Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Regulations 2018 (Cth)
made under the
This is a compilation of the
The notes at the end of this compilation (the
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register ( The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the Register for the compiled law.
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the Register for the compiled law.
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
This instrument is the
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Regulations 20 18 .
This instrument is made under the
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Act 1998 .
Note: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:
(a) controlled apparatus;
(b) controlled facility;
(c) controlled material;
(d) controlled person;
(e) deal with.
In this instrument:
absorbed dose means the energy absorbed per unit mass by matter from ionizing radiation that impinges upon it.Note: See the Planned Exposure Code.
Act means theAustralian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Act 1998 .
action level means an intervention level applied to exposure to radiation.
activity concentration value steps : theactivity concentration value steps for a waste package are the following steps:
(a) first, divide the activity of each nuclide in the waste package by the mass of the waste package;
(b) secondly, divide the result of paragraph (a) for each nuclide by the activity concentration value set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for the nuclide;
(c) thirdly, if there is more than one nuclide in the waste package, total the result of paragraph (b) for each nuclide.
Note: Section 5 affects how the activity of a parent nuclide mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1 (or marked
a in Part 1 of Schedule 1) is worked out, by providing for inclusion of the activity of certain progeny nuclides that are included in secular equilibrium with the parent nuclide.
activity value division steps : theactivity value division steps for sources or controlled materials are the following steps:
(a) first, divide the activity of each nuclide in the sources or controlled materials by the activity value set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1 for the nuclide;
(b) secondly, if there is more than one nuclide in the sources or controlled materials, total the result of paragraph (a) for each nuclide.
Note: Section 5 affects how the activity of a parent nuclide mentioned in Part 2 of Schedule 1 (or marked
a in Part 1 of Schedule 1) is worked out, by providing for inclusion of the activity of certain progeny nuclides that are included in secular equilibrium with the parent nuclide.
appointed member of the Council or a Committee means a member of the Council or Committee other than the CEO.
AS/NZS IEC 60825.1:2014 means the Australian/New Zealand Standard AS/NZS IEC 60825.1:2014Safety of laser products, Part 1: Equipment classification and requirements , published jointly by, or on behalf of, Standards Australia and Standards New Zealand, as existing on 8 December 2018.
AS/NZS IEC 60825.2:2011 means the Australian/New Zealand Standard AS/NZS IEC 60825.2:2011Safety of laser products, Part 2: Safety of optical fibre communication systems (OFCS) , published jointly by, or on behalf of, Standards Australia and Standards New Zealand, as existing on 8 December 2018.
AS/NZS IEC 62471:2011 means the Australian/New Zealand Standard AS/NZS IEC 62471:2011Photobiological safety of lamps and lamp systems , published jointly by, or on behalf of, Standards Australia and Standards New Zealand, as existing on 8 December 2018.
committed effective dose means the effective dose that a person is committed to receive from an intake of radioactive material.Note: See the Planned Exposure Code.
Committee means the Radiation Health Committee or the Nuclear Safety Committee.
Disposal of Radioactive Waste Code means theCode for the Disposal of Radioactive Waste by the User (Radiation Protection Series C‑6) , published by the CEO, as existing on 7 November 2019.Note: The Disposal of Radioactive Waste Code could in 2021 be viewed on ARPANSA’s website ( includes absorbed dose, equivalent dose and effective dose.
Note: See the Planned Exposure Code.
effective dose means a measure of dose that takes into account both the type of radiation involved and the radiological sensitivities of the organs and tissues irradiated.Note: See the Planned Exposure Code.
equivalent dose means a measure of dose in organs and tissues that takes into account the type of radiation involved.Note: See the Planned Exposure Code.
excluded exposure means the component of exposure that arises from natural background radiation, provided that:
(a) any relevant action level or levels for the workplace are not exceeded; and
(b) the CEO does not prohibit the exclusion of that component.
exposure means exposure to radiation.
Group 1 : each controlled apparatus or controlled material described in the following table is inGroup 1 .
Group 1 controlled apparatus and controlled materials
Controlled apparatus or controlled material 1
Sealed source for calibration purposes of activity of 40 MBq or less
2
Sealed source in a fully enclosed analytical device
3
Sealed source with activity of 400 MBq or less in a fixed gauge
4
Sealed source in a blood irradiator
5
Sealed source in a bone densitometer
6
Sealed source that:
(a) is in storage and awaiting disposal; and
(b) has a nuclide with a maximum activity of not more than 10
9 times the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 17
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides of one kind only with a maximum activity not more than 10
2 times the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 18
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides such that, when the maximum activity of each nuclide in the source, or sources, is divided by the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1, the total of the results for all nuclides in the source, or sources, is not more than 10
2 9
Mammographic X‑ray unit
10
Conventional dental X‑ray unit
11
X‑ray unit used for bone densitometry
12
X‑ray unit used for veterinary radiography
13
Fully enclosed X‑ray analysis unit
14
Baggage inspection X‑ray unit
15
Mobile or portable medical X‑ray unit
16
Magnetic field non‑destructive testing device
17
Induction heater or induction furnace
18
Industrial radiofrequency heater or welder
19
Radiofrequency plasma tube
20
Microwave or radiofrequency diathermy equipment
21
Industrial microwave or radiofrequency processing system
22
Optical source, other than a laser product, emitting ultraviolet radiation, infra‑red or visible light
23
Laser product with an accessible emission that exceeds the accessible emission limits of a Class 3R laser product, as set out in AS/NZS IEC 60825.1:2014
24
Optical fibre communication system exceeding Hazard Level 3R, as defined by AS/NZS IEC 60825.2:2011
25
Sealed source not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 2 orGroup 3 , dealings with which do not have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed the dose limits mentioned in sections 77 and 7926
Controlled apparatus that produces ionizing radiation and is not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 2 orGroup 3 , dealings with which do not have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed the dose limits mentioned in sections 77 and 7927
Controlled apparatus that produces non‑ionizing radiation and is not mentioned in another item of this table
Group 2 : each controlled apparatus or controlled material described in the following table is inGroup 2 .
Group 2 controlled apparatus and controlled materials
Controlled apparatus or controlled material 1
Sealed source for calibration purposes of activity of more than 40 MBq
2
Sealed source in a partially enclosed analytical device
3
Sealed source of activity of more than 400 MBq in a fixed gauge
4
Sealed source in a mobile gauge
5
Sealed source for medical or veterinary diagnostic nuclear medicine use
6
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides of one kind only with a maximum activity of more than 10
2 , but not more than 104 , times the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 17
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides such that, when the maximum activity of each nuclide in the source, or sources, is divided by the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1, the total of the results for all nuclides in the source, or sources, is more than 10
2 but not more than 104 8
Unsealed sources used for tracer studies in the environment
9
Industrial radiography X‑ray unit
10
Fixed medical X‑ray unit, including a unit used for fluoroscopy, tomography and chiropractic radiography
11
Partially enclosed X‑ray analysis unit
12
Medical therapy simulator
13
CT scanner
14
Sealed source not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 1 orGroup 3 , dealings with which have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed a dose limit mentioned in sections 77 and 79 but unlikely to result in acute effects15
Controlled apparatus that produces ionizing radiation not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 1 orGroup 3 , dealings with which have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed a dose limit mentioned in sections 77 and 79 but unlikely to result in acute effects
Group 3 : each controlled apparatus or controlled material described in the following table is inGroup 3 .
Group 3 controlled apparatus and controlled materials
Controlled apparatus or controlled material 1
Sealed source for industrial radiography
2
Sealed source for medical and veterinary radiotherapy
3
Sealed source in a borehole logger
4
Sealed source not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 1 orGroup 2 , dealings with which have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed a dose limit mentioned in sections 77 and 79 and likely to result in acute effects5
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides of one kind only with a maximum activity of more than 10
4 , but not more than 106 , times the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 16
Unsealed source, or sources, in a laboratory or particular premises, having nuclides such that, when the maximum activity of each nuclide in the source, or sources, is divided by the activity value for that nuclide set out in Part 1 of Schedule 1, the total of the results for all nuclides in the source, or sources, is more than 10
4 but not more than 106 7
Veterinary or medical radiotherapy unit
8
Controlled apparatus that produces ionizing radiation not mentioned in another item of this table or in the definition of
Group 1 orGroup 2 , dealings with which have the potential for accidental exposure likely to exceed a dose limit mentioned in sections 77 and 79 and likely to result in acute effects
GSR Part 3 meansRadiation Protection and Safety of Radiation Sources: International Basic Safety Standards—IAEA Safety Standards Series No. GSR Part 3 , published by the International Atomic Energy Agency, as existing on 1 March 2022.Note: GSR Part 3 could in 2022 be viewed on the International Atomic Energy Agency’s website ( of a licence means the controlled person to whom the licence is issued.
incident means:
(a) any unintended event, including an operating error, equipment failure, initiating event, accident precursor, near miss or other mishap; or
(b) any unauthorised act, whether or not malicious;
the consequences or potential consequences of which are not negligible.
irradiator means a device that contains a controlled material and gives a controlled dose of radiation to any target material.
Licence Charges Regulations means theAustralian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety (Licence Charges) Regulations 2018 .
non‑ionizing radiation exposure limits means any of the following:
(a) the reference levels mentioned in the
ICNIRP Guidelines For Limiting Exposure To Time‑Varying Electric And Magnetic Fields (1 Hz—100 kHz) , published by the International Commission on Non‑Ionizing Radiation Protection, as existing on 8 December 2018;(b) the limiting exposure mentioned in the
Radiation Protection Standard for Limiting Exposure to Radiofrequency Fields—100 kHz to 300 GHz (2021) (Radiation Protection Series S‑1 (Rev. 1)) , published by the CEO, as existing on 1 July 2021;(c) the maximum permissible exposure limits mentioned in AS/NZS IEC 60825.1:2014;
(d) the exposure limits mentioned in AS/NZS IEC 62471:2011;
(e) the exposure limits mentioned in the
Radiation Protection Standard for Occupational Exposure to Ultraviolet Radiation (2006) (Radiation Protection Series No. 12) , published by the CEO, as existing on 8 December 2018;(f) the exposure limits mentioned in the
ICNIRP Guidelines On Limits Of Exposure To Static Magnetic Fields , published by the International Commission on Non‑Ionizing Radiation Protection, as existing on 8 December 2018.Note 1: The documents mentioned in paragraphs (a), (b), (e) and (f) could in 2021 be viewed on, or accessed from, ARPANSA’s website ( 2: For guidance on the exposure limits mentioned in paragraph (d), see the
ICNIRP Guidelines On Limits Of Exposure To Incoherent Visible And Infrared Radiation , published by the International Commission on Non‑Ionizing Radiation Protection. The Guidelines could in 2021 be accessed from ARPANSA’s website ( incident means any of the following:
(a) an incident that exposes a person to a dose of ionizing radiation that exceeds an effective dose limit mentioned in section 77 or an equivalent dose limit mentioned in section 79;
(b) an incident involving a diagnostic or interventional medical procedure resulting in an observable acute radiation effect;
(c) an incident involving exposure to non‑ionizing radiation from controlled apparatus that:
(i) exceeds the non‑ionizing radiation exposure limits; or
(ii) results in noticeable eye or skin damage;
(d) a theft or loss of controlled material or controlled apparatus, other than controlled material or controlled apparatus in Group 1;
(e) an incident involving the release of controlled material if the result of the activity value division steps for the controlled material is greater than 10
4 ;(f) an incident involving transport of a package of controlled material if:
(i) the result of the activity value division steps for the controlled material is greater than 10
4 ; and(ii) the package is damaged in such a way that safety provisions are degraded.
occupational exposure means exposure of a person that:
(a) occurs in the course of the person’s work; and
(b) is not excluded exposure.
