National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021
PB 27 of 2021
made under sections 85, 85A, 88, 99 and 100 of the
National Health Act 1953
Compilation No. 63
Compilation date: 1 July 2026
Includes amendments: F2026L00801 and F2026L00901
This compilation is in 2 volumes
Volume 1: | Parts 1 to 6 sections 1 to 52 Schedules 1 and 2 Schedule 3 (A to I) |
Volume 2: | Schedule 3 (L to Z) Endnotes |
Each volume has its own contents
About this compilation
This compilation
This is a compilation of the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 July 2026 (the compilation date).
The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.
Uncommenced amendments
The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register (www.legislation.gov.au).
Application, saving and transitional provisions
If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.
Editorial changes
For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.
Presentational changes
The Legislation Act 2003 provides for First Parliamentary Counsel to make presentational changes to a compilation. Presentational changes are applied to give a more consistent look and feel to legislation published on the Register, and enable the user to more easily navigate those documents.
Modifications
If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. Any modifications affecting the law are accessible on the Register.
Self‑repealing provisions
If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.
Contents
Part 1—Preliminary
Division 1—General
1 Name
3 Authority
5 Simplified outline of this instrument
6 Definitions
7 Definition of authorised prescriber
8 Definition of eligible patient
Division 2—Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits from hospitals
9 Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by approved hospital authorities to patients receiving treatment from hospitals
Division 3—HSD hospital authorities
10 HSD hospital authorities
11 References to approved suppliers and approved hospital authorities
12 Numbers allotted to HSD hospital authorities
Part 2—Special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Division 1—Preliminary
13 Definition of special arrangement supply
Division 2—Prescribing of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
15 Prescription circumstances—general (Act s 85(7)(a) and (b))
16 Prescription circumstances—authority required procedures
18 When medication chart prescriptions not to be written
19 Prescriptions not to direct repeated supplies for visitors to Australia
20 Maximum quantity or number of units (Act s 85A(2)(a))
21 Maximum number of repeats (Act s 85A(2)(b))
23 Records to be kept—prescriptions for HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Division 3—Supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits
24 Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
25 Conditions for approved pharmacists
26 Supplies need not be directly to persons
27 Repeated supplies of pharmaceutical benefits
Part 3—Payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Division 1—Supplies by approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
28 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals (Act s 99(4))
29 Dispensed price for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
Division 2—Supplies by other approved suppliers
30 Entitlement to, and amount of, payment for approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners
30A Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
31 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for private hospitals (Act s 99(4))
32 Dispensed price for approved suppliers other than approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
33 Mark‑up for ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefits
34 Dispensing fee
Part 3A—Supply to CTG registered patients by CTG suppliers
34A Application of this Part
34B Application of the CTG Special Arrangement—co‑payment and payment etc.
Part 4—Claims for payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
35 Rules for providing information about supplies—definition of under co‑payment data
35A Claim for payment if an eligible patient is a CTG registered patient
Part 5—Miscellaneous
36 Compliance and audit arrangements
37 Value for safety net purposes for supplies
Part 6—Application, saving and transitional provisions
Division 1—Provisions relating to this instrument as made
38 HSD hospital authorities
Division 2—Provisions relating to the National Health Legislation Amendment (Opioid Dependence Treatment and Maximum Dispensed Quantities) Instrument 2023
39 Purpose of this Division
40 Definitions
41 Definition of special arrangement supply
42 Prescriptions directing supply for dispensing over time
43 Prescriptions directing supply of buprenorphine for injection
44 Prescriptions directing supply of methadone
45 First supply on or after 1 July 2023 deemed to be supply on first presentation
46 Supply on first presentation of prescription (Regulations s 44)
47 Repeat authorisations (Regulations s 52)
48 Prescriptions written in electronic form—additional procedures for giving information (Claims Rules s 7) and keeping documents
49 Information to be given using Claims Transmission System (Claims Rules Sch 1)
50 Pre‑commencement benefits
Division 3—Provisions relating to the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement Amendment (Increases in Maximum Quantity and Number of Repeats for Complex Authority required (CAR) Medicines) Instrument 2026
51 Prescriptions directing increased maximum quantities or numbers of units of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug
52 Prescriptions directing increased maximum number of repeats of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug
Schedule 1—HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information
1 Highly specialised drugs and HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Schedule 2—Maximum quantities and repeats for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
1 Maximum quantity or number of units and maximum number of repeats
Schedule 3—Circumstances and purposes
1 Circumstances and purposes
Part 1—Preliminary
Division 1—General
1 Name
(1) This instrument is the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021.
(2) This instrument may also be cited as PB 27 of 2021.
3 Authority
This instrument is made under sections 85, 85A, 88, 99 and 100 of the National Health Act 1953.
5 Simplified outline of this instrument
This instrument makes a special arrangement for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits that contain highly specialised drugs for the treatment of chronic conditions.
Restrictions apply to the prescribing and supply of these benefits because of their clinical use and other special features.
The prescribing of these benefits is in most cases limited to practitioners who have undertaken particular training or are affiliated with a specialised hospital unit.
The supply of these benefits is restricted to persons who are receiving treatment by medical practitioners and authorised nurse practitioners.
These benefits will be supplied by approved suppliers (public and private hospitals, community pharmacies and certain medical practitioners).
This instrument also deals with payments for supplies of these pharmaceutical benefits.
Note: Part VII of the Act, and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, have effect subject to this instrument (see subsection 100(3) of the Act).
6 Definitions
Note 1: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:
(a) Chief Executive Medicare;
(b) hospital;
(c) public hospital.
Note 2: Under subsection 4(1A) of the Act, a word or phrase defined for the purposes of the Health Insurance Act 1973 has the meaning that it would have if used in that Act. Expressions used in this instrument that are defined in that Act include the following:
(a) eligible person;
(b) medical practitioner;
(c) private hospital;
(d) specialist.
In this instrument:
accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis B means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of hepatitis B in accordance with this instrument.
accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis C means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of hepatitis C in accordance with this instrument.
accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS in accordance with this instrument.
accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of schizophrenia means a medical practitioner approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of schizophrenia in accordance with this instrument.
Act means the National Health Act 1953.
affiliated: a specialist is affiliated with a hospital if the specialist is:
(a) a staff specialist of the hospital; or
(b) a visiting or consulting specialist of the hospital.
approved ex‑manufacturer price of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
approved hospital authority has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act, as affected by section 11 of this instrument.
approved medical practitioner has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
approved pharmacist has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination means the Commonwealth price (Pharmaceutical benefits supplied by approved pharmacists) Determination 2020.
Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) (Conditions for approved pharmacists) Determination 2017.
approved supplier has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act, as affected by section 11 of this instrument.
authorised nurse practitioner has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
authorised prescriber has the meaning given by section 7.
CAR drug (short for Complex Authority Required drug) means any of the following highly specialised drugs:
(a) abatacept;
(b) adalimumab;
(c) ambrisentan;
(d) anifrolumab;
(e) avatrombopag;
(f) azacitidine;
(g) benralizumab;
(h) bosentan;
(i) burosumab;
(j) difelikefalin;
(k) dupilumab;
(l) eculizumab;
(m) eflornithine;
(n) elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor;
(o) eltrombopag;
(p) epoprostenol;
(q) etanercept;
(r) iloprost;
(s) infliximab;
(t) ivacaftor;
(u) lenalidomide;
(v) lumacaftor with ivacaftor;
(w) macitentan;
(x) macitentan with tadalafil;
(y) mepolizumab;
(z) midostaurin;
(aa) nusinersen;
(ab) omalizumab;
(ac) onasemnogene abeparvovec;
(ad) pasireotide;
(ae) patisiran;
(af) pegcetacoplan;
(ag) pegvisomant;
(ah) pomalidomide;
(ai) ravulizumab;
(aj) riociguat;
(ak) risdiplam;
(al) romiplostim;
(am) rozanolixizumab;
(an) selexipag;
(ao) sildenafil;
(ap) tadalafil;
(aq) teduglutide;
(ar) tezacaftor with ivacaftor and ivacaftor;
(as) tezepelumab;
(at) tocilizumab;
(au) ustekinumab;
(av) vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor;
(aw) vedolizumab;
(ax) vutrisiran;
(ay) zilucoplan.
circumstances code means the letter “C” followed by a number.
community access medication means any of the following:
(a) medication for the treatment of hepatitis B;
(b) medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS, other than a pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug:
(i) azithromycin; or
(ii) doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal; or
(iii) rifabutin;
(c) medication for the treatment of opioid dependence;
(d) medication for continuing treatment of schizophrenia;
(e) edaravone;
(f) lanreotide;
(g) octreotide, if:
(i) the description of its form includes “Injection (modified release)”; and
(ii) it is for continuing treatment.
CTG registered patient has the same meaning as in the CTG Special Arrangement.
