 2—see Schedule 2, section 1.

arts student, for Part 7—see section 52.

carers register means the register kept under the Act, section 85(1)(a).

case plan means the plan under the Act, section 8ZA(2).

caseworker means a person who—

  • (a)

    is employed by, or in, the Department to develop or implement case management plans for children, and

  • (b)

    provides statutory out-of-home care or supported out-of-home care only—

    • (i)

      outside the person’s primary duties, and

    • (ii)

      at a place where accommodation is provided on a temporary basis.

centre-based care, for Schedule 4—see Schedule 4, section 1.

commencement day, for Schedule 1—see section 1.

continuing residence approval, for Schedule 2—see Schedule 2, section 1.

critical event, for Schedule 3A—see Schedule 3A, section 1.

current application has the meaning given by the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012.

domestic adoption services, for Schedule 5—see Schedule 5, section 1.

existing worker, for Schedule 1—see section 1.

intercountry adoption services means adoption services provided in connection with the adoption of children who are not Australian citizens and who have been brought into Australia, or are proposed to be brought into Australia—

  • (a)

    to be adopted under the laws of Australia, or

  • (b)

    for an adoption under the laws of a foreign country being recognised under the laws of Australia.

labour hire agency means a person who on a commercial basis provides services for finding work for individuals.

parent’s nominee, for Schedule 6—see Schedule 6, section 2.

performer representative, for Part 7—see section 52.

preparatory activity, for Part 7—see section 52.

register means the residential care workers register that may be kept by the Children’s Guardian under the Act, section 85(1)(b).

relevant authorised carer has the same meaning as in the Act, section 85(1B)(a).

relevant details has the same meaning as in the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012, section 9A(2).

relevant individual, for a residential care provider, means a person about whom the residential care provider has recorded on the residential care workers register that there is relevant information to disclose.

relevant information, about an applicant or residential care worker, means information relating to the safety, welfare or wellbeing of children.

relevant legislation, for Schedule 4—see Schedule 4, section 1.

relevant resident means a person, other than a child in out-of-home care, who resides for more than 21 days on the same property as—

  • (a)

    a relevant authorised carer, or

  • (b)

    a person who has applied to be a relevant authorised carer.

residential setting means—

  • (a)

    a home, managed by a designated agency, or

  • (b)

    a place where accommodation is provided on a temporary basis.

specialised substitute residential care register means the register kept under the Act, section 85(1)(c).

staff, of an entity providing specialised substitute residential care, a designated agency or an adoption service provider (an entity), includes—

  • (a)

    a member of the governing body of the entity, and

  • (b)

    a person engaged, whether or not the person is paid, to provide or assist in providing, or otherwise in connection with the provision of, services by the entity.

the Act means the Children’s Guardian Act 2019.

work, for Schedule 6, Part 2—see Schedule 6, section 24.

working with children check status information, for Schedule 2—see Schedule 2, section 1.

working with children number has the same meaning as in the Child Protection (Working with Children) Act 2012.

sch 8 (previously Sch 2): Renumbered 2022 (480), Sch 1[19]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[13]–[15].

Historical notesTable of amending instruments

Children’s Guardian Regulation 2022 (122). LW 1.4.2022. Date of commencement, Part 2 and Sch 1 excepted, on publication on LW, sec 2(1); date of commencement of Part 2 and Sch 1, 18.7.2022, sec 2(2). This Regulation has been amended as follows—

2022

(379)

Children’s Guardian Amendment Regulation 2022. LW 15.7.2022.

Date of commencement of Sch 1[1], 1.9.2022, sec 2(a); date of commencement, except Sch 1[1], 18.7.2022, sec 2(b).

(480)

Children’s Guardian (Amendment) Regulation (No 2) 2022. LW 26.8.2022.

Date of commencement, 1.9.2022, sec 2.

(731)

Children’s Guardian Amendment (Child Employment) Regulation 2022. LW 2.12.2022.

Date of commencement, on publication on LW, sec 2.

2024

(486)

Children’s Guardian Amendment (Code of Practice) Regulation 2024. LW 20.9.2024.

Date of commencement of Sch 1[1] [6] and [10]–[12], on publication on LW, sec 2(c); date of commencement of Sch 1[2] and [3], 1.7.2025, sec 2(a); date of commencement of Sch 1[4] [5] [7]–[9] and [13]–[15], 1.10.2025, sec 2(b). Amended by Statute Law (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act (No 2) 2024 No 82. Assented to 21.11.2024. Date of commencement of Sch 2.1, assent, sec 2(b).

2025

No 46

Children’s Guardian Amendment Act 2025. Assented to 15.8.2025.

Date of commencement of Sch 2, 1.10.2025, sec 2(a).

Table of amendments

Sec 3

Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[1].

Sec 4

Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[1]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[1].

Sec 6

Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[1].

Sec 9

Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[2]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[2].

Sec 10

Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[3]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[2]–[5].

Sec 11

Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[2].

Sec 12

Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6].

Sec 13

Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[6].

Sec 14

Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[2]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[3] (am 2024 No 82, Sch 2.1).

Sec 14A

Ins 2022 (379), Sch 1[4].

Part 3

Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 3, Div 1

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 15

Subst 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 16

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 3, Div 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 17

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 18

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 4

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 4, Div 1

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 19

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 20

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 21

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 22

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 4, Div 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 23

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 24

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 25

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 26

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 27

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 28

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 4, Div 3

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 29

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 30

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 30A

Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[4].

Part 5

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 5, Div 1

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 31

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 32

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 33

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 5, Div 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 34

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 35

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 36

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 37

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 38

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 5, Div 3

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 39

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 40

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 6

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 6, Div 1

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 41

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 42

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 43

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 6, Div 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 44

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 45

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 46

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 47

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 48

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 49

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 6, Div 3

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 50

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 51

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 51A

Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[5].

Part 7

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 7, Div 1

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 52

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[2].

Sec 53

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 7, Div 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 54

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2025 No 46, Sch 2[1] [2].

Sec 55

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 56

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Subst 2022 (731), Sch 1[3].

Sec 57

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Part 7, Div 3

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 58

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[4]–[6].

Sec 59

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[7] [8].

Sec 59A

Ins 2022 (731), Sch 1[9].

Part 8

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 60

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 61

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 62

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 63

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 64

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[7].

Sec 65

Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[6].

Sch 1

Am 2022 (480), Sch 1[8]–[16].

Sch 2 (as originally made)

Am 2022 (379), Sch 1[5]; 2022 (480), Sch 1[17] [18]. Renumbered as Sch 8, 2022 (480), Sch 1[19].

Sch 2

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20].

Sch 3

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20].

Sch 3A

Ins 2024 (486), Sch 1[7].

Sch 4

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[8].

Sch 5

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[9].

Sch 6

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[10]; 2025 No 46, Sch 2[3].

Sch 7

Ins 2022 (480), Sch 1[20]. Am 2022 (731), Sch 1[11]; 2024 (486), Sch 1[10]–[12].

Sch 8 (previously Sch 2)

Renumbered 2022 (480), Sch 1[19]. Am 2024 (486), Sch 1[13]–[15].

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