Planned Exposure Code means theCode for Radiation Protection in Planned Exposure Situations (2020) , published by the CEO, as existing at the commencement of theAustralian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2021 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2021 .Note: The Planned Exposure Code could in 2021 be viewed on ARPANSA’s website ( exposure means exposure of a person that is none of the following:
(a) occupational exposure of the person;
(b) exposure of the person:
(i) as a patient undergoing medical diagnosis or therapy; or
(ii) as a volunteer in medical research;
(c) exposure, other than occupational exposure, received as a consequence of the person assisting an exposed patient.
sealed source means controlled material permanently contained in a capsule, or closely bound in a solid form, that is strong enough to be leak‑tight for:
(a) the intended use of the controlled material; and
(b) any reasonably foreseeable abnormal events likely to affect the controlled material.
Security Code of Practice means the documentSecurity of Radioactive Sources (2019) , published by the CEO, as existing at the commencement of theAustralian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2021 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2021 .Note: The Security Code of Practice could in 2021 be viewed on ARPANSA’s website ( clearance material: see subsection 65(7).
solid clearance value : see subsection 65(8).
Transport Code means theCode for the Safe Transport of Radioactive Material (2019) , published by the CEO, as existing at the commencement of theAustralian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2021 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2021 .Note: The Transport Code could in 2021 be viewed on ARPANSA’s website ( source means controlled material that is not a sealed source.
waste package means the waste form of controlled material and its container as prepared for handling, transport, storage or disposal.5 Parent nuclides and progeny nuclides included in secular equilibrium
(1) For the purposes of this instrument, in determining the activity of a parent nuclide mentioned in an item of Part 2 of Schedule 1, include the activity of any progeny nuclide mentioned in that item that is included in secular equilibrium with the parent nuclide.
Note: Parent nuclides are also marked
a in Part 1 of Schedule 1.(2) Except for the purposes of determining under subsection (1) the activity of a parent nuclide mentioned in an item of Part 2 of Schedule 1, the activity of a progeny nuclide mentioned in an item of that Part is taken to be nil when included in secular equilibrium with a parent nuclide mentioned in that item.
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply for the purposes of subsections 65(7) to (9).
Note: Subsections 65(7) to (9) deal with the activity concentration of progeny nuclides in relation to solid clearance material by reference to GSR Part 3.
Part 2 CEO’s functions 6 Simplified outline of this Part The CEO’s functions include:
(a) granting permissions and approvals for other regulatory regimes; and
(b) making guidelines about compliance by licence holders and conducting of inspections.
7 CEO’s functions For the purposes of paragraph 15(1)(i) of the Act, the following are functions of the CEO:
(a) to grant permissions to export from Australia high activity radioactive sources under regulation 9AD of the
Customs (Prohibited Exports) Regulations 1958 ;(b) to grant permissions to import into Australia radioactive substances under regulation 4R of the
Customs (Prohibited Imports) Regulations 1956 ;(c) to grant approvals under the Transport Code in the CEO’s capacity as competent authority for the Commonwealth for the purposes of the Transport Code;
(d) to make guidelines about:
(i) how holders of licences will report their compliance with the Act, this instrument and licence conditions; and
(ii) how inspection of controlled facilities, controlled apparatus and controlled materials will be conducted.
Under the Act, controlled apparatus includes apparatus prescribed by regulations that produces harmful non‑ionizing radiation when energised. Division 2 of this Part prescribes apparatus that is controlled apparatus.
Under the Act, controlled facilities are:
(a) nuclear installations, including both radioactive waste storage or disposal facilities with an activity greater than the activity level prescribed by the regulations and facilities for production of radioisotopes with an activity greater than the activity level prescribed by regulations; and
(b) prescribed radiation facilities, which are facilities or installations prescribed by regulations; and
(c) prescribed legacy sites, which are places prescribed by regulations.
Division 3 of this Part prescribes:
(a) activity levels for facilities to be nuclear installations; and
(b) facilities and installations that are prescribed radiation facilities; and
(c) places that are prescribed legacy sites.
Under the Act, controlled persons include persons in Commonwealth places prescribed by regulations. Division 4 of this Part prescribes such places.
(1) For the purpose of paragraph (c) of the definition of
controlled apparatus in section 13 of the Act, an apparatus is prescribed if:
(b) the apparatus produces non‑ionizing radiation that could lead to a person being exposed to radiation levels exceeding the non‑ionizing radiation exposure limits; and
(c) exposure to those levels is readily accessible to persons:
(i) in the course of intended operations or procedures of the apparatus; or
(ii) as a result of a reasonably foreseeable abnormal event involving the apparatus; or
(iii) as a result of a reasonably foreseeable single element failure of the apparatus; or
(iv) without the use of tools or other specialised equipment required to remove protective barriers or access panels; and
(d) the apparatus is not declared under subsection (2).
(2) The CEO may declare, in writing, that particular apparatus is not prescribed by subsection (1).
Note: A decision to refuse to make a declaration is reviewable under section 86.
(3) The CEO must not make a declaration under subsection (2) unless the CEO is satisfied that:
(a) the apparatus does not pose an unacceptable hazard to the health and safety of people or to the environment; or
(b) it would be inappropriate for the apparatus to be a controlled apparatus.
(4) The CEO must publish the declaration on ARPANSA’s website as soon as practicable after making it.
(1) For the purposes of paragraph (c) of the definition of
nuclear installation in section 13 of the Act, this section prescribes the activity level for a radioactive waste storage facility that contains, or is designed to contain, controlled materials.
Level for facility for unsealed sources
(2) If:
(a) the facility contains, or is designed to contain, unsealed sources; and
(b) the result of the activity concentration value steps for a waste package of the unsealed sources is greater than 10
4 ;the level is that at which the result of the activity value division steps for the unsealed sources in the facility is 10
6 .Note: For
activity concentration value steps ,activity value division steps ,unsealed source andwaste package , see section 4.
Level for facility for sealed sources
(3) If the facility contains, or is designed to contain, sealed sources, the level is that at which the result of the activity value division steps for the sealed sources in the facility is 10
10 .Note: For
activity value division steps andsealed source , see section 4.
(1) For the purposes of paragraph (c) of the definition of
nuclear installation in section 13 of the Act, this section prescribes the activity level for a radioactive waste disposal facility if:(a)the facility contains, or is designed to contain, controlled materials; and
(b) the result of the activity concentration value steps for a waste package of the controlled materials is greater than 10
2 .Note: For
activity concentration value steps andwaste package , see section 4.(2) The level for the facility is that at which the result of the activity value division steps for the controlled materials in the facility is 10
8 .Note: For
activity value division steps , see section 4.
(1) For the purposes of paragraph (d) of the definition of
nuclear installation in section 13 of the Act, this section prescribes the activity level for a facility for production of radioisotopes.
Level for facility for unsealed sources
(2) If the facility contains, or is designed to contain, unsealed sources, the level is that at which the result of the activity value division steps for the unsealed sources is 10
6 .Note: For
activity value division steps andunsealed source , see section 4.
Level for facility for sealed sources
(3) If the facility contains, or is designed to contain, sealed sources, the level is that at which the result of the activity value division steps for the sealed sources is 10
10 .Note: For
activity value division steps andsealed source , see section 4.
(1) For the purposes of the definition of
prescribed radiation facility in section 13 of the Act, the following facilities and installations are prescribed:
(a) a particle accelerator that:
(i) has, or is capable of having, a beam energy greater than 1 MeV; or
(ii) can produce neutrons;
(b) an irradiator that contains more than 10
15 Bq of a controlled material;(c) an irradiator that contains more than 10
13 Bq but not more than 1015 Bq of a controlled material and:
(i) does not include shielding as an integral part of its construction; or
(ii) includes as an integral part of its construction shielding that does not prevent a person from being exposed to the source or does not shield a source during the operation of the irradiator;
(d) a facility (other than a nuclear installation) used for the production, processing, use, storage, management or disposal of:
(i) unsealed sources for which the result of the activity value division steps is greater than 10
6 ; or(ii) sealed sources for which the result of the activity value division steps is greater than 10
9 .Note: For
activity value division steps ,sealed source andunsealed source , see section 4.(2) However, the CEO may declare, in writing, that a particular facility is not a prescribed radiation facility. The declaration has effect according to its terms.
Note: A decision to refuse to make a declaration is reviewable under section 86.
(3) The CEO must not make a declaration under subsection (2) unless the CEO is satisfied that:
(a) the facility does not pose an unacceptable hazard to the health and safety of people or to the environment; and
(b) it would be inappropriate for the facility to be a prescribed radiation facility.
(4) The CEO must publish the declaration on ARPANSA’s website as soon as practicable after making it.
(1) For the purposes of the definition of
prescribed legacy site in section 13 of the Act, the place described in subsection (2) is prescribed.(2) The place is that known as the Little Forest Legacy Site, as shown labelled “LFLS” on site plan drawing No. AO SK 127039 revision G dated 1 July 2015, Little Forest Road, Lucas Heights, in the local government area of Sutherland, Parish of Holsworthy, County of Cumberland, erected on part of the land contained in Certificate of Title folio identifier 1/106967.
Note: The Little Forest Legacy Site was previously known as the Little Forest Burial Ground.
(1) For the purposes of the definition of
prescribed Commonwealth place in section 13 of the Act, the place described in subsection (2) is prescribed.(2) The place is that known as Building 64, as shown on site plan drawing No. A3E 111993 dated November 1999, Lucas Heights Science and Research Centre, New Illawarra Road, Lucas Heights, in the local government area of Sutherland, Parish of Eckersley, County of Cumberland, erected on part of the land contained in Certificate of Title folio identifier 1/89876.