CTG Special Arrangement means the National Health (Closing the Gap—PBS Co‑payment Program) Special Arrangement 2026.
CTG supplier has the same meaning as in the CTG Special Arrangement.
dangerous drug has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.
dangerous drug fee has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.
day admitted patient: a person is a day admitted patient of a hospital on a day if, on that day, the person:
(a) is admitted to the hospital (other than through the hospital’s emergency department); and
(b) receives treatment; and
(c) is discharged from the hospital;
in accordance with a pre‑existing plan for the person’s treatment.
dispensed price:
(a) for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved hospital authority for a public hospital—has the meaning given by section 29; and
(b) for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier other than an approved hospital authority for a public hospital—has the meaning given by section 32.
EFC patient has the meaning given by subsection 8(7).
eligible patient has the meaning given by section 8.
erythropoietin stimulating agent means any of the following:
(a) darbepoetin alfa;
(b) epoetin alfa;
(c) epoetin lambda;
(d) methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta.
General statement for drugs for the treatment of hepatitis C has the same meaning as in the Listing Instrument.
highly specialised drug means a listed drug mentioned in Schedule 1.
hospital authority has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
HSD hospital authority means a hospital authority for which:
(a) an approval under section 94 of the Act, as modified by section 10 of this instrument, is in force; or
(b) an approval mentioned in section 38 of this instrument is in force.
HSD pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 1.
listed drug has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
Listing Instrument means the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2024 (PB 26 of 2024).
medication chart prescription has the same meaning as in the Regulations.
medication for the treatment of hepatitis B means any of the following:
(a) entecavir;
(b) lamivudine;
(c) tenofovir.
medication for the treatment of hepatitis C means medication mentioned in the table in clause 3 of the General statement for drugs for the treatment of hepatitis C.
medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS means any of the following:
(a) abacavir;
(b) abacavir with lamivudine;
(c) atazanavir with cobicistat;
(d) azithromycin;
(e) bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide;
(f) cabotegravir;
(g) cabotegravir and rilpivirine;
(h) darunavir;
(i) darunavir with cobicistat;
(j) darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide;
(k) dolutegravir;
(l) dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine;
(m) dolutegravir with lamivudine;
(n) dolutegravir with rilpivirine;
(o) doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal;
(p) emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide;
(q) emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide;
(r) etravirine;
(s) ganciclovir;
(t) lamivudine;
(u) lamivudine with zidovudine;
(v) lopinavir with ritonavir;
(w) maraviroc;
(x) nevirapine;
(y) raltegravir;
(z) rifabutin;
(aa) rilpivirine;
(ab) ritonavir;
(ac) tenofovir;
(ad) tenofovir alafenamide with emtricitabine, elvitegravir and cobicistat;
(ae) tenofovir with emtricitabine;
(af) tenofovir with emtricitabine and efavirenz;
(ag) valganciclovir;
(ah) zidovudine.
medication for the treatment of opioid dependence means any of the following:
(a) buprenorphine;
(b) buprenorphine with naloxone;
(c) methadone.
medication for the treatment of schizophrenia means clozapine.
ODT pharmaceutical benefit means an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of opioid dependence.
pack quantity has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
pharmaceutical benefit has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
price to pharmacists has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.
proportional ex‑manufacturer price of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.
purposes code means the letter “P” followed by a number.
Regulations means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefit) Regulations 2017.
residential care service has the same meaning as in the Regulations.
special arrangement supply has the meaning given by sections 13 and 41.
UNAR drug (short for Unrestricted—No Authority Required drug) means any of the following highly specialised drugs:
(a) rituximab.
7 Definition of authorised prescriber
Specialists affiliated with hospitals
(1) A specialist is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital if the specialist is affiliated with the hospital.
Medical practitioners—with the agreement of specialists
(2) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital if all of the following apply:
(a) the benefit is for continuing treatment for the patient;
(b) the patient’s treatment is being managed by a specialist;
(c) it is impractical for the patient to obtain a prescription for the benefit from the specialist;
(d) the specialist has agreed to the prescribing of the benefit for the patient by the medical practitioner.
Medical practitioners—if authorised by Commonwealth and State authorities
(3) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient if all of the following apply:
(a) the HSD pharmaceutical benefit is for continuing treatment for the patient;
(b) the medical practitioner is authorised (however described) by an authority of the Commonwealth for the purposes of this provision;
(c) the medical practitioner is authorised (however described) by an authority of the State or Territory in which the hospital is located for the purposes of this provision.
Medical practitioners—specified medications
(4) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for the following HSD pharmaceutical benefits:
(a) a benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C;
(b) a benefit that has the drug edaravone;
(c) a benefit that has the drug lanreotide;
(d) a benefit that has the drug octreotide, if:
(i) the description of its form includes “Injection (modified release)”; and
(ii) it is for continuing treatment;
(e) a benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent.
Accredited prescribers—HSD pharmaceutical benefits for the treatment of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HIV or AIDS, and schizophrenia
(5) The following table has effect.
Authorised prescribers for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits | ||
Item | Column 1 | Column 2 |
1 | An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis B | a medication for the treatment of hepatitis B. |
2 | An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis C | a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C. |
3 | An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS | a medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS. |
4 | An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of schizophrenia | a medication for the treatment of schizophrenia. |
Authorised nurse practitioners and medical practitioners—ODT pharmaceutical benefits
(6) Each of the following is an authorised prescriber for an ODT pharmaceutical benefit:
(a) an authorised nurse practitioner;
(b) a medical practitioner.
Authorised nurse practitioners—erythropoietin stimulating agents
(6A) An authorised nurse practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient if the pharmaceutical benefit has an erythropoietin stimulating agent.
(7) To avoid doubt, a person is not an authorised prescriber, within the meaning of this instrument, for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit only because the person is authorised in accordance with section 12 of the Listing Instrument to write a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit.
Note: A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit is not a special arrangement supply of the benefit unless the supply was prescribed by an authorised prescriber for the benefit (see section 13 of this instrument).
8 Definition of eligible patient
Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients
(1) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner at or from a public hospital; and
(c) is receiving that treatment as:
(i) a non‑admitted patient of the hospital; or
(ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or
(iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital; and
(d) is not an EFC patient (see subsection (7)) for the benefit.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—medication for the treatment of hepatitis C
(2) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and
(c) is receiving that treatment as:
(i) a non‑admitted patient of the hospital; or
(ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or
(iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.
Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners in public hospitals as admitted patients—HSD pharmaceutical benefits that contain eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome
(3) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner in a public hospital; and
(c) is receiving that treatment as an admitted patient (other than a day admitted patient) of the hospital.
Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners in, at or from private hospitals
(4) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner in, at or from a private hospital; and
(c) is not an EFC patient (see subsection (7)) for the benefit.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—medication for the treatment of hepatitis C
(5) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.
Persons receiving HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have drugs that are community access medications
(6) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:
(a) the benefit has a drug that is a community access medication; and
(b) the person is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person.
EFC patient
(7) A person is an EFC patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a UNAR drug if the benefit is or will be prescribed to the person:
(a) in accordance with the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2024; or
(b) for the purposes of chemotherapy treatment for cancer.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin
(8) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and
(c) is receiving that treatment as:
(i) a non‑admitted patient of the hospital; or
(ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or
(iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin
(9) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—erythropoietin stimulating agents
(10) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and
(c) is receiving that treatment as:
(i) a non‑admitted patient of the hospital; or
(ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or
(iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.
Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—erythropoietin stimulating agents
(11) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent if the person:
(a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.
Division 2—Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits from hospitals
9 Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by approved hospital authorities to patients receiving treatment from hospitals
(1) In this instrument, and in Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a reference to an approved hospital authority supplying pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in or at the hospital of which it is the governing body or proprietor includes a reference to the hospital authority supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment from the hospital.
(2) This section applies in addition to section 94 of the Act.
Division 3—HSD hospital authorities
10 HSD hospital authorities
(1) Section 94 of the Act applies as if that section permitted the Minister to approve a hospital authority for the purpose of its supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from the hospital of which it is the governing body or proprietor if the dispensing of those benefits is performed:
(a) other than at the hospital; and
(b) by or under the direct supervision of a medical practitioner or pharmacist.
(2) Subsection (1) applies despite subsection 94(5) of the Act.
11 References to approved suppliers and approved hospital authorities
In this instrument, and in Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a reference to an approved supplier or an approved hospital authority includes a reference to an HSD hospital authority.
12 Numbers allotted to HSD hospital authorities
For the purposes of Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a number allotted to an HSD hospital authority under either of the following provisions is taken to have been allotted by the Minister under subsection 16(4) of the Regulations:
(a) subsection 52(3) of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program) Special Arrangement 2010 (PB 116 of 2010);
(b) subsection 52(3) of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program for public hospitals) Special Arrangements Instrument 2010 (PB 63 of 2010).