The Act establishes the Radiation Health and Safety Advisory Council, the Radiation Health Committee and the Nuclear Safety Committee and specifies their membership, but allows the regulations to provide for matters relating to those bodies, including the following:
(a) the term of appointment of members;
(b) resignation of members;
(c) disclosure of interests by members;
(d) procedural matters.
This Part deals with all those matters.
This Part has effect for the purposes of section 29 of the Act.
Appointed member of the Council
(1) An appointed member of the Council holds office for the period specified in the instrument of appointment. The period must not exceed 3 years.
Chair of the Council
(2) The Chair of the Council holds office for the period specified in the instrument of appointment.
(1) An appointed member of the Council may resign the member’s appointment by giving the Minister a written resignation.
(2) The resignation takes effect on the day it is received by the Minister or, if a later day is specified in the resignation, on that later day.
An appointed member of the Council must give written notice to the Minister of all interests, pecuniary or otherwise, that the member has or acquires and that conflict or could conflict with the proper performance of the member’s functions.
(1) A member of the Councilwho has an interest, pecuniary or otherwise, that conflicts or could conflict with the proper performance of the member’s functions in a matter being considered or about to be considered by the Council must disclose the nature of the interest to a meeting of the Council.
(2) The disclosure must be made as soon as possible after the relevant facts have come to the member’sknowledge.
(3) The disclosure must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
(1) The Minister may terminate the appointment of an appointed member of the Council:
(a) for misbehaviour; or
(b) if the member is unable to perform the duties of the member’s office because of physical or mental incapacity.
(2) The Minister may terminate the appointment of an appointed member of the Council if:
(a) the member:
(i) becomes bankrupt; or
(ii) applies to take the benefit of any law for the relief of bankrupt or insolvent debtors; or
(iii) compounds with the member’s creditors; or
(iv) makes an assignment of the member’s remuneration for the benefit of the member’s creditors; or
(b) the member is absent, except on leave of absence, from 3 consecutive meetings of the Council; or
(c) the member fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with section 20 or 21.
(1) The Minister may grant leave of absence to the Chair of the Council.
(2) The Chair may grant leave of absence to any other member of the Council on the terms and conditions that the Chair determines.
(1) In performing its functions, the Council:
(a) must act according to this instrument; and
(b) must act with as little formality and as quickly as the requirements of this instrument, and a proper consideration of the issues before the Council, allow; and
(c) may obtain information about an issue in any way it considers appropriate.
(2) However, the Council must comply with any directions given, in writing, to the Council by the Minister or the CEO about the Council’s performance of its functions.
(1) The Minister or the CEO may, by written notice to the Council, direct the Council to hold meetings at the times and places, and to deal with matters in the manner, stated in the notice.
(2) If the Minister or the CEO has not given written notice to the Council under subsection (1), the Council may hold the meetings at the times and places, and may deal with matters in the manner, that the Council considers necessary for the performance of its functions.
(3) Subject to this Division, the procedure of a meeting of the Council is as decided by the Council.
(1) The Chair of the Council must preside at all meetings at which the Chair is present.
(2) If the Chair of the Council is not present at a meeting, the other members of the Council present must appoint one of themselves to preside.
At a meeting of the Council, a quorum is constituted by a majority of members of the Council.
(1) A question arising at a meeting of the Council is to be determined by a majority of the votes of the members of the Council present and voting.
(2) The person presiding at a meeting of the Council has a deliberative vote and, if the votes are equal, a casting vote.
(1) The Council must keep minutes of its meetings.
(2) The Council must prepare a report for the CEO on the Council’s activities for each financial year. The Council must give the CEO the report by the first 31 July after the end of the financial year.
Appointed member of a Committee
(1) An appointed member of a Committee holds office for the period specified in the instrument of appointment. The period must not exceed 3 years.
Chair of a Committee
(2) The Chair of a Committee holds office for the period specified in the instrument of appointment.
(1) An appointed member of a Committee may resign the member’s appointment by giving the CEO a written resignation.
(2) The resignation takes effect on the day it is received by the CEO or, if a later day is specified in the resignation, on that later day.
An appointed member of a Committee must give written notice to the CEO of all interests, pecuniary or otherwise, that the member has or acquires and that conflict or could conflict with the proper performance of the member’s functions.
(1) A member of a Committeewho has an interest, pecuniary or otherwise, that conflicts or could conflict with the proper performance of the member’s functions in a matter being considered or about to be considered by the Committee must disclose the nature of the interest to a meeting of the Committee.
(2) The disclosure must be made as soon as possible after the relevant facts have come to the member’sknowledge.
(3) The disclosure must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
(1) The CEO may terminate the appointment of an appointed member of a Committee:
(a) for misbehaviour; or
(b) if the member is unable to perform the duties of the member’s office because of physical or mental incapacity.
(2) The CEO may terminate the appointment of an appointed member of a Committee if:
(a) the member:
(i) becomes bankrupt; or
(ii) applies to take the benefit of any law for the relief of bankrupt or insolvent debtors; or
(iii) compounds with the member’s creditors; or
(iv) makes an assignment of the member’s remuneration for the benefit of the member’s creditors; or
(b) the member is absent, except on leave of absence, from 3 consecutive meetings of the Committee; or
(c) the member fails, without reasonable excuse, to comply with section 32 or 33.
(1) The CEO may grant leave of absence to the Chair of a Committee.
(2) The Chair of a Committee may grant leave of absence to any other member of the Committee on the terms and conditions that the Chair determines.
(1) In performing its functions, a Committee:
(a) must act according to this instrument; and
(b) must act with as little formality and as quickly as the requirements of this instrument, and a proper consideration of the issues before the Committee, allow; and
(c) may obtain information about an issue in any way it considers appropriate.
(2) However, the Committee must comply with any directions given, in writing, to the Committee by the CEO about the Committee’s performance of its functions.
(1) The CEO may, by written notice to the Committee, direct the Committee to hold meetings at the times and places, and to deal with matters in the manner, stated in the notice.
(2) If the CEO has not given written notice to the Committee under subsection (1), the Committee may hold the meetings at the times and places, and may deal with matters in the manner, that the Committee considers necessary for the performance of its functions.
(3) Subject to this instrument, the procedure of a meeting of a Committee is as decided by the Committee.
(1) The Chair of a Committee must preside at all meetings of the Committee at which the Chair is present.
(2) If the Chair of a Committee is not present at a meeting, the other members of the Committee present must appoint one of themselves to preside.
At a meeting of a Committee, a quorum is constituted by a majority of members of the Committee.
(1) A question arising at a meeting of a Committee is to be determined by a majority of the votes of the members of the Committee present and voting.
(2) The person presiding at a meeting of a Committee has a deliberative vote and, if the votes are equal, a casting vote.
(1) A Committee must keep minutes of its meetings.
(2) A Committee must prepare any report that is requested by the CEO.
(3) If a Committee prepares a report on any matter, it must give a copy of the report to the CEO.
This Part provides for:
(a) exemptions from requirements to hold a licence under the Act; and
(b) making and deciding applications for licences; and
(c) fees for applications for licences; and
(d) conditions on licences; and
(e) payment, adjustment and refund of annual charges for licences.
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 30(1)(g) of the Act, a controlled person is exempted in relation to conduct of a kind mentioned in paragraph 30(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e) or (ea) of the Act in relation to a controlled facility if:
(a) the controlled person, the kind of conduct and the controlled facility are specified in a declaration that is made and published under this section; and
(b) the declaration is in effect at the time the conduct is undertaken.
Declaration
(2) The CEO may declare, in writing, that particular current or future conduct of a kind mentioned in paragraph 30(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e) or (ea) of the Act, by a particular controlled person in relation to a particular controlled facility, does not, or will not, pose an unacceptable potential hazard to the health and safety of people or to the environment.
Note: A decision to refuse to make a declaration is reviewable under section 86.
(3) The CEO may also state in the declaration that:
(a) the declaration has effect only if circumstances mentioned in the declaration exist; or
(b) the declaration does not have effect if circumstances mentioned in the declaration exist.
Prerequisites for making declaration
(4) If the CEO proposes to make a declaration under subsection (2), the CEO must, as soon as practicable, publish a notice in a daily newspaper circulating nationally, and on ARPANSA’s website, stating that the CEO proposes to make the declaration.
(5) The notice must include:
(a) either:
(i) a copy of the proposed declaration; or
(ii) a description of the controlled person, the kind of conduct and the controlled facility that are to be the subject of the declaration, and the text of any statements permitted under subsection (3); and
(b) if the proposed declaration relates to a nuclear installation:
(i) an invitation to people and bodies to make submissions about the proposed declaration; and
(ii) information about the period for making submissions and procedures for making submissions.
Publication of declaration
(6) The CEO must publish the declaration on ARPANSA’s website as soon as practicable after making it.
Dealings that are exempt unless declared
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 31(1)(b) of the Act, a dealing that is described in an item of the following table is an exempt dealing unless the dealing is declared under subsection (2) of this section.
1 | The dealing is with a controlled material that has:
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2 | The dealing is mixing 2 or more controlled materials, and either of the following totals is one or less:
|
3 | The dealing:
(b) either:
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4 | The dealing: (a) is with depleted uranium that:
(b) is not with any other controlled material |
5 | The dealing:
(b) is not with any other controlled material |
6 | The dealing:
(b) is not repair or maintenance of the detector |
7 | The dealing is with any of the following items and no other controlled apparatus or controlled material: (b) a television receiver; (c) a visual display terminal; (d) a cathode ray tube; (e) an electron microscope; (f) arc welding equipment;
(p) a klystron;
(r) an optical light source that:
|
8 | The dealing is with a sealed source used for teaching the characteristics and properties of radiation or radiation sources, and the sealed source contains one or more of the following:
|
9 | The dealing is with a geological sample that:
|
10 | The dealing is with a gaseous tritium light device that: (a) is used solely for safety purposes; and (b) includes not greater than 74 GBq of tritium; and no other controlled apparatus or controlled material |
11 | The dealing is with an electron capture detector or similar device used in gas chromatography containing:
and no other controlled apparatus or controlled material |
12 | The dealing is with lighting products that include krypton‑85 and no other controlled apparatus or controlled material |
Exception to exemption for declared risk of non‑trivial dose
(2) The CEO may declare, in writing, that a particular dealing described in the table in subsection (1) is a dealing for which:
(a) under reasonably foreseeable circumstances, the effective dose to an individual is likely to be greater than 10 microsieverts in a year; or
(b) an accident, misuse or exceptional circumstance affecting the dealing is likely to produce an effective dose to an individual greater than 1 mSv in a year.
Note: A decision to make a declaration under this subsection is reviewable under section 86.
Exemption by declaration of dealings not covered by subsection (1)
(3) For the purposes of paragraph 31(1)(b) of the Act, a dealing that is declared under subsection (4) or (5) of this section is an exempt dealing.
Note: A decision to refuse to make a declaration under subsection (4) or (5) is reviewable under section 86.
Declaration of low‑dose dealing
(4) The CEO may declare, in writing, that a particular dealing that is not described in the table in subsection (1) is a dealing for which:
(a) under reasonably foreseeable circumstances, the effective dose to an individual is likely to be not greater than 10 microsieverts in a year; or
(b) an accident, misuse or exceptional circumstance affecting the dealing is not likely to produce an effective dose to an individual greater than 1 mSv in a year.
Declaration of low‑risk dealings
(5) The CEO may declare, in writing, that:
(a) a particular dealing that is not described in an item in the table in subsection (1) is a dealing involving:
(i) a radiological emergency or its after‑effects; or
(ii) the after‑effects of a previous dealing; or
(iii) naturally occurring materials; or
(iv) bulk material with a mass of more than 1,000 kg; and
(b) an assessment of the magnitude of individual doses, the number of people exposed and the likelihood that potential exposure will actually occur justifies the dealing being exempt.
Publication of declarations
(6) The CEO must publish a declaration under subsection (2), (4) or (5) on ARPANSA’s website as soon as practicable after making it.
An application for a facility licence, or source licence, for a Commonwealth entity (except an employee) must be made:
(a) in the name of a Department or the entity; and
(b) by the chief executive of the Department or entity or by a person authorised by the chief executive.
What must be included in application
(1) An application for a facility licence must include the following:
(a) the applicant’s full name, position and business address;
(b) a description of the purpose of the facility to which the licence is to relate;
(c) a detailed description of the facility and the site of the facility;
(d) the applicant’s plans and arrangements for managing the facility to ensure the health and safety of people and the protection of the environment, including the following:
(i) arrangements for the applicant to maintain effective control of the facility;
(ii) the safety management plan for the facility;
(iii) the radiation protection plan for the facility;
(iv) the radioactive waste management plan for the facility;
(v) the security plan for the facility;
(vi) the emergency plan for the facility;
(vii) the environment protection plan for the facility;
(viii) the decommissioning plan for the facility;
(e) for each activity to be authorised by the licence—a safety analysis report that is as complete as possible.
Extra information CEO may ask for
(2) The CEO may ask an applicant for a facility licence to give the CEO either or both of the following:
(a) some or all of the information and documents described (or about a matter described) in an item of the following table relevant to the licence;
(b) other information about the facility concerned that is relevant to deciding whether to issue the licence.
1 | Preparing a site for a controlled facility |
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2 | Constructing a controlled facility |
(c) the construction plan and schedule;
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3 | Having possession or control of a controlled facility |
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4 | Operating a controlled facility |
(d) arrangements for commissioning the facility; (e) arrangements for operating the facility;
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5 | Decommissioning a controlled facility | Schedule for decommissioning the facility |
6 | Abandoning a controlled facility |
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(3) The CEO may ask an applicant for a facility licence authorising dealing with controlled apparatus or controlled material to give the CEO anything described in section 47.
What must be included in application
(1) An application for a source licence must include the following:
(a) the applicant’s full name, position and business address;
(b) a description of the purpose of the dealing to be authorised by the licence;
(c) a description of the purpose of the licence;
(d) the applicant’s plans and arrangements for managing the controlled material or controlled apparatus to ensure the health and safety of people and the protection of the environment, including the following:
(i) arrangements for maintaining effective control of the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(ii) the safety management plan for the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(iii) the radiation protection plan for the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(iv) the radioactive waste management plan for the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(v) the plan for ultimate disposal or transfer of the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(vi) the security plan for the controlled material or controlled apparatus;
(vii) the emergency plan for the controlled material or controlled apparatus.
Extra information CEO may ask for
(2) The CEO may ask an applicant for a source licence to give either or both of the following:
(a) some or all of the information and documents described (or about a matter described) in an item of the following table relevant to the licence;
(b) other information about the application that is relevant to deciding whether to issue the licence.
1 | A dealing with a sealed source |
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2 | A dealing with an unsealed source |
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3 | A dealing with a controlled apparatus that produces ionizing radiation |
(b) the maximum kilovoltage;
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4 | A dealing with a controlled apparatus that produces non‑ionizing radiation |
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(1) This section applies if the CEO receives an application for a facility licence.
(2) As soon as practicable after receiving the application, the CEO must publish a notice in a daily newspaper circulating nationally, and on ARPANSA’s website, stating that the CEO intends to make a decision on the application.
(3) If the application relates to a nuclear installation, the CEO must also include in the notice:
(a) an invitation to people and bodies to make submissions about the application; and
(b) information about:
(i) the period for making submissions; and
(ii) procedures for making submissions.
For the purposes of paragraph 34(b) of the Act, the fee to accompany an application for a licence described in an item of the following table is the fee set out in the item.
1 | Application for a facility licence, except an application covered by item 2 | 11,472 |
2 | Application for a facility licence, if the application relates to a controlled facility that is a particle accelerator described in paragraph 13(1)(a) of this instrument | 12,748 |
3 | Application for a source licence, if the application relates only to controlled apparatus or controlled material in Group 1 | 901 |
4 | Application for a source licence, if the application relates only to controlled apparatus or controlled material in: (a) Group 2; or (b) both Groups 1 and 2 | 2,663 |
5 | Application for a source licence, if the application relates to controlled apparatus or controlled material in: (a) Group 3; or (b) Group 3, and either or both Groups 1 and 2 | 9,966 |
(1) For the purposes of section 54 and paragraph 85(2)(f) of the Act, this section sets out the fee payable for the service provided by the CEO of assessing an application for a facility licence covered by item 1 of the table in section 49.
(2) The fee is the sum of:
(a) $190 for each hour, or part of an hour, spent in assessing the application, less $11,472; and
(b) if, for the purposes of assessing the application, the CEO incurs expenses for services provided by external consultants and suppliers—an amount equal to those expenses.
(3) The fee is payable to the Commonwealth in accordance with one or more notices, in writing, given to the applicant for the licence.
For the purposes of subsection 32(3) of the Act, matters (to be taken into account by the CEO in deciding whether to issue a facility licence) include the following:
(a) whether the application for the licence complies with subsection 46(1) of this instrument;
(b) whether the applicant for the licence has given the information asked for by the CEO;
(c) whether the application, together with the information (if any) given as described in paragraph (b), establishes that the conduct proposed to be authorised by the licence can be carried out without undue risk to the health and safety of people, and to the environment;
(d) whether the applicant has shown that there is a net benefit from carrying out the conduct proposed to be authorised by the licence;
(e) whether the applicant has shown that the magnitude of individual doses, the number of people exposed and the likelihood that exposure will happen are as low as reasonably achievable, having regard to economic and societal factors;
(ea) whether the applicant has shown that the applicant has considered interactions between technical, human and organisational factors in the management of safety;
(f) whether the applicant has shown a capacity for complying with this instrument and the licence conditions that would be imposed under section 35 of the Act;
(g) whether the application has been signed by an office holder of the applicant, a person authorised by an office holder of the applicant or, if the licence is for a Commonwealth entity mentioned in section 45 of this instrument, someone described in paragraph (b) of that section;
(h) if the application is for a facility licence for a nuclear installation—the content of any submissions made by members of the public about the application.
Note: Subsection 32(3) of the Act requires the CEO to take international best practice in relation to radiation protection and nuclear safety into account too.
For the purposes of subsection 33(3) of the Act, matters (to be taken into account by the CEO in deciding whether to issue a source licence to deal with controlled apparatus or controlled material) include the following:
(a) whether the application for the licence complies with subsection 47(1) of this instrument;
(b) whether the applicant for the licence has given the information asked for by the CEO;
(c) whether the application, together with the information (if any) given as described in paragraph (b), establishes that the controlled apparatus or material can be dealt with without undue risk to the health and safety of people, and to the environment;
(d) whether the applicant has shown that there is a net benefit from dealing with the controlled apparatus or material;
(e) whether the applicant has shown that the magnitude of individual doses, the number of people exposed and the likelihood that exposure will happen are as low as reasonably achievable, having regard to economic and societal factors;
(ea) whether the applicant has shown that the applicant has considered interactions between technical, human and organisational factors in the management of safety;
(f) whether the applicant has shown a capacity for complying with this instrument and the licence conditions that would be imposed under section 35 of the Act;
(g) whether the application has been signed by an office holder of the applicant, a person authorised by an office holder of the applicant or, if the licence is for a Commonwealth entity mentioned in section 45 of this instrument, someone described in paragraph (b) of that section.
Note: Subsection 33(3) of the Act requires the CEO to take international best practice in relation to radiation protection and nuclear safety into account too.
This Division has effect for the purposes of paragraph 35(1)(b) of the Act (which provides that a licence is subject to conditions prescribed by regulations).
The holder of a licence must take all reasonably practicable steps to prevent breaches of licence conditions (except the condition prescribed by this section).
(1) The holder of a licence must investigate suspected breaches of licence conditions.
(2) If the holder of a licence identifies a breach, the holder must rectify the breach and any consequences of the breach as soon as reasonably practicable.
(3) If the holder of a licence identifies a breach, the holder must also tell the CEO as soon as reasonably practicable.
(1) The holder of a licence must take all reasonably practicable steps to prevent and minimise human errors and organisational failures involving controlled materials, controlled apparatus or controlled facilities described in the licence.
(2) In doing so, the holder must take into account human and organisational factors.
The holder of a licence must have in place arrangements that demonstrate the licence holder’s preparedness to respond effectively to an emergency involving radiation exposure resulting from controlled materials, controlled apparatus or controlled facilities described in the licence.
The holder of a licence must have in place arrangements to ensure the effective security of controlled materials, controlled apparatus and controlled facilities described in the licence.
Preventing incidents
(1) The holder of a licence must take all reasonably practicable steps to prevent incidents involving controlled materials, controlled apparatus or controlled facilities described in the licence.
Actions if a notifiable incident occurs
(2) If a notifiable incident involving controlled materials, controlled apparatus or controlled facilities described in a licence happens, the holder of the licence must take the actions set out in subsections (3), (4) and (5).