Part 2—Special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Division 1—Preliminary
13 Definition of special arrangement supply
Prescriptions written for public hospital patients
(1) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:
(a) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and
(b) the benefit is supplied by:
(i) for any benefit—an approved hospital authority for a public hospital; or
(ii) for a benefit that has a CAR drug or UNAR drug—an approved pharmacist; and
(c) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:
(i) when the person was receiving medical treatment in, at or from a public hospital; and
(ii) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and
(iii) unless the benefit has a UNAR drug—in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.
Prescriptions written for private hospital patients
(2) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:
(a) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and
(b) the benefit is supplied by:
(i) an approved hospital authority for a private hospital; or
(ii) an approved pharmacist; and
(c) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:
(i) when the person was receiving medical treatment in, at or from a private hospital; and
(ii) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and
(iii) unless the benefit has a UNAR drug—in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.
Community access arrangements
(3) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:
(a) the benefit has a drug that is a community access medication; and
(b) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and
(c) the benefit is supplied by an approved supplier; and
(d) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:
(i) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and
(ii) in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.
Division 2—Prescribing of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
15 Prescription circumstances—general (Act s 85(7)(a) and (b))
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 85(7)(a) of the Act, an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, other than a benefit that has a UNAR drug, is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.
(2) For the purposes of paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act, the circumstances in which a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, other than a benefit that has a UNAR drug, may be written are the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit.
(3) This section applies in addition to section 13 of the Listing Instrument.
16 Prescription circumstances—authority required procedures
(1) This section applies to a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 (if any) in which the prescription is written include:
(a) Compliance with Authority Required procedures; or
(b) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures.
(2) Section 19 of the Listing Instrument applies to the prescription as if:
(a) a reference to Part 1 of Schedule 4 to that instrument were a reference to Schedule 3 to this instrument; and
(b) a reference to an authorised prescriber were a reference to an authorised prescriber within the meaning of this instrument.
18 When medication chart prescriptions not to be written
Persons receiving treatment in residential care services
(2) Subparagraph 41(1)(a)(i) of the Regulations does not apply to a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit.
19 Prescriptions not to direct repeated supplies for visitors to Australia
(1) An authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit must not write a prescription directing a repeated supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person who is a visitor to Australia even if the person is, in accordance with section 7 of the Health Insurance Act 1973, to be treated as an eligible person within the meaning of that Act.
(2) This section applies despite section 85A of the Act.
20 Maximum quantity or number of units (Act s 85A(2)(a))
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act, this section sets out the maximum quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that may, in one prescription for a special arrangement supply of the benefit, be directed by an authorised prescriber to be supplied on any one occasion.
Supply for particular purposes
(2) If:
(a) a purposes code is mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) the supply of the benefit is for purposes mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for the purposes code;
the maximum quantity or number of units is the quantity or number of units is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit and the purposes code.
Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits not in Schedule 2
(3) If:
(a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) a quantity or number of units is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit;
the maximum quantity or number of units is that quantity or number of units.
Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits in Schedule 2
(4) If:
(a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) the words “See Schedule 2” appear in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(c) the prescription is written in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit;
the maximum quantity or number of units is the quantity or number of units that is applicable under Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit and the circumstances code.
Application of this section
(5) To the extent that this section provides for a matter not provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies in addition to the Listing Instrument.
(6) To the extent that this section makes a different provision for a matter provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies despite the Listing Instrument.
21 Maximum number of repeats (Act s 85A(2)(b))
(1) For the purposes of paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act, this section sets out the maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct that a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit be repeated.
Supply for particular purposes
(2) If:
(a) a purposes code is mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) the supply is for purposes mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for the purposes code;
the maximum number is the number mentioned in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit and the purposes code.
Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits not in Schedule 2
(3) If:
(a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) a number is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit;
the maximum number is that number.
Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits in Schedule 2
(4) If:
(a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and
(b) the words “See Schedule 2” appear in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 for the benefit; and
(c) the prescription is written in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit;
the maximum number is the number that is applicable under Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit and the circumstances code.
Application of this section
(5) To the extent that this section provides for a matter not provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies in addition to the Listing Instrument.
(6) To the extent that this section makes a different provision for a matter provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies despite the Listing Instrument.
23 Records to be kept—prescriptions for HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome
(1) If an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome writes a prescription for a special arrangement supply of the benefit, a copy of any clinical records relating to the prescription, including records required to demonstrate that the prescription was written in compliance with the circumstances and purposes determined in relation to the benefit under subsection 85(7) of the Act, must be kept by:
(a) the approved hospital authority for the hospital in, at or from which the eligible patient is receiving treatment; or
(b) if the approved hospital authority is not able to keep the records—the authorised prescriber.
(2) The records must be kept for 2 years after the date the prescription to which the records relate is written.
Division 3—Supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits
24 Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
(1) This section applies to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in the following table.
Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits | ||||||
Item | Drug | Form | Manner of administration | Brand | Pack quantity | Claimed price ($) |
1 | Lamivudine | Tablet 100 mg | Oral | Zeffix | 28 | 28.09 |
2 | Valaciclovir | Tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Valtrex | 100 | 42.70 |
(2) The special patient contribution for a pack quantity of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item mentioned in the table is the amount that is the difference between:
(a) the price that would have been the dispensed price for that quantity of the brand of the pharmaceutical item if that dispensed price had been based on the claimed price (within the meaning of Part VII of the Act) mentioned in the table for that quantity; and
(b) the dispensed price for that quantity of the brand of the pharmaceutical item.
(3) This section applies despite subsection 85B(5) of the Act.
25 Conditions for approved pharmacists
Special arrangement supplies of certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
(1) The Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination does not apply to the dispensing or supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:
(a) the manner of administration of the benefit is injection or extracorporeal circulation; and
(b) the benefit does not have a drug that is a community access medication; and
(c) the supply is a special arrangement supply of the benefit.
ODT pharmaceutical benefits—special arrangement supplies through agents
(2) If a supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit mentioned in subsection 26(2) of this instrument, the Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination applies to the dispensing and supply of the benefit as if paragraph 6(e), subsection 9(1), section 10, paragraphs 14(a) and (b) and section 15 of that Determination were omitted.
ODT pharmaceutical benefits—special arrangement supplies other than through agents
(3) If a supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit other than a special arrangement supply of the benefit mentioned in subsection 26(2) of this instrument, the Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination applies to the dispensing and supply of the benefit as if paragraph (c) of the definition of dispensing step in section 5 of that Determination were omitted.
26 Supplies need not be directly to persons
Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by HSD hospital authorities
(1) An HSD hospital authority may make a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person:
(a) other than directly to the person; or
(b) through an agent.
Supplies of ODT pharmaceutical benefits by approved pharmacists and approved hospital authorities
(2) An approved pharmacist or an approved hospital authority may make a special arrangement supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit to a person through a person or organisation:
(a) that has premises in a State or Territory; and
(b) that is authorised (however described) by an authority of the State or Territory for the purposes of supplying medication for the treatment of opioid dependence.
Application of this section
(3) This section applies in addition to section 94 of the Act.
27 Repeated supplies of pharmaceutical benefits
Section 51 of the Regulations does not apply to a special arrangement supply of HSD pharmaceutical benefits.
Part 3—Payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Division 1—Supplies by approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
28 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals (Act s 99(4))
(1) For the purposes of subsection 99(4) of the Act, the amount payable to an approved hospital authority for a public hospital in respect of a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by the authority is the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the hospital authority was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.
Note 1: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved hospital authorities can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.
Note 2: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.
(2) This section applies despite the National Health (Commonwealth Price—Pharmaceutical Benefits Supplied By Public Hospitals) Determination 2017 (PB 25 of 2017).
Note: See subsection 99(4) of the Act (read with section 9 of this instrument) for the entitlement of an approved hospital authority to payment for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital in respect of which the authority is approved.
29 Dispensed price for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
(1) The dispensed price for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved hospital authority for a public hospital is as follows:
(a) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is equal to a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of the approved ex‑manufacturer price or the proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity;
(b) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is less than a pack quantity of the benefit (a broken quantity)—the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2);
(c) if neither paragraph (a) or (b) applies to the quantity of the benefit supplied—the sum of:
(i) the approved ex‑manufacturer price or the proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and
(ii) the amount calculated in accordance with subsection (2) for the remainder of the quantity that is a broken quantity.
Broken quantities
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b) and subparagraph (1)(c)(ii), the amount for a broken quantity is worked out by:
(a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the pack quantity, expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and
(b) applying that percentage to the approved ex‑manufacturer price or proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for the pack quantity.
Rounding
(3) The dispensed price under subsection (1) is rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).