(3) The holder must take all reasonably practicable steps:
(a) to control the notifiable incident; and
(b) to minimise the consequences of the notifiable incident, including injury to any person and damage or harm to the environment; and
(c) to manage the notifiable incident in a way that facilitates investigation and learning.
(4) The holder must:
(a) within 24 hours of the notifiable incident happening, tell the CEO about the notifiable incident; and
(b) give the CEO a written report about the notifiable incident, including the causes of the notifiable incident, within:
(i) 14 days of the notifiable incident happening; or
(ii) if the CEO extends the period—the extended period; and
(c) take the actions mentioned in subsection (5) within:
(i) 6 months of the notifiable incident happening; or
(ii) if the CEO extends the period—the extended period; and
(d) give the CEO a written summary of the outcome of the actions mentioned in subsection (5) within:
(i) 7 months of the notifiable incident happening; or
(ii) if the CEO extends the period—the extended period.
(5) The holder must, for the purposes of preventing a reoccurrence of the notifiable incident, review and update the following plans and arrangements that are relevant to the notifiable incident (including any internal safety approval system that authorised an activity that led tothe notifiable incident):
(a) if the notifiable incident involves a controlled facility—the plans and arrangements described in paragraph 46(1)(d);
(b) if the notifiable incident involves a controlled material or a controlled apparatus—the plans and arrangements described in paragraph 47(1)(d).
(6) The CEO may, in writing, extend or further extend the periods mentioned in subparagraphs (4)(b)(i), (4)(c)(i) and (4)(d)(i).
(7) However, subsections (4) and (5) do not apply to the extent that the licence makes other arrangements for a matter mentioned in the subsections.
Facility licences
(1) The holder of a facility licence must ensure that the following are complied with in relation to activities relating to the controlled facilities to which the licence relates:
(aa) the
Code for Disposal Facilities for Solid Radioactive Waste (Radiation Protection Series C‑3) , published by the CEO, as existing on 7 November 2019;(ab) the Disposal of Radioactive Waste Code;
(a) the Planned Exposure Code;
(b) the Security Code of Practice;
(c) the Transport Code.
Note: The
Code for Disposal Facilities for Solid Radioactive Waste could in 2021 be viewed on ARPANSA’s website ( a facility licence authorises persons to deal with a controlled apparatus or a controlled material, the holder of the licence must ensure that the following are complied with in relation to dealings with the controlled apparatus or controlled material:
(aa) the Disposal of Radioactive Waste Code;
(a) the Planned Exposure Code;
(b) the Security Code of Practice;
(c) the Transport Code.
Source licences
(3) The holder of a source licence must ensure that the following are complied with in relation to dealings with the controlled apparatus or controlled material to which the licence relates:
(aa) the Disposal of Radioactive Waste Code;
(a) the Planned Exposure Code;
(b) the Security Code of Practice;
(c) the Transport Code.
Application of subsections (2) and (3)
(4) Subsections (2) and (3) do not apply in relation to dealings with an apparatus covered by paragraph (c) of the definition of
controlled apparatus in section 13 of the Act.Note: Section 9 of this instrument identifies such apparatus.
(1) The holder of a facility licence must take all reasonably practicable steps to manage the safety of the facility described in the licence, including:
(a) having in place plans and arrangements described in paragraph 46(1)(d); and
(aa) ensuring that such plans and arrangements consider human and organisational factors to reduce human error and organisational failures; and
(b) ensuring that such plans and arrangements are implemented to the extent reasonably practicable; and
(c) having in place safety analysis reports described in paragraph 46(1)(e); and
(d) ensuring that such safety analysis reports consider human and organisational factors to reduce human error and organisational failures.
(2) The holder of a source licence, or a facility licence authorising dealing with a source, must take all reasonably practicable steps to manage the safety of the source, including:
(a) having in place plans and arrangements described in paragraph 47(1)(d); and
(aa) ensuring that such plans and arrangements consider human and organisational factors to reduce human error and organisational failures; and
(b) ensuring that such plans and arrangements are implemented to the extent reasonably practicable.
(1) The holder of a licence must, at least once every 3 years, review and update the plans and arrangements, and safety analysis reports, mentioned in section 60 in relation to the licence.
(2) The holder of a licence must keep records of any changes made to the plans and arrangements and safety analysis reports.
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to the extent that the licence makes other arrangements for a matter mentioned in that subsection.
(4) In working out when plans and arrangements have been reviewed and updated for the purposes of subsection (1), disregard any reviews and updates done for the purposes of subsection 58(5).
Note: Subsection 58(5) requires the holder of a licence to review and update plans and arrangements (including internal safety approval systems) relevant to a notifiable incident for the purposes of preventing a reoccurrence of the notifiable incident.
(1) The holder of a licence must keep an accurate inventory of the controlled apparatus and controlled materials that the holder deals with.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the extent that the licence makes other arrangements for keeping an inventory of the controlled apparatus and controlled materials that the holder of the licence deals with.
Before doing either of the following, the holder of a licence must obtain the CEO’s approval to do it if it will have significant implications for safety:
(a) changing anything described in the application for the licence;
(b) modifying the controlled apparatus, controlled material or controlled facility described in the licence.
(1) The holder of a licence must, within 3 months after doing a thing mentioned in paragraph 63(a) or (b) that is unlikely to have significant implications for safety, tell the CEO about the thing.
(2) However, subsection (1) does not apply to the extent that the licence makes other arrangements for a matter mentioned in that subsection.
Disposal of controlled apparatus and controlled materials
(1) The holder of a licence must not dispose of controlled apparatus or controlled materials unless the licence holder:
(a) has approval from the CEO to dispose of the controlled apparatus and controlled material; or
(b) transfers the controlled apparatus or controlled material to another licence holder in accordance with subsection (2); or
(c) returns the controlled apparatus to the supplier of the controlled apparatus in accordance with paragraph (3A)(a); or
(d) disposes of the controlled apparatus, by rendering the controlled apparatus permanently inoperable as a controlled apparatus, in accordance with paragraph (3A)(b).
(2) The holder of a licence may, without the approval of the CEO, dispose of controlled apparatus or controlled materials described in the licence by way of transfer to another person (the
transferee ) if the disposal is not covered by subsection (3A) and both of the following apply:
(a) the transferee is the holder of a facility licence or a source licence;
(b) the transferee’s licence authorises the transferee to deal with the controlled apparatus or controlled materials.
(3) If the holder of a licence (the
transferor ) transfers controlled apparatus or controlled materials described in the licence to another person (thetransferee ) under subsection (2), the transferor must, within 7 days of the transfer, tell the CEO:
(a) that the transfer has happened; and
(b) the name of the transferee; and
(c) the number of the licence held by the transferee; and
(d) the location of the controlled apparatus or controlled materials after the transfer.
(3A) The holder of a licence may, without the approval of the CEO, dispose of Group 1 controlled apparatus that is described in the licence and that does not contain controlled material:
(a) by returning the controlled apparatus to the person that supplied the controlled apparatus to the holder of the licence; or
(b) by rendering the controlled apparatus permanently inoperable as a controlled apparatus.
Disposal of controlled facilities
(4) The holder of a licence must not dispose of a controlled facility described in the licence without the CEO’s approval.
Exceptions
(5) Subsection (1), (2), (3), (3A) or (4) does not apply to the extent that the licence makes other arrangements for a matter mentioned in that subsection.
(6) Subsections (1), (2) and (3) do not apply in relation to controlled material that is solid clearance material.
Solid clearance material
(7) Controlled material is
solid clearance material if:
(a) the material is in solid form; and
(b) the total of the results of dividing the activity concentration of each nuclide of artificial origin in the material by the solid clearance value for the nuclide is not greater than one; and
(c) the activity concentration of each nuclide of natural origin in the material is not greater than the level for the nuclide set out in in Table I.3 in Schedule I to GSR Part 3.
(8) The
solid clearance value , for a nuclide in controlled material, is:
(a) if the weight of the controlled material exceeds 1 tonne and Table I.2 in Schedule I to GSR Part 3 sets out an activity concentration level for the nuclide—that activity concentration level; or
(b) otherwise—the activity concentration level for the nuclide set out in Table I.1 in Schedule I to GSR Part 3.
(9) For the purposes of dividing the activity concentration of a nuclide by the solid clearance value for the nuclide in accordance with paragraph (7)(b), the activity concentration of the nuclide is taken to be nil if:
(a) all of the following apply:
(i) the solid clearance value is an activity concentration level set out in Table I.2 in Schedule I to GSR Part 3;
(ii) the nuclide is a progeny nuclide mentioned in note a to that table;
(iii) the nuclide is included in secular equilibrium with the corresponding parent nuclide mentioned in that note; or
(b) all of the following apply:
(i) the solid clearance value is an activity concentration level set out in Table I.1 in Schedule I to GSR Part 3;
(ii) the nuclide is a progeny nuclide mentioned in note b to that table;
(iii) the nuclide is included in secular equilibrium with the corresponding parent nuclide mentioned in that note.
The holder of a licence, or a person covered by a licence, must not construct an item that is important for safety, and that is identified in a safety analysis report, as part of the construction of a controlled facility, unless the CEO has given the holder, or the person, approval to construct the item.
The holder of a licence, or a person covered by a licence, must not load nuclear fuel into a controlled facility described in the licence, as part of the construction of the facility, unless the CEO has given the holder, or the person, approval to load the fuel.
This Division has effect for the purposes of paragraph 85(2)(e) of the Act.
The annual charge for a facility licence or a source licence held during a financial year must be paid on or before the later of:
(a) 31 July in that financial year; and
(b) 30 days after the day the licence was issued.
(1) If a facility licence or source licence is to be held for only part of a financial year, the CEO may decide to make a pro‑rata adjustment of the amount of the annual charge for the licence for the year.
(2) If the CEO decides to make a pro‑rata adjustment, the amount of the annual charge is:
(1) This section applies to the annual charge for a facility licence or a source licence for a financial year if:
(a) either:
(i) the whole of the annual charge for the licence for the year has been paid; or
(ii) if section 70 applies in relation to the licence—the whole of the annual charge for the licence for the year, as adjusted under that section, has been paid; and
(b) the licence is suspended, cancelled or surrendered before the end of the year.
(2) The CEO may decide to refund to the holder of the licence part of the amount of the annual charge that has been paid for the licence for the year.
(3) If the CEO decides to refund part of the amount of the annual charge, the amount of the refund is:
The holders of licences must ensure that exposure of people to radiation is limited.
Controlled persons must comply with various codes of practice.
For the purposes of paragraph 85(2)(a) of the Act, this Part requires practices and procedures to be followed and measures to be taken by controlled persons in relation to:
(a) activities relating to controlled facilities; and
(b) dealings with controlled apparatus or controlled material.