Division 2—Supplies by other approved suppliers
30 Entitlement to, and amount of, payment for approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners
(1) This section applies if:
(a) an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner has supplied an HSD pharmaceutical benefit; and
(b) the supply is a special arrangement supply of the benefit.
Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.
(2) The approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner is, subject to section 99AAA of the Act and the conditions determined under section 98C of the Act that are applicable at the time of the supply, entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.
Note: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.
(3) This section applies despite subsections 99(2) and (2AA) of the Act.
30A Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:
(a) the manner of administration of the benefit is injection or extracorporeal circulation; and
(b) the benefit is not a community access medication.
31 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for private hospitals (Act s 99(4))
(1) For the purposes of subsection 99(4) of the Act, the amount payable to an approved hospital authority for a private hospital in respect of a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by the authority is the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the authority was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.
Note 1: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved hospital authorities can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.
Note 2: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.
(2) This section applies despite the National Health (Commonwealth Price ‑ Pharmaceutical benefits supplied by private hospitals) Determination 2020 (PB 99 of 2020).
Note: See subsection 99(4) of the Act (read with section 9 of this instrument) for the entitlement of an approved hospital authority to payment for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital in respect of which the authority is approved.
32 Dispensed price for approved suppliers other than approved hospital authorities for public hospitals
(1) The dispensed price for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier other than an approved hospital authority for a public hospital is as follows:
(a) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is equal to a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of:
(i) the approved ex‑manufacturer price or the proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and
(ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale mark‑up for a pack quantity of a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved ex‑manufacturer price or proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and
(ii) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit—the mark‑up mentioned in section 33 for each pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards); and
(iii) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and
(iv) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee;
(b) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is less than a pack quantity of the benefit (a broken quantity)—the sum of:
(i) the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2); and
(ii) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and
(iii) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee;
(c) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is more than a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of:
(i) the approved ex‑manufacturer price or the proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and
(ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale mark‑up for a pack quantity of a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved ex‑manufacturer price or proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and
(ii) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit—the mark‑up mentioned in section 33 for each pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards); and
(iii) the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2) for the remainder of the quantity that is a broken quantity; and
(iv) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and
(v) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee.
Broken quantities
(2) For the purposes of subparagraphs (1)(b)(i) and (c)(iii), the amount for a broken quantity is worked out by:
(a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the pack quantity, expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and
(b) applying that percentage to the sum of:
(i) the approved ex‑manufacturer price or the proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for the pack quantity; and
(ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale mark‑up for a pack quantity of a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved ex‑manufacturer price or proportional ex‑manufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and
(ii) if the benefit is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit—the mark‑up mentioned in section 33 for the pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).
Rounding
(3) The dispensed price under subsection (1) is rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).
33 Mark‑up for ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefits
Approved suppliers other than approved pharmacists
(1) Subsection (2) applies if an approved supplier is not an approved pharmacist.
(2) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(ii), (c)(ii) and (2)(b)(ii), the mark‑up for a pack quantity of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit is:
(a) if the pack quantity of the benefit is equal to the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20—the amount mentioned in the following table for the approved ex‑manufacturer price (AEMP) or proportional ex‑manufacturer price (PEMP) (as applicable) for that quantity; or
(b) if the pack quantity of the benefit is less than the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20:
(i) if the mark‑up mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a monetary amount—that monetary amount reduced proportionately for the relative quantities; or
(ii) if the mark‑up mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a percentage of the AEMP or PEMP (as applicable)—that percentage of the AEMP or PEMP for the pack quantity.
Mark‑up for ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefits | ||
Item | If the AEMP or PEMP (as applicable) for the maximum quantity is … | the mark‑up for the maximum quantity is … |
1 | less than $40 | 10% of the AEMP or PEMP |
2 | at least $40 but not more than $100 | $4 |
3 | more than $100 but not more than $1,000 | 4% of the AEMP or PEMP |
4 | more than $1,000 | $40 |
Approved pharmacists
(3) Subsection (4) applies if an approved supplier is an approved pharmacist.
(4) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(ii), (c)(ii) and (2)(b)(ii), the mark‑up for a pack quantity of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is a ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefit is:
(a) if the pack quantity of the benefit is equal to the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20—the amount mentioned in the following table for the price to pharmacists (PTP) for that quantity; or
(b) if the pack quantity of the benefit is less than the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20:
(i) if the mark‑up mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a monetary amount—that monetary amount reduced proportionately for the relative quantities; or
(ii) if the mark‑up mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a percentage of the price to pharmacists—that percentage of the price to pharmacists for the pack quantity.
Mark‑up for ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefits | ||
Item | If the PTP for the maximum quantity is … | the mark‑up for the PTP is … |
1 | less than $40 | 10% of the PTP |
2 | at least $40 but not more than $100 | $4 |
3 | more than $100 but not more than $1,000 | 4% of the PTP |
4 | more than $1,000 | $40 |
Note: See the definition of price to pharmacists in section 6.
34 Dispensing fee
(1) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(iii), (b)(ii) and (c)(iv):
(a) the dispensing fee for the supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit is:
(i) if the benefit has a drug mentioned in subsection (2) in the form mentioned in that subsection for the drug—the extemporaneously‑prepared dispensing fee (within the meaning of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination); or
(ii) if subparagraph (i) does not apply—the ready‑prepared dispensing fee (within the meaning of that Determination); and
(b) if the authorised prescriber who prescribed the benefit, instead of directing a repeated supply of the benefit, directed the supply on one occasion of a quantity or number of units of the benefit, not exceeding the total quantity or number of units that could be prescribed if the authorised prescriber directed a repeated supply, the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit includes:
(i) only one dispensing fee; and
(ii) only one dangerous drug fee.
Note: See section 49 of the Regulations for the circumstances in which such a supply may be directed.
(2) For the purpose of subparagraph (1)(a)(i), the drugs and the forms for the drugs are as follows:
(a) mycophenolic acid as a powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1g per 5 mL, 165mL;
(b) valganciclovir as a powder for oral solution 50mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 100 mL.
Part 3A—Supply to CTG registered patients by CTG suppliers
34A Application of this Part
This Part applies to a special arrangement supply (the relevant supply) of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement if the relevant supply is made:
(a) to an eligible patient who is a CTG registered patient; and
(b) by an approved supplier who is a CTG supplier.
34B Application of the CTG Special Arrangement—co‑payment and payment etc.
(1) Despite sections 28, 30, 31 and 37 of this Special Arrangement, subsections 10(1), (2), (3) and (10) (co‑payment reduction etc.), section 11 (value for safety net purposes) and section 12 (payment by Commonwealth) of the CTG Special Arrangement apply in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement with the modification set out in subsection (2) of this section.
(2) A reference in the CTG Special Arrangement to a special arrangement supply (within the meaning of the CTG Special Arrangement) of a pharmaceutical benefit is taken to be a reference to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement.
(3) However, the notes to subsections 10(2) and (3) of the CTG Special Arrangement do not apply in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement.
Note: The notes to subsections 10(2) and (3) of the CTG Special Arrangement relate to CTG suppliers making claims for payment under the CTG Special Arrangement. Claims for payment in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement are instead dealt with under Part 4 of this Special Arrangement.
Part 4—Claims for payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits
35 Rules for providing information about supplies—definition of under co‑payment data
The National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Co‑payment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022 apply to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier as if the definition of under co‑payment data in that instrument were replaced with the following definition:
under co‑payment data means information relating to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier where the amount payable by the Commonwealth is nil because the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit does not exceed the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.
35A Claim for payment if an eligible patient is a CTG registered patient
If:
(a) a claim for payment for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit made under the National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Co‑payment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022 is made using the manual system referred to in section 99AAA of the Act; and
(b) the claim is made:
(i) by an approved supplier who is a CTG supplier; and
(ii) in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient who is a CTG registered patient;
the claim must include an indicator that the eligible patient is a CTG registered patient.
Part 5—Miscellaneous
36 Compliance and audit arrangements
(1) If an approved supplier makes a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, the approved supplier must keep adequate, secure and auditable records of all supplied HSD pharmaceutical benefits for which a claim is made.
(2) The records must be kept in systems that are able to be audited by the Chief Executive Medicare on reasonable notice being given to the approved supplier.
37 Value for safety net purposes for supplies
Supplies by approved hospital authorities
(1) The value for safety net purposes for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person by an approved hospital authority is the amount paid by the person for the supply of the benefit that is equivalent to the amount chargeable under subsection 87(5) of the Act for the supply of the benefit less the amount chargeable under that subsection because of subsection 87(2A) of the Act.
Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.
Supplies by approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners
(2) The value for safety net purposes for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person by an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner is the amount paid by the person for the supply of the benefit that is equivalent to the amount chargeable under section 87 of the Act for the supply of the benefit less the amount chargeable under subsection 87(2A) of the Act.
Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.
Application of this section
(3) This section applies despite regulation 17A of the Regulations.
Part 6—Application, saving and transitional provisions
Division 1—Provisions relating to this instrument as made
38 HSD hospital authorities
Despite the repeal of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program) Special Arrangement 2010 (PB 116 of 2010):
(a) an approval that was in force under subsection 52(2) of that instrument immediately before 1 April 2021; and
(b) an approval that was continued in force under section 53 of that instrument as if it were an approval under subsection 52(2) of that instrument, and was in force immediately before 1 April 2021;
continues in force as if it were an approval under section 94 of the Act, as modified by section 10 of this instrument.
Division 2—Provisions relating to the National Health Legislation Amendment (Opioid Dependence Treatment and Maximum Dispensed Quantities) Instrument 2023
39 Purpose of this Division
This Division makes provision in relation to certain pre‑commencement prescriptions for the purpose of the application of Part VII of the Act, and regulations and other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, to those prescriptions.
40 Definitions
In this Division:
Claims Rules means the National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Co‑payment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022.
pre‑commencement benefit: see section 50.
pre‑commencement prescription: a prescription is a pre‑commencement prescription if:
(a) the prescription was written:
(i) before 1 July 2023; and
(ii) by an authorised nurse practitioner or a medical practitioner; and
(iii) for the supply to a person of a drug that is a medication for the treatment of opioid dependence; and
(iv) in the circumstance that the prescription was for the treatment of opiate dependence, including for detoxification (withdrawal) and maintenance of withdrawal; and
(b) immediately before 1 July 2023, a pre‑commencement benefit could have been supplied to the person on the basis of the prescription.
41 Definition of special arrangement supply
A supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if the benefit is supplied:
(a) on or after 1 July 2023; and
(b) to a person who is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and
(c) by an approved supplier; and
(d) on the basis of a pre‑commencement prescription (as affected by this Division, if applicable); and
(e) in accordance with this Division.
42 Prescriptions directing supply for dispensing over time
(1) This section applies if a pre‑commencement prescription directed the supply of a specified quantity or number of units (whether expressed as a total or as a dose) to be dispensed over a specified period of time (the directed dispensing period).
Deemed variation of application of determination of maximum number or quantity of units
(2) If the specified quantity or number of units, or the quantity or number of units required for the doses over the directed dispensing period, is more than the maximum quantity or number of units mentioned in Schedule 1 for the pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied on the basis of the prescription:
(a) the application of the determination of the maximum quantity or number of units under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act for the benefit is taken to have been varied under section 30 of the Regulations; and
(b) the prescription is taken to have been authorised in accordance with subsection 30(4) of the Regulations; and
(c) the number P2023OD is taken to have been allotted to, and marked on, the prescription as mentioned in subsection 30(5) of the Regulations.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of up to 28 days
(3) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the period remaining in the directed dispensing period (the remaining period) is not more than 28 days, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for the remaining period.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 29 to 55 days
(4) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is more than 28 days but not more than 55 days, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 56 to 83 days
(5) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is more than 55 days but not more than 83 days, the prescription is taken to direct:
(a) the supply on any one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days; and
(b) that the supply be repeated once.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 84 days or more
(6) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is 84 days or more, the prescription is taken to direct:
(a) the supply on any one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days; and
(b) that the supply be repeated twice.
43 Prescriptions directing supply of buprenorphine for injection
(1) This section applies if:
(a) a pre‑commencement prescription is for the supply of the drug buprenorphine with the manner of administration injection (the medication); and
(b) the prescription directed the supply of a specified quantity or number of units of the medication (the directed quantity) that is more than the quantity of the medication mentioned in subsection (2) (the standard quantity for the medication).
(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the standard quantity for the medication is:
(a) if the brand of the medication is Buvidal Weekly—4; or
(b) if the brand of the medication is Buvidal Monthly or Sublocade—1.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of not more than standard quantity
(3) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the quantity or number of units of the medication that remains to be supplied (the remaining quantity) is not more than the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the remaining quantity.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of more than standard quantity but less than twice standard quantity
(4) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is more than the standard quantity for the medication but is less than twice the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of more than twice standard quantity but less than 3 times standard quantity
(5) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is more than twice the standard quantity for the medication but is less than 3 times the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct:
(a) the supply on any one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication; and
(b) that the supply be repeated once.
Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of 3 times standard quantity or more
(6) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is 3 times the standard quantity for the medication or more, the prescription is taken to direct:
(a) the supply on any one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication; and
(b) that the supply be repeated twice.
44 Prescriptions directing supply of methadone
(1) This section applies if a pre‑commencement prescription is for the supply of the drug methadone.
(2) On the basis of the prescription, the person for whom the prescription was written is entitled to receive, and an approved supplier may supply to the person, any ODT pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug methadone.
(3) This section applies despite section 89 and paragraph 103(2)(a) of the Act.
45 First supply on or after 1 July 2023 deemed to be supply on first presentation
If the first supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier on the basis of a pre‑commencement prescription on or after 1 July 2023 is not a supply of that benefit on first presentation of the prescription, it is taken to be a supply of that benefit on first presentation of the prescription.
46 Supply on first presentation of prescription (Regulations s 44)
Subparagraphs 44(2)(a)(i) and (3)(a)(i) of the Regulations do not apply to a special arrangement supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a pre‑commencement prescription.
47 Repeat authorisations (Regulations s 52)
(1) Section 52 of the Regulations applies to the supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a pre‑commencement prescription to which subsection 42(5) or (6) or 43(5) or (6) of this instrument applies as if the benefit were supplied in the circumstances set out in subsection 52(2) of the Regulations.
(2) Subsection 52(3) of the Regulations applies in relation to a pre‑commencement prescription as if the prescription had been authorised in accordance with authority required procedures that are part of the circumstances determined by the Minister under paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act for the pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied on the basis of the prescription.
48 Prescriptions written in electronic form—additional procedures for giving information (Claims Rules s 7) and keeping documents
Additional procedures for giving information
(1) Section 7 of the Claims Rules applies in relation to a pre‑commencement prescription written in electronic form as if a reference in that section to the prescription were a reference to a print‑out of the prescription.
Keeping print‑outs of prescriptions
(2) If an approved supplier supplies a pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a pre‑commencement prescription written in electronic form, the approved supplier must keep a print‑out of the prescription for at least 2 years from the date the pharmaceutical benefit was supplied by the approved supplier.
49 Information to be given using Claims Transmission System (Claims Rules Sch 1)
General
(1) The table in clause 1 of Schedule 1 to the Claims Rules applies to a pre‑commencement prescription as follows:
(a) as if, for the purposes of item 2 of the table, the Authority Prescription Number for the prescription were 00000641;
(b) as if, for the purposes of item 8 of the table, the prescription were signed on 1 July 2023;
(c) if the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription did not write their PBS prescriber number on the prescription—as if, for the purposes of item 28 of the table, that number were written on the prescription;
(d) if the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription did not write their prescriber ID on the prescription—as if, for the purposes of item 31 of the table, that number were written on the prescription;
(e) if the prescription was written in electronic form—as if, for the purposes of item 32 of the table, the prescription were a paper‑based prescription;
(f) as if, for the purposes of item 40 of the table, the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription had written on the prescription:
(i) the words “Streamlined Authority Code”; and
(ii) the relevant streamlined authority code included in any circumstances mentioned in an item of the table in Part 1 of Schedule 4 to the Listing Instrument for the writing of a prescription for a pharmaceutical benefit for the treatment of opioid dependence.
Pre‑commencement prescriptions written in electronic form
(2) Clause 2 of Schedule 1 to the Claims Rules does not apply to a pre‑commencement prescription written in electronic form.
50 Pre‑commencement benefits
Each pharmaceutical benefit specified in the following table is a pre‑commencement benefit.
Pre‑commencement benefits | ||||
Item | Listed drug | Form | Manner of administration | Brand |
1 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 8 mg in 0.16 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly |
2 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 16 mg in 0.32 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly |
3 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 24 mg in 0.48 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly |
4 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 32 mg in 0.64 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly |
5 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 64 mg in 0.18 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly |
6 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 96 mg in 0.27 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly |
7 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 128 mg in 0.36 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly |
8 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 160 mg in 0.45 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly |
9 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 100 mg in 0.50 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Sublocade |
10 | Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 300 mg in 1.50 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Sublocade |
11 | Buprenorphine | Tablet (sublingual) 400 micrograms (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex |
12 | Buprenorphine | Tablet (sublingual) 2 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex |
13 | Buprenorphine | Tablet (sublingual) 8 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex |
14 | Buprenorphine with naloxone | Film (soluble) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)‑0.5 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Suboxone Film 2/0.5 |
15 | Buprenorphine with naloxone | Film (soluble) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)‑2 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Suboxone Film 8/2 |
16 | Methadone | Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL | Oral | Biodone Forte |
17 | Methadone | Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL | Oral | Aspen Methadone Syrup |
18 | Methadone | Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 1 L | Oral | Biodone Forte |
19 | Methadone | Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 1 L | Oral | Aspen Methadone Syrup |
Note: The drugs mentioned in the table were declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act, and the forms, manners of administration and brands mentioned in the table were determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively—see the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 (PB 71 of 2012) as in force before 1 July 2023.