This Part operates in relation to a controlled person who is the holder of a licence, or a person covered by a licence, only so far as the person can comply with the conditions of the licence without discriminating unlawfully under the
Sex Discrimination Act 1984 and theAge Discrimination Act 2004 .
This Division sets out practices and procedures that must be followed, and measures that must be taken, in relation to dose limits.
By holder of a facility licence
(1) The holder of a facility licence for a controlled facility must ensure that the doses to which a person is exposed, inside or in connection with the facility, do not exceed the effective dose limits mentioned in section 77, and the equivalent dose limits mentioned in section 79.
By holder of licence authorising dealing with controlled apparatus or controlled material
(2) The holder of a source licence, or a facility licence, authorising dealing with controlled apparatus or controlled material must ensure that the doses to which a personis exposed while the source in the apparatus or material is under the holder’s control do not exceed the effective dose limits mentioned in section 77, and the equivalent dose limits mentioned in section 79.
By holders of licences generally
(3) The holder of a licence must ensure that radiation protection and safety of the following relating to the licence are optimised in order to achieve the outcome mentioned in subsection (4):
(a) controlled material;
(b) controlled apparatus (other than apparatus prescribed by section 9 that produce harmful non‑ionizing radiation when energised);
(c) a controlled facility.
(4) For the purposes of subsection (3), the outcome is that the following are as low as reasonably achievable after taking into account economic and societal factors:
(a) the magnitude of individual doses;
(b) the number of people who are exposed;
(c) the likelihood of incurring exposures to radiation.
(5) The optimisation of radiation protection and safety mentioned in subsection (3) must be in accordance with source‑related dose constraints established in accordance with the Planned Exposure Code and agreed by the CEO with the holder of the licence.
(6) The holder of a licence that authorises dealing with apparatus prescribed by this instrument that produce harmful non‑ionizing radiation when energised must ensure that exposure of people to such radiation produced by the apparatus is kept to the lowest level that can be achieved, consistent with best practice.
Limit for occupational exposure of persons who are at least 18
(1) The limit on effective dose for occupational exposure of a person who is at least 18 is 20 mSv annually, averaged over 5 consecutive years.
(2) However, the effective dose for a person who is at least 18 subject to occupational exposure must not, in a year, be greater than 50 mSv.
1 x 10 | 1 x 10 | ||
94 | Ge‑69 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
95 | Ge‑71 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
96 | Ge‑75 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
97 | Ge‑77 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
98 | Ge‑78 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
99 | As‑69 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
100 | As‑70 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
101 | As‑71 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
102 | As‑72 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
103 | As‑73 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
104 | As‑74 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
105 | As‑76 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
106 | As‑77 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
107 | As‑78 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
108 | Se‑70 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
109 | Se‑73 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
110 | Se‑73m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
111 | Se‑75 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
112 | Se‑79 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
113 | Se‑81 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
114 | Se‑81m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
115 | Se‑83 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
116 | Br‑74 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
117 | Br‑74m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
118 | Br‑75 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
119 | Br‑76 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
120 | Br‑77 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
121 | Br‑80 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
122 | Br‑80m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
123 | Br‑82 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
124 | Br‑83 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
125 | Br‑84 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
126 | Kr‑74 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
127 | Kr‑76 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
128 | Kr‑77 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
129 | Kr‑79 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
130 | Kr‑81 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
131 | Kr‑81m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
132 | Kr‑83m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
133 | Kr‑85 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
134 | Kr‑85m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
135 | Kr‑87 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
136 | Kr‑88 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
137 | Rb‑79 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
138 | Rb‑81 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
139 | Rb‑81m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
140 | Rb‑82m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
141 | Rb‑83 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
142 | Rb‑84 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
143 | Rb‑86 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
144 | Rb‑87 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
145 | Rb‑88 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
146 | Rb‑89 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
147 | Sr‑80 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
148 | Sr‑81 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
149 | Sr‑82 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
150 | Sr‑83 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
151 | Sr‑85 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
152 | Sr‑85m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
153 | Sr‑87m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
154 | Sr‑89 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
155 | Sr‑90 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
156 | Sr‑91 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
157 | Sr‑92 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
158 | Y‑86 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
159 | Y‑86m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
160 | Y‑87 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
161 | Y‑88 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
162 | Y‑90 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
163 | Y‑90m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
164 | Y‑91 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
165 | Y‑91m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
166 | Y‑92 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
167 | Y‑93 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
168 | Y‑94 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
169 | Y‑95 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
170 | Zr‑86 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
171 | Zr‑88 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
172 | Zr‑89 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
173 | Zr‑93 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
174 | Zr‑95 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
175 | Zr‑97 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
176 | Nb‑88 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
177 | Nb‑89 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
178 | Nb‑89m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
179 | Nb‑90 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
180 | Nb‑93m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
181 | Nb‑94 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
182 | Nb‑95 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
183 | Nb‑95m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
184 | Nb‑96 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
185 | Nb‑97 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
186 | Nb‑98 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
187 | Mo‑90 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
188 | Mo‑93 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
189 | Mo‑93m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
190 | Mo‑99 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
191 | Mo‑101 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
192 | Tc‑93 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
193 | Tc‑93m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
194 | Tc‑94 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
195 | Tc‑94m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
196 | Tc‑95 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
197 | Tc‑95m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
198 | Tc‑96 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
199 | Tc‑96m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
200 | Tc‑97 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
201 | Tc‑97m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
202 | Tc‑98 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
203 | Tc‑99 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
204 | Tc‑99m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
205 | Tc‑101 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
206 | Tc‑104 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
207 | Ru‑94 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
208 | Ru‑97 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
209 | Ru‑103 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
210 | Ru‑105 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
211 | Ru‑106 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
212 | Rh‑99 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
213 | Rh‑99m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
214 | Rh‑100 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
215 | Rh‑101 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
216 | Rh‑101m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
217 | Rh‑102 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
218 | Rh‑102m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
219 | Rh‑103m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
220 | Rh‑105 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
221 | Rh‑106m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
222 | Rh‑107 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
223 | Pd‑100 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
224 | Pd‑101 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
225 | Pd‑103 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
226 | Pd‑107 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
227 | Pd‑109 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
228 | Ag‑102 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
229 | Ag‑103 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
230 | Ag‑104 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
231 | Ag‑104m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
232 | Ag‑105 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
233 | Ag‑106 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
234 | Ag‑106m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
235 | Ag‑108m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
236 | Ag‑110m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
237 | Ag‑111 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
238 | Ag‑112 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
239 | Ag‑115 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
240 | Cd‑104 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
241 | Cd‑107 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
242 | Cd‑109 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
243 | Cd‑113 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
244 | Cd‑113m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
245 | Cd‑115 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
246 | Cd‑115m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
247 | Cd‑117 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
248 | Cd‑117m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
249 | In‑109 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
250 | In‑110 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
251 | In‑110m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
252 | In‑111 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
253 | In‑112 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
254 | In‑113m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
255 | In‑114 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
256 | In‑114m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
257 | In‑115 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
258 | In‑115m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
259 | In‑116m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
260 | In‑117 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
261 | In‑117m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
262 | In‑119m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
263 | Sn‑110 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
264 | Sn‑111 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
265 | Sn‑113 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
266 | Sn‑117m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
267 | Sn‑119m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
268 | Sn‑121 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
269 | Sn‑121m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
270 | Sn‑123 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
271 | Sn‑123m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
272 | Sn‑125 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
273 | Sn‑126 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
274 | Sn‑127 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
275 | Sn‑128 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
276 | Sb‑115 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
277 | Sb‑116 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
278 | Sb‑116m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
279 | Sb‑117 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
280 | Sb‑118m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
281 | Sb‑119 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
282 | Sb‑120 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
283 | Sb‑120m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
284 | Sb‑122 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
285 | Sb‑124 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
286 | Sb‑124m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
287 | Sb‑125 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
288 | Sb‑126 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
289 | Sb‑126m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
290 | Sb‑127 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
291 | Sb‑128 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
292 | Sb‑128m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
293 | Sb‑129 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
294 | Sb‑130 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
295 | Sb‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
296 | Te‑116 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
297 | Te‑121 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
298 | Te‑121m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
299 | Te‑123 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
300 | Te‑123m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
301 | Te‑125m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
302 | Te‑127 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
303 | Te‑127m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
304 | Te‑129 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
305 | Te‑129m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
306 | Te‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
307 | Te‑131m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
308 | Te‑132 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
309 | Te‑133 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
310 | Te‑133m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
311 | Te‑134 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
312 | I‑120 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
313 | I‑120m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
314 | I‑121 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
315 | I‑123 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
316 | I‑124 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
317 | I‑125 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
318 | I‑126 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
319 | I‑128 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
320 | I‑129 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
321 | I‑130 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
322 | I‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
323 | I‑132 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
324 | I‑132m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
325 | I‑133 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
326 | I‑134 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
327 | I‑135 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
328 | Xe‑120 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
329 | Xe‑121 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
330 | Xe‑122 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
331 | Xe‑123 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
332 | Xe‑125 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
333 | Xe‑127 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
334 | Xe‑129m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
335 | Xe‑131m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
336 | Xe‑133m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
337 | Xe‑133 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
338 | Xe‑135 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
339 | Xe‑135m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
340 | Xe‑138 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
341 | Cs‑125 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
342 | Cs‑127 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
343 | Cs‑129 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
344 | Cs‑130 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
345 | Cs‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
346 | Cs‑132 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
347 | Cs‑134m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
348 | Cs‑134 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
349 | Cs‑135 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
350 | Cs‑135m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
351 | Cs‑136 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
352 | Cs‑137 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
353 | Cs‑138 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
354 | Ba‑126 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
355 | Ba‑128 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
356 | Ba‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
357 | Ba‑131m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
358 | Ba‑133 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
359 | Ba‑133m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
360 | Ba‑135m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
361 | Ba‑137m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
362 | Ba‑139 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
363 | Ba‑140 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
364 | Ba‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
365 | Ba‑142 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
366 | La‑131 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
367 | La‑132 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
368 | La‑135 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
369 | La‑137 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
370 | La‑138 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
371 | La‑140 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
372 | La‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
373 | La‑142 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
374 | La‑143 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
375 | Ce‑134 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
376 | Ce‑135 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
377 | Ce‑137 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
378 | Ce‑137m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
379 | Ce‑139 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
380 | Ce‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
381 | Ce‑143 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
382 | Ce‑144 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
383 | Pr‑136 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
384 | Pr‑137 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
385 | Pr‑138m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
386 | Pr‑139 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
387 | Pr‑142 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
388 | Pr‑142m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
389 | Pr‑143 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
390 | Pr‑144 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
391 | Pr‑145 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
392 | Pr‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
393 | Nd‑136 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
394 | Nd‑138 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
395 | Nd‑139 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
396 | Nd‑139m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
397 | Nd‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
398 | Nd‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
399 | Nd‑149 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
400 | Nd‑151 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
401 | Pm‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
402 | Pm‑143 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
403 | Pm‑144 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
404 | Pm‑145 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
405 | Pm‑146 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
406 | Pm‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
407 | Pm‑148 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
408 | Pm‑148m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
409 | Pm‑149 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
410 | Pm‑150 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
411 | Pm‑151 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
412 | Sm‑141 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
413 | Sm‑141m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
414 | Sm‑142 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
415 | Sm‑145 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
416 | Sm‑146 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
417 | Sm‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
418 | Sm‑151 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
419 | Sm‑153 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
420 | Sm‑155 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
421 | Sm‑156 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
422 | Eu‑145 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
423 | Eu‑146 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
424 | Eu‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
425 | Eu‑148 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
426 | Eu‑149 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
427 | Eu‑150 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
428 | Eu‑150m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
429 | Eu‑152 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
430 | Eu‑152m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
431 | Eu‑154 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
432 | Eu‑155 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
433 | Eu‑156 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
434 | Eu‑157 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
435 | Eu‑158 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
436 | Gd‑145 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
437 | Gd‑146 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
438 | Gd‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
439 | Gd‑148 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
440 | Gd‑149 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
441 | Gd‑151 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
442 | Gd‑152 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
443 | Gd‑153 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
444 | Gd‑159 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
445 | Tb‑147 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
446 | Tb‑149 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
447 | Tb‑150 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
448 | Tb‑151 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
449 | Tb‑153 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
450 | Tb‑154 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
451 | Tb‑155 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
452 | Tb‑156 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
453 | Tb‑156 (24.4 h) | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
454 | Tb‑156m’ (5 h) | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
455 | Tb‑157 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
456 | Tb‑158 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
457 | Tb‑160 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
458 | Tb‑161 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
459 | Dy‑155 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
460 | Dy‑157 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
461 | Dy‑159 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
462 | Dy‑165 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
463 | Dy‑166 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
464 | Ho‑155 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
465 | Ho‑157 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
466 | Ho‑159 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
467 | Ho‑161 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
468 | Ho‑162 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
469 | Ho‑162m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
470 | Ho‑164 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
471 | Ho‑164m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
472 | Ho‑166 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
473 | Ho‑166m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
474 | Ho‑167 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
475 | Er‑161 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
476 | Er‑165 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
477 | Er‑169 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
478 | Er‑171 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
479 | Er‑172 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
480 | Tm‑162 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
481 | Tm‑166 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
482 | Tm‑167 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
483 | Tm‑170 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
484 | Tm‑171 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
485 | Tm‑172 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
486 | Tm‑173 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
487 | Tm‑175 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
488 | Yb‑162 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
489 | Yb‑166 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
490 | Yb‑167 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
491 | Yb‑169 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
492 | Yb‑175 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
493 | Yb‑177 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
494 | Yb‑178 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
495 | Lu‑169 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
496 | Lu‑170 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
497 | Lu‑171 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
498 | Lu‑172 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
499 | Lu‑173 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
500 | Lu‑174 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
501 | Lu‑174m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
502 | Lu‑176 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
503 | Lu‑176m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
504 | Lu‑177 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
505 | Lu‑177m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
506 | Lu‑178 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
507 | Lu‑178m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
508 | Lu‑179 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
509 | Hf‑170 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
510 | Hf‑172 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
511 | Hf‑173 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
512 | Hf‑175 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
513 | Hf‑177m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
514 | Hf‑178m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
515 | Hf‑179m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
516 | Hf‑180m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
517 | Hf‑181 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
518 | Hf‑182 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
519 | Hf‑182m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
520 | Hf‑183 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
521 | Hf‑184 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
522 | Ta‑172 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
523 | Ta‑173 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
524 | Ta‑174 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
525 | Ta‑175 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
526 | Ta‑176 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
527 | Ta‑177 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
528 | Ta‑178 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
529 | Ta‑179 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
530 | Ta‑180 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
531 | Ta‑180m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
532 | Ta‑182 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
533 | Ta‑182m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
534 | Ta‑183 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
535 | Ta‑184 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
536 | Ta‑185 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
537 | Ta‑186 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
538 | W‑176 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
539 | W‑177 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
540 | W‑178 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
541 | W‑179 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
542 | W‑181 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
543 | W‑185 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
544 | W‑187 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
545 | W‑188 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
546 | Re‑177 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
547 | Re‑178 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
548 | Re‑181 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
549 | Re‑182 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
550 | Re‑182m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
551 | Re‑184 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
552 | Re‑184m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
553 | Re‑186 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
554 | Re‑186m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
555 | Re‑187 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
556 | Re‑188 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
557 | Re‑188m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
558 | Re‑189 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
559 | Os‑180 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
560 | Os‑181 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
561 | Os‑182 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
562 | Os‑185 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
563 | Os‑189m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
564 | Os‑191 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
565 | Os‑191m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
566 | Os‑193 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
567 | Os‑194 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
568 | Ir‑182 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
569 | Ir‑184 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
570 | Ir‑185 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
571 | Ir‑186 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
572 | Ir‑186m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
573 | Ir‑187 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
574 | Ir‑188 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
575 | Ir‑189 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
576 | Ir‑190 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
577 | Ir‑190m (3.1 h) | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
578 | Ir‑190m’ (1.2 h) | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
579 | Ir‑192 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
580 | Ir‑192m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
581 | Ir‑193m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
582 | Ir‑194 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
583 | Ir‑194m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
584 | Ir‑195 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
585 | Ir‑195m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
586 | Pt‑186 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
587 | Pt‑188 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
588 | Pt‑189 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
589 | Pt‑191 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
590 | Pt‑193 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
591 | Pt‑193m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
592 | Pt‑195m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
593 | Pt‑197 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
594 | Pt‑197m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
595 | Pt‑199 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
596 | Pt‑200 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
597 | Au‑193 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
598 | Au‑194 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
599 | Au‑195 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
600 | Au‑198 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
601 | Au‑198m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
602 | Au‑199 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
603 | Au‑200 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
604 | Au‑200m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
605 | Au‑201 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
606 | Hg‑193 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
607 | Hg‑193m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
608 | Hg‑194 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
609 | Hg‑195 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
610 | Hg‑195m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
611 | Hg‑197 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
612 | Hg‑197m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
613 | Hg‑199m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
614 | Hg‑203 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
615 | Tl‑194 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
616 | Tl‑194m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
617 | Tl‑195 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
618 | Tl‑197 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
619 | Tl‑198 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
620 | Tl‑198m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
621 | Tl‑199 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
622 | Tl‑200 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
623 | Tl‑201 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
624 | Tl‑202 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
625 | Tl‑204 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
626 | Pb‑195m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
627 | Pb‑198 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
628 | Pb‑199 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
629 | Pb‑200 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
630 | Pb‑201 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
631 | Pb‑202 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
632 | Pb‑202m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
633 | Pb‑203 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
634 | Pb‑205 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
635 | Pb‑209 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
636 | Pb‑210 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
637 | Pb‑211 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
638 | Pb‑212 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
639 | Pb‑214 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
640 | Bi‑200 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
641 | Bi‑201 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
642 | Bi‑202 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
643 | Bi‑203 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
644 | Bi‑205 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
645 | Bi‑206 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
646 | Bi‑207 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
647 | Bi‑210 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
648 | Bi‑210m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
649 | Bi‑212 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
650 | Bi‑213 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
651 | Bi‑214 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
652 | Po‑203 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
653 | Po‑205 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
654 | Po‑206 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
655 | Po‑207 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
656 | Po‑208 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
657 | Po‑209 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
658 | Po‑210 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
659 | At‑207 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
660 | At‑211 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
661 | Fr‑222 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
662 | Fr‑223 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
663 | Rn‑220 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
664 | Rn‑222 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
665 | Ra‑223 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
666 | Ra‑224 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
667 | Ra‑225 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
668 | Ra‑226 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
669 | Ra‑227 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
670 | Ra‑228 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
671 | Ac‑224 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
672 | Ac‑225 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
673 | Ac‑226 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
674 | Ac‑227 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
675 | Ac‑228 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
676 | Th‑226 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
677 | Th‑227 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
678 | Th‑228 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
679 | Th‑229 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
680 | Th‑230 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
681 | Th‑231 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
682 | Th‑232 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
683 | Th‑nat | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
684 | Th‑234 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
685 | Pa‑227 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
686 | Pa228 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
687 | Pa‑230 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
688 | Pa‑231 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
689 | Pa‑232 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
690 | Pa‑233 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
691 | Pa‑234 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
692 | U‑230 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
693 | U‑231 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
694 | U‑232 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
695 | U‑233 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
696 | U‑234 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
697 | U‑235 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
698 | U‑236 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
699 | U‑237 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
700 | U‑238 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
701 | U‑nat | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
702 | U‑239 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
703 | U‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
704 | U‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
705 | Np‑232 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
706 | Np‑233 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
707 | Np‑234 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
708 | Np‑235 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
709 | Np‑236 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
710 | Np‑236m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
711 | Np‑237 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
712 | Np‑238 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
713 | Np‑239 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
714 | Np‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
715 | Pu‑234 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
716 | Pu‑235 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
717 | Pu‑236 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
718 | Pu‑237 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
719 | Pu‑238 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
720 | Pu‑239 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
721 | Pu‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
722 | Pu‑241 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
723 | Pu‑242 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
724 | Pu‑243 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
725 | Pu‑244 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
726 | Pu‑245 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
727 | Pu‑246 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
728 | Am‑237 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
729 | Am‑238 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
730 | Am‑239 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
731 | Am‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
732 | Am‑241 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
733 | Am‑242 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
734 | Am‑242m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
735 | Am‑243 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
736 | Am‑244 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
737 | Am‑244m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
738 | Am‑245 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
739 | Am‑246 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
740 | Am‑246m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
741 | Cm‑238 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
742 | Cm‑240 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
743 | Cm‑241 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
744 | Cm‑242 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
745 | Cm‑243 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
746 | Cm‑244 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
747 | Cm‑245 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
748 | Cm‑246 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
749 | Cm‑247 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
750 | Cm‑248 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
751 | Cm‑249 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
752 | Cm‑250 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
753 | Bk‑245 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
754 | Bk‑246 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
755 | Bk‑247 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
756 | Bk‑249 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
757 | Bk‑250 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
758 | Cf‑244 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
759 | Cf‑246 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
760 | Cf‑248 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
761 | Cf‑249 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
762 | Cf‑250 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
763 | Cf‑251 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
764 | Cf‑252 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
765 | Cf‑253 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
766 | Cf‑254 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
767 | Es‑250 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
768 | Es‑251 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
769 | Es‑253 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
770 | Es‑254 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
771 | Es‑254m | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
772 | Fm‑252 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
773 | Fm‑253 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
774 | Fm‑254 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
775 | Fm‑255 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
776 | Fm‑257 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
777 | Md‑257 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
778 | Md‑258 | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
779 | An alpha‑emitting nuclide not mentioned in another item | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
780 | A nuclide that is not alpha‑emitting and not mentioned in another item | 1 x 10 | 1 x 10 |
Note 1: The activity of a progeny nuclide included in secular equilibrium with a parent nuclide is dealt with in section 5. Parent nuclides and progeny nuclides are set out in Part 2 of this Schedule, and parent nuclides are also marked
a in the table in this Part.Note 2: A nuclide marked m or m’ in the table indicates a metastable state of the nuclide, with the metastable state m’ indicating a state of higher energy than the metastable state m.