Division 3—Provisions relating to the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement Amendment (Increases in Maximum Quantity and Number of Repeats for Complex Authority required (CAR) Medicines) Instrument 2026
51 Prescriptions directing increased maximum quantities or numbers of units of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug
(1) This section applies to the special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a CAR drug that is made on or after 1 February 2026 if:
(a) the supply is made on the basis of a prescription that was written before 1 February 2026; and
(b) the prescription directs the supply on any one occasion of a quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in the HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is more than the applicable maximum quantity for the pharmaceutical item; and
(c) before 1 February 2026, the Minister purported under section 30 of the Regulations to:
(i) authorise the variation of the application of the determination of the applicable maximum quantity; and
(ii) allot a number to the prescription.
Note: Former section 22 of this instrument prevented the Minister from authorising, under section 30 of the Regulations, a variation of the application of the determination of the maximum quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical item in an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that a prescriber could direct to be supplied on any one occasion.
(2) The Minister is taken to have authorised, under subsection 30(2) of the Regulations, the variation of the determination of the applicable maximum quantity in relation to the prescription and the person who wrote the prescription.
(3) The number purportedly allotted to the prescription is taken to have been allotted to the prescription in accordance with subsection 30(3) of the Regulations.
(4) In this section, the applicable maximum quantity, for the pharmaceutical item in the HSD pharmaceutical benefit prescribed for supply, means the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item determined for paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act under subsection 20(2), 20(3) or 20(4) of this instrument (whichever is applicable).
52 Prescriptions directing increased maximum number of repeats of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug
(1) This section applies to the special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a CAR drug that is made on or after 1 February 2026 if:
(a) the supply is made on the basis of a prescription that was written before 1 February 2026; and
(b) the prescription directs the supply of the HSD pharmaceutical benefit be repeated on a number of occasions that is more than the applicable maximum number of repeats for the pharmaceutical benefit; and
(c) before 1 February 2026, the Minister purported under section 30 of the Regulations to:
(i) authorise the variation of the application of the determination of the applicable maximum number of repeats; and
(ii) allot a number to the prescription.
Note: Former section 22 of this instrument prevented the Minister from authorising, under section 30 of the Regulations, a variation of the application of the determination of the maximum number of occasions on which the supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit may, in one prescription, be directed to be repeated.
(2) The Minister is taken to have authorised, under subsection 30(2) of the Regulations, the variation of the determination of the applicable maximum number of repeats in relation to the prescription and the person who wrote the prescription.
(3) The number purportedly allotted to the prescription is taken to have been allotted to the prescription in accordance with subsection 30(3) of the Regulations.
(4) In this section, the applicable maximum number of repeats, for the HSD pharmaceutical benefit prescribed for supply, means the number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct the supply of the HSD pharmaceutical be repeated, determined for paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act under subsection 21(2), 21(3) or 21(4) of this instrument (whichever is applicable).
Schedule 1—HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information
Note: See the definitions of highly specialised drug and HSD pharmaceutical benefit in section 6, and sections 13, 15, 20 and 21.
1 Highly specialised drugs and HSD pharmaceutical benefits
(1) Each listed drug specified in the following table is a highly specialised drug.
(2) Each pharmaceutical benefit specified in the following table is an HSD pharmaceutical benefit.
(3) The following table also specifies circumstances, purposes, maximum quantities and maximum repeats for HSD pharmaceutical benefits.
Note: The drugs mentioned in the table have been declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act. The forms, manners of administration and brands mentioned in the table have been determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively.
HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information | |||||||
Listed drug | Form | Manner of administration | Brand | Circumstances | Purposes | Maximum quantity | Maximum repeats |
Abacavir | Oral solution 20 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 240 mL | Oral | Ziagen | C13920 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Tablet 300 mg (as sulfate) | Oral | Ziagen | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
Abacavir with Lamivudine | Tablet containing abacavir 600 mg (as sulfate) with lamivudine 300 mg | Oral | Abacavir/Lamivudine Viatris | C4527 C4528 |
| 60 | 5 |
Abatacept | Powder for I.V. infusion 250 mg | Injection | Orencia | C14488 C14507 C14555 C14604 C18169 C18272 C18273 C18274 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Adalimumab | Injection 20 mg in 0.2 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Humira | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 20 mg in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Amgevita | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL pre‑filled pen | Injection | Hadlima | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Humira | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hyrimoz | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Yuflyma | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Hadlima | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Humira | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hyrimoz | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Yuflyma | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre‑filled pen | Injection | Abrilada | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Amgevita | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hadlima | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hyrimoz | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Amgevita | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hadlima | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Hyrimoz | C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Alemtuzumab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 12 mg in 1.2 mL | Injection | Lemtrada | C6847 C7714 C9589 C9636 | P6847 P9589 | 3 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C6847 C7714 C9589 C9636 | P7714 P9636 | 5 | 0 |
Ambrisentan | Tablet 5 mg | Oral | Ambrisentan Viatris | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Cipla Ambrisentan | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| PULMORIS | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Volibris | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 10 mg | Oral | Ambrisentan Viatris | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Cipla Ambrisentan | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| PULMORIS | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Volibris | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Anakinra | Injection 100 mg in 0.67 mL single use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Kineret | C5450 |
| 28 | 5 |
Anifrolumab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 2 mL | Injection | Saphnelo | C15387 C18465 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Apomorphine | Injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 50 mg in 5 mL | Injection | Movapo | C11385 C11445 |
| 180 | 5 |
| Injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 100 mg in 20 mL | Injection | Apomine Solution for Infusion | C10830 C10863 |
| 90 | 5 |
|
|
| MOVAPO POD | C10830 C10863 |
| 90 | 5 |
| Solution for subcutaneous infusion containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 50 mg in 10 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Movapo PFS | C11385 C11445 |
| 180 | 5 |
| Solution for subcutaneous injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride 30 mg in 3 mL pre‑filled pen | Injection | Apomine Intermittent | C10830 C10863 |
| 100 | 5 |
|
|
| Movapo Pen | C10830 C10863 |
| 100 | 5 |
Atazanavir with cobicistat | Tablet containing 300 mg atazanavir and 150 mg cobicistat | Oral | Evotaz | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
Avatrombopag | Tablet 20 mg | Oral | Doptelet | C14054 C15340 C15375 C18297 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Azacitidine | Powder for injection 100 mg | Injection | Azacitidine Accord | C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Azacitidine Dr.Reddy's | C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Azacitidine Juno | C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Azacitidine MSN | C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Azacitidine SXP | C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Azithromycin | Tablet 600 mg (as dihydrate) | Oral | Zithromax | C6356 C9604 |
| 16 | 5 |
Baclofen | Intrathecal injection 10 mg in 5 mL | Injection | Bacthecal | C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637 |
| 10 | 0 |
|
|
| Lioresal Intrathecal | C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637 |
| 10 | 0 |
|
|
| Sintetica Baclofen Intrathecal | C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637 |
| 10 | 0 |
| Intrathecal injection 40 mg in 20 mL | Injection | Sintetica Baclofen Intrathecal | C7134 C7148 C7152 C7153 C9525 C9562 C9606 C9638 |
| 2 | 0 |
Benralizumab | Injection 30 mg in 1 mL single dose pre‑filled pen | Injection | Fasenra Pen | C15376 C15884 C18271 C18874 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide | Tablet containing bictegravir 50 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg | Oral | Biktarvy | C4470 C4522 |
| 60 | 5 |
Bosentan | Tablet 62.5 mg (as monohydrate) | Oral | Bosentan APO | C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| BOSENTAN DR.REDDY’S | C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Bosentan RBX | C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 125 mg (as monohydrate) | Oral | Bosentan APO | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| BOSENTAN DR.REDDY’S | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Bosentan GH | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Bosentan RBX | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Bosentan Viatris | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Buprenorphine | Injection (modified release) 8 mg in 0.16 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly | C16051 |
| 4 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 16 mg in 0.32 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly | C16051 |
| 4 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 24 mg in 0.48 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly | C16051 |
| 4 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 32 mg in 0.64 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Weekly | C16051 |
| 4 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 64 mg in 0.18 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly | C16015 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 96 mg in 0.27 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly | C16015 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 100 mg in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Sublocade | C16050 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 128 mg in 0.36 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly | C16015 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 160 mg in 0.45 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Buvidal Monthly | C16015 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 300 mg in 1.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Sublocade | C16050 |