1 | Ge‑68 | Ga‑68 |
2 | Rb‑83 | Kr‑83m |
3 | Sr‑82 | Rb‑82 |
4 | Sr‑90 | Y‑90 |
5 | Y‑87 | Sr‑87m |
6 | Zr‑93 | Nb‑93m |
7 | Zr‑97 | Nb‑97 |
8 | Ru‑106 | Rh‑106 |
9 | Ag‑108m | Ag‑108 |
10 | Sn‑121m | Sn‑121 (0.776) |
11 | Sn‑126 | Sb‑126m |
12 | Xe‑122 | I‑122 |
13 | Cs‑137 | Ba‑137m |
14 | Ba‑140 | La‑140 |
15 | Ce‑144 | Pr‑144 |
16 | Gd‑146 | Eu‑146 |
17 | Hf‑172 | Lu‑172 |
18 | W‑178 | Ta‑178 |
19 | W‑188 | Re‑188 |
20 | Re‑189 | Os‑189m (0.241) |
21 | Os‑194 | Ir‑194 |
22 | Ir‑189 | Os‑189m |
23 | Pt‑188 | Ir‑188 |
24 | Hg‑194 | Au‑194 |
25 | Hg‑195m | Hg‑195 (0.542) |
26 | Pb‑210 | Bi‑210 Po‑210 |
27 | Pb‑212 | Bi‑212 Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
28 | Bi‑210m | Tl‑206 |
29 | Bi‑212 | Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
30 | Rn‑220 | Po‑216 |
31 | Rn‑222 | Po‑218 Pb‑214 Bi‑214 Po‑214 |
32 | Ra‑223 | Rn‑219 Po‑215 Pb‑211 Bi‑211 Tl‑207 |
33 | Ra‑224 | Rn‑220 Po‑216 Pb‑212 Bi‑212 Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
34 | Ra‑226 | Rn‑222 Po‑218 Pb‑214 Bi‑214 Po‑214 Pb‑210 Bi‑210 Po‑210 |
35 | Ra‑228 | Ac‑228 |
36 | Ac‑225 | Fr‑221 At‑217 Bi‑213 Po‑213 (0.978) Tl‑209 (0.0216) Pb‑209 (0.978) |
37 | Ac‑227 | Fr‑223 (0.0138) |
38 | Th‑226 | Ra‑222 Rn‑218 Po‑214 |
39 | Th‑228 | Ra‑224 Rn‑220 Po‑216 Pb‑212 Bi‑212 Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
40 | Th‑229 | Ra‑225 Ac‑225 Fr‑221 At‑217 Bi‑213 Po‑213 Pb‑209 |
41 | Th‑nat | Ra‑228 Ac‑228 Th‑228 Ra‑224 Rn‑220 Po‑216 Pb‑212 Bi‑212 Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
42 | Th‑234 | Pa‑234m |
43 | U‑230 | Th‑226 Ra‑222 Rn‑218 Po‑214 |
44 | U‑232 | Th‑228 Ra‑224 Rn‑220 Po‑216 Pb‑212 Bi‑212 Tl‑208 (0.36) Po‑212 (0.64) |
45 | U‑235 | Th‑231 |
46 | U‑238 | Th‑234 Pa‑234m |
47 | U‑nat | Th‑234 Pa‑234m U‑234 Th‑230 Ra‑226 Rn‑222 Po‑218 Pb‑214 Bi‑214 Po‑214 Pb‑210 Bi‑210 Po‑210 |
48 | U‑240 | Np‑240m |
49 | Np‑237 | Pa‑233 |
50 | Am‑242m | Am‑242 |
51 | Am‑243 | Np‑239 |
Note 1: The activity of a progeny nuclide included in secular equilibrium with a parent nuclide is dealt with in section 5.
Note 2: Parent nuclides are also marked
a in the table in Part 1.
The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.
The following endnotes are included in every compilation:
Endnote 1—About the endnotes
Endnote 2—Abbreviation key
Endnote 3—Legislation history
Endnote 4—Amendment history
The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.
Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.
The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.
The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.
The
If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.
A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe how an amendment is to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, then the misdescribed amendment can be incorporated through an editorial change made under section 15V of the
If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the amendment is not incorporated and “(md not incorp)” is added to the amendment history.
ad = added or inserted | o = order(s) |
am = amended | Ord = Ordinance |
amdt = amendment | orig = original |
c = clause(s) | par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s) |
C[x] = Compilation No. x | /sub‑subparagraph(s) |
Ch = Chapter(s) | pres = present |
def = definition(s) | prev = previous |
Dict = Dictionary | (prev…) = previously |
disallowed = disallowed by Parliament | Pt = Part(s) |
Div = Division(s) | r = regulation(s)/rule(s) |
ed = editorial change | reloc = relocated |
exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have | renum = renumbered |
effect | rep = repealed |
F = Federal Register of Legislation | rs = repealed and substituted |
gaz = gazette | s = section(s)/subsection(s) |
LA = | Sch = Schedule(s) |
LIA = | Sdiv = Subdivision(s) |
(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given | SLI = Select Legislative Instrument |
effect | SR = Statutory Rules |
(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment | Sub‑Ch = Sub‑Chapter(s) |
cannot be given effect | SubPt = Subpart(s) |
mod = modified/modification | |
No. = Number(s) | commenced or to be commenced |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Regulations 2018 | 7 Dec 2018 (F2018L01694) | 8 Dec 2018 (s 2(1) item 1) | |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment Regulations 2019 | 6 Nov 2019 (F2019L01426) | 7 Nov 2019 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2021 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2021 | 5 Mar 2021 (F2021L00208) | 6 Mar 2021 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2021 Measures No. 2) Regulations 2021 | 2 June 2021 (F2021L00685) | 1 July 2021 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2022 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2022 | 9 Aug 2022 (F2022L01050) | 10 Aug 2022 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2023 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2023 | 14 June 2023 (F2023L00784) | 1 July 2023 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Statute Law Amendment (Prescribed Forms) Regulations 2024 | 15 Mar 2024 (F2024L00294) | Sch 1 (items 5–7): 20 Mar 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2024 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2024 | 7 June 2024 (F2024L00656) | 1 July 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Administrative Review Tribunal Legislation Consequential Amendments (2024 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2024 | 11 Oct 2024 (F2024L01299) | Sch 1 (items 1–3): 14 Oct 2024 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
Australian Radiation Protection and Nuclear Safety Amendment (2025 Measures No. 1) Regulations 2025 | 12 Mar 2025 (F2025L00351) | 1 July 2025 (s 2(1) item 1) | — |
s 2............................................. | rep LA s 48D |
s 4............................................. | am F2019L01426; F2021L00208; F2021L00685; F2022L01050 |
s 5............................................. | am F2022L01050 |
s 9............................................. | am F2021L00208 |
s 44............................................ | am F2019L01426; F2021L00208; F2022L01050 |
s 46............................................ | am F2019L01426 |
Division 4.................................. | rs F2021L00208 |
s 49............................................ | am F2019L01426 |
rs F2021L00208 | |
am F2021L00685; F2022L01050; F2023L00784; F2024L00656; F2025L00351 | |
s 50............................................ | am F2019L01426 |
rs F2021L00208 | |
am F2021L00685; F2022L01050; F2023L00784; F2024L00656; F2025L00351 | |
s 51............................................ | am F2019L01426 |
rep F2021L00208 | |
s 52............................................ | rs F2019L01426 |
rep F2021L00208 | |
s 53............................................ | am F2022L01050 |
s 54............................................ | am F2022L01050 |
s 57A......................................... | ad F2022L01050 |
s 57B......................................... | ad F2023L00784 |
s 57C......................................... | ad F2023L00784 |
s 58............................................ | am F2021L00208; F2022L01050 |
s 59............................................ | am F2019L01426; F2021L00208 |
s 60............................................ | am F2019L01426; F2022L01050 |
s 61............................................ | am F2019L01426; F2021L00208; F2022L01050 |
s 62............................................ | am F2023L00784 |
s 65............................................ | am F2022L01050; F2023L00784 |
s 74............................................ | rs F2019L01426 |
s 77............................................ | am F2019L01426 |
s 81............................................ | am F2021L00208 |
s 82............................................ | am F2024L00294; F2024L01299 |
s 83............................................ | rep F2024L00294 |
s 84............................................ | ed C1 |
am F2023L00784; F2024L00656 | |
s 86............................................ | am F2024L01299 |
Division 2.................................. | ad F2019L01426 |
s 88............................................ | ad F2019L01426 |
s 89............................................ | ad F2019L01426 |
Division 3.................................. | ad F2021L00208 |
s 90............................................ | ad F2021L00208 |
s 91............................................ | ad F2021L00208 |
Division 4.................................. | ad F2022L01050 |
s 92............................................ | ad F2022L01050 |
s 93............................................ | ad F2022L01050 |
s 94............................................ | ad F2022L01050 |
s 95............................................ | ad F2022L01050 |
s 96............................................ | ad F2022L01050 |
Division 5.................................. | ad F2023L00784 |
s 97............................................ | ad F2023L00784 |
s 98............................................ | ad F2023L00784 |
s 99............................................ | ad F2023L00784 |
Division 6.................................. | ad F2024L00656 |
s 100.......................................... | ad F2024L00656 |
Division 7.................................. | ad F2025L00351 |
s 101.......................................... | ad F2025L00351 |
Schedule 2.................................. | rep F2024L00294 |
0
0
0