| 1 | 5 |
| Tablet (sublingual) 400 micrograms (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex | C16009 |
| 28 | 5 |
| Tablet (sublingual) 2 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex | C16009 |
| 84 | 5 |
| Tablet (sublingual) 8 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Subutex | C16009 |
| 112 | 5 |
Buprenorphine with naloxone | Film (soluble) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)‑0.5 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Suboxone Film 2/0.5 | C16009 |
| 84 | 5 |
| Film (soluble) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)‑2 mg (as hydrochloride) | Sublingual | Suboxone Film 8/2 | C16009 |
| 112 | 5 |
Burosumab | Solution for injection 10 mg in 1 mL | Injection | Crysvita | C13330 C13377 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Solution for injection 20 mg in 1 mL | Injection | Crysvita | C13330 C13377 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Solution for injection 30 mg in 1 mL | Injection | Crysvita | C13330 C13377 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Cabotegravir | Tablet 30 mg | Oral | Vocabria | C12619 |
| 30 | 0 |
Cabotegravir and rilpivirine | Pack containing 1 vial cabotegravir 600 mg in 3 mL and 1 vial rilpivirine 900 mg in 3 mL | Injection | Cabenuva | C12636 |
| 1 | 5 |
Ciclosporin | Capsule 10 mg | Oral | Neoral 10 | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Capsule 25 mg | Oral | APO‑Ciclosporin | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| CICLOSPORIN-WGR | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Neoral 25 | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Capsule 50 mg | Oral | APO‑Ciclosporin | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| CICLOSPORIN-WGR | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Neoral 50 | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Capsule 100 mg | Oral | APO‑Ciclosporin | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| CICLOSPORIN-WGR | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Neoral 100 | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Oral liquid 100 mg per mL, 50 mL | Oral | Neoral | C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361 |
| 4 | 5 |
| Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 1 mL | Injection | Sandimmun | C6628 C9831 |
| 10 | 0 |
Cinacalcet | Tablet 30 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Cinacalcet Viatris | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Cinacalcet | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
| Tablet 60 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Cinacalcet Viatris | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Cinacalcet | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
| Tablet 90 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Cinacalcet Viatris | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Cinacalcet | C10063 C10067 C10073 |
| 56 | 5 |
Clozapine | Oral liquid 50 mg per mL, 100 mL | Oral | Clopine Suspension | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 1 | 0 |
|
|
| Versacloz | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 1 | 0 |
| Tablet 25 mg | Oral | Clopine 25 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozaril 25 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozitor | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
| Tablet 50 mg | Oral | Clopine 50 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozitor | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
| Tablet 100 mg | Oral | Clopine 100 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozaril 100 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozitor | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
| Tablet 200 mg | Oral | Clopine 200 | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
|
|
| Clozitor | C4998 C5015 C9490 |
| 200 | 0 |
Darbepoetin alfa | Injection 10 micrograms in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 20 micrograms in 0.5 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 20 micrograms in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 30 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 40 micrograms in 0.4 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 40 micrograms in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 50 micrograms in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 60 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 60 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 80 micrograms in 0.4 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 80 micrograms in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 100 micrograms in 0.5 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 100 micrograms in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled injection pen | Injection | Aranesp SureClick | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Aranesp | C6294 C9688 |
| 8 | 5 |
Darunavir | Tablet 600 mg | Oral | Darunavir Juno | C5094 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 600 mg (as ethanolate) | Oral | Prezista | C5094 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 800 mg | Oral | Darunavir Juno | C4313 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet 800mg (as ethanolate) | Oral | Prezista | C4313 |
| 60 | 5 |
Darunavir with cobicistat | Tablet containing darunavir 800mg with cobicistat 150 mg | Oral | Prezcobix | C6377 C6413 C6428 |
| 60 | 5 |
Darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide | Tablet containing darunavir | Oral | Symtuza | C10317 C10324 |
| 60 | 5 |
Deferasirox | Tablet 90 mg | Oral | DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
| Tablet 180 mg | Oral | DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
| Tablet 360 mg | Oral | DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 180 | 2 |
|
|
| DEFERAMED | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox ARX | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Sandoz | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| DEFERASIROX‑TEVA | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Eferas | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Jadenu | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox FC | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 180 | 5 |
| Tablet, dispersible, 125 mg | Oral | Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
| Tablet, dispersible, 250 mg | Oral | Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
| Tablet, dispersible, 500 mg | Oral | Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302 | 168 | 2 |
|
|
| Deferasirox Juno | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Deferasirox | C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302 | P7374 P7375 | 168 | 5 |
Deferiprone | Oral solution 100 mg per mL, 250 mL | Oral | Ferriprox | C6403 C6448 C9228 C9286 |
| 5 | 5 |
| Tablet 500 mg | Oral | Ferriprox | C6403 C6448 C9228 C9286 |
| 300 | 5 |
| Tablet 1000 mg | Oral | Ferriprox | C6403 C6448 C9590 C9623 |
| 300 | 5 |
Desferrioxamine | Powder for injection containing desferrioxamine mesilate 500 mg | Injection | DBL Desferrioxamine Mesilate | C6394 C9696 |
| 400 | 5 |
| Powder for injection containing desferrioxamine mesilate 2 g | Injection | DBL Desferrioxamine Mesilate | C6394 C9696 |
| 60 | 5 |
Difelikefalin | Solution for I.V. injection 50 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL | Injection | Korsuva | C15171 C15211 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Dolutegravir | Tablet 50mg (as sodium) | Oral | Tivicay | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
Dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine | Tablet containing dolutegravir 50 mg with abacavir 600 mg and lamivudine 300 mg | Oral | Triumeq | C9981 C10116 |
| 60 | 5 |
Dolutegravir with lamivudine | Tablet containing dolutegravir | Oral | Dovato | C9987 C11066 |
| 60 | 5 |
Dolutegravir with rilpivirine | Tablet containing dolutegravir 50 mg (as sodium) with rilpivirine 25 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Juluca | C8214 C8226 |
| 60 | 5 |
Dornase Alfa | Solution for inhalation 2.5 mg (2,500 units) in 2.5 mL | Inhalation | Pulmozyme | C5634 C5635 C5740 C9591 C9592 C9624 |
| 60 | 5 |
Doxorubicin ‑ | Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 20 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Caelyx | C6234 C6274 C9223 C9287 |
| 4 | 5 |
|
|
| Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN | C6234 C6274 C9223 C9287 |
| 4 | 5 |
Dupilumab | Injection 200 mg in 1.14 mL single dose pre‑filled pen | Injection | Dupixent | C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 200 mg in 1.14 mL single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Dupixent | C15886 C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 C18269 C18889 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose pre-filled pen | Injection | Dupixent | C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Dupixent | C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 C18269 C18464 C18858 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Eculizumab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 30 mL | Injection | Soliris | C14750 C14753 C14754 C14781 C14792 C14793 C14799 C14805 C17602 C17626 C17630 C17651 C17673 C17675 C17684 C17693 C17697 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Edaravone | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 30 mg in 20 mL | Injection | Radicava | C16479 C18480 | P16479 | 20 | 2 |
|
|
|
| C16479 C18480 | P18480 | 28 | 0 |
Eflornithine | Tablet 192 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Ifinwil | C16841 C17735 C17753 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor | Pack containing 28 sachets containing granules elexacaftor 80 mg with tezacaftor 40 mg and with ivacaftor 60 mg and 28 sachets containing granules ivacaftor 59.5 mg | Oral | Trikafta | C17770 C17772 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 28 sachets containing granules elexacaftor 100 mg with tezacaftor 50 mg and with ivacaftor 75 mg and 28 sachets containing granules ivacaftor 75 mg | Oral | Trikafta | C17770 C17772 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 56 tablets elexacaftor 50 mg with tezacaftor 25 mg and with ivacaftor 37.5 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 75 mg | Oral | Trikafta | C17846 C17971 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 56 tablets elexacaftor 100 mg with tezacaftor 50 mg and with ivacaftor 75 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 150 mg | Oral | Trikafta | C17937 C17970 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Eltrombopag | Tablet 25 mg (as olamine) | Oral | Revolade | C13327 C14127 C14129 C15173 C16455 C18209 C18210 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 50 mg (as olamine) | Oral | Revolade | C13327 C14127 C14129 C15173 C16455 C18209 C18210 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide | Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with rilpivirine 25 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg | Oral | Odefsey | C4470 C4522 |
| 60 | 5 |
Emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide | Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 10 mg | Oral | Descovy | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg | Oral | Descovy | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
Entecavir | Tablet 0.5 mg (as monohydrate) | Oral | ENTAC | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| ENTECAVIR APO | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Entecavir GH | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| ENTECAVIR RBX | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Entecavir Sandoz | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Entecavir Viatris | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| ENTECAVIR-WGR | C4993 C5036 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet 1 mg (as monohydrate) | Oral | ENTECAVIR APO | C5037 C5044 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| ENTECAVIR RBX | C5037 C5044 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Entecavir Sandoz | C5037 C5044 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Entecavir Viatris | C5037 C5044 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| ENTECAVIR-WGR | C5037 C5044 |
| 60 | 5 |
Epoetin Alfa | Injection 1,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 1000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 2,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 2000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 3,000 units in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 3000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 4,000 units in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 4000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 5,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 5000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 6,000 units in 0.6 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 6000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 8,000 units in 0.8 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 8000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 10,000 units in 1 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 10000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 20,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 20,000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 40,000 units in 1 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Eprex 40,000 | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
Epoetin lambda | Injection 1,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 2,000 units in 1 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 3,000 units in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 4,000 units in 0.4 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 5,000 units in 0.5 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 6,000 units in 0.6 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 8,000 units in 0.8 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
| Injection 10,000 units in 1 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Novicrit | C6294 C9688 |
| 12 | 5 |
Epoprostenol | Powder for I.V. infusion 500 micrograms (as sodium) | Injection | Veletri | C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Powder for I.V. infusion 1.5 mg (as sodium) | Injection | Veletri | C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Esketamine | Nasal spray device 28 mg in 2 actuations | Nasal | Spravato | C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16460 | 4 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16477 | 8 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16470 | 8 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16419 | 12 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16422 | 16 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477 | P16454 | 24 | 0 |
Etanercept | Injection 50 mg in 1 mL single use auto‑injector, 4 | Injection | Enbrel | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Erelzi | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Nepexto | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injections 50 mg in 1 mL single use pre‑filled syringes, 4 | Injection | Enbrel | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Erelzi | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Nepexto | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection set containing 4 vials powder for injection 25 mg and 4 pre‑filled syringes solvent 1 mL | Injection | Enbrel | C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Etravirine | Tablet 200 mg | Oral | Intelence | C5014 |
| 120 | 5 |
Everolimus | Tablet 0.25 mg | Oral | Certican | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Everocan | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 0.5 mg | Oral | Certican | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Everocan | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 0.75 mg | Oral | Certican | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 240 | 5 |
|
|
| Everocan | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 240 | 5 |
| Tablet 1 mg | Oral | Certican | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 240 | 5 |
|
|
| Everocan | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 240 | 5 |
Filgrastim | Injection 120 micrograms in 0.2 mL single‑use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Nivestim | C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696 |
| 20 | 11 |
| Injection 300 micrograms in 0.5 mL single‑use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Nivestim | C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696 |
| 20 | 11 |
|
|
| Zarzio | C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696 |
| 20 | 11 |
| Injection 480 micrograms in 0.5 mL single‑use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Nivestim | C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696 |
| 20 | 11 |
|
|
| Zarzio | C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696 |
| 20 | 11 |
Foslevodopa with foscarbidopa | Solution for subcutaneous infusion containing foslevodopa 2400 mg with foscarbidopa 120 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Vyalev | C16812 C16853 C16883 C16972 | P16812 P16883 | 28 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C16812 C16853 C16883 C16972 | P16853 P16972 | 56 | 5 |
Ganciclovir | Powder for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as sodium) | Injection | Cymevene | C5000 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814 |
| 10 | 1 |
|
|
| GANCICLOVIR SXP | C5000 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814 |
| 10 | 1 |
Glecaprevir with pibrentasvir | Tablet containing 100 mg glecaprevir with 40 mg pibrentasvir | Oral | Maviret | C7593 C7615 C10268 | P7593 | 84 | 1 |
|
|
|
| C7593 C7615 C10268 | P7615 | 84 | 2 |
|
|
|
| C7593 C7615 C10268 | P10268 | 84 | 3 |
Iloprost | Solution for inhalation 20 micrograms (as trometamol) in 2 mL | Inhalation | Ventavis | C13491 C13506 C13577 C18294 C18403 C18802 C18859 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Infliximab | Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg | Injection | Inflectra | C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Ixifi | C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Remicade | C4524 C7777 C8296 C9068 C9111 C9559 C9632 C9754 C11158 C12059 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14548 C14705 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18849 C18866 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Remsima | C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Renflexis | C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Interferon Gamma‑1b | Injection 2,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL | Injection | Imukin | C6222 C9639 |
| 12 | 11 |
Ivacaftor | Sachet containing granules 13.4 mg | Oral | Kalydeco | C16928 C16971 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Sachet containing granules 25 mg | Oral | Kalydeco | C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Sachet containing granules 50 mg | Oral | Kalydeco | C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Sachet containing granules 75 mg | Oral | Kalydeco | C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 150 mg | Oral | Kalydeco | C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Lamivudine | Oral solution 10 mg per mL, 240 mL | Oral | 3TC | C4454 C4512 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Tablet 100 mg | Oral | Zeffix | C4993 C5036 |
| 56 | 5 |
|
|
| Zetlam | C4993 C5036 |
| 56 | 5 |
| Tablet 150 mg | Oral | 3TC | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Lamivudine Viatris | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 300 mg | Oral | 3TC | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Lamivudine Alphapharm | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Lamivudine Viatris | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
Lamivudine with Zidovudine | Tablet 150 mg‑300 mg | Oral | Combivir | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Lamivudine/Zidovudine Viatris 150/300 | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
Lanreotide | Injection 60 mg (as acetate) in single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mytolac | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 |
| 2 | 5 |
|
|
| Somatuline Autogel | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 90 mg (as acetate) in single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mytolac | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 |
| 2 | 5 |
|
|
| Somatuline Autogel | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 120 mg (as acetate) in single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mytolac | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 C17635 C17637 C17638 C17696 |
| 2 | 5 |
|
|
| Somatuline Autogel | C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 C17635 C17637 C17638 C17696 |
| 2 | 5 |
Lanthanum | Tablet, chewable, 500 mg (as carbonate hydrate) | Oral | Fosrenol | C5530 C9762 |
| 180 | 5 |
| Tablet, chewable, 750 mg (as carbonate hydrate) | Oral | Fosrenol | C5530 C9762 |
| 180 | 5 |
| Tablet, chewable, 1000 mg (as carbonate hydrate) | Oral | Fosrenol | C5530 C9762 |
| 180 | 5 |
Lenalidomide | Capsule 5 mg | Oral | Lenalide | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Sandoz | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Revlimid | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 10 mg | Oral | Lenalide | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Sandoz | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Revlimid | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 15 mg | Oral | Lenalide | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Sandoz | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Revlimid | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 20 mg | Oral | Lenalide | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Sandoz | C13782 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 25 mg | Oral | Lenalide | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Lenalidomide Sandoz | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Revlimid | C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Levodopa with carbidopa | Intestinal gel containing levodopa 20 mg with carbidopa monohydrate 5 mg per mL, | Intra‑ | Duodopa | C10138 C10161 C10363 C10375 | P10138 P10161 | 28 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C10138 C10161 C10363 C10375 | P10363 P10375 | 56 | 5 |
Lipegfilgrastim
| Injection 6 mg in 0.6 mL single use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Lonquex | C7822 C7843 C9224 C9322 |
| 1 | 11 |
Lopinavir with ritonavir | Oral liquid 400 mg‑100 mg per 5 mL, 60 mL | Oral | Kaletra | C4454 C4512 |
| 10 | 5 |
| Tablet 200 mg‑50 mg | Oral | Kaletra | C4454 C4512 |
| 240 | 5 |
Lumacaftor with ivacaftor | Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 75 mg and ivacaftor 94 mg | Oral | Orkambi | C17763 C17765 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 100 mg and ivacaftor 125 mg | Oral | Orkambi | C17763 C17765 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 150 mg and ivacaftor 188 mg | Oral | Orkambi | C17763 C17765 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet containing lumacaftor 100 mg with ivacaftor 125 mg | Oral | Orkambi | C17933 C17967 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet containing lumacaftor 200 mg with ivacaftor 125 mg | Oral | Orkambi | C17842 C17934 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Macitentan | Tablet 10 mg | Oral | Opsumit | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Macitentan with tadalafil | Tablet containing 10 mg macitentan with 40 mg tadalafil | Oral | Opsynvi | C16433 C16457 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Mannitol | Pack containing 280 capsules containing powder for inhalation 40 mg and 2 inhalers | Inhalation by mouth | Bronchitol | C7362 C7367 C9527 C9593 |
| 4 | 5 |
Maraviroc | Tablet 150 mg | Oral | Celsentri | C5008 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Maraviroc Waymade | C5008 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 300 mg | Oral | Celsentri | C5008 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Maraviroc Waymade | C5008 |
| 120 | 5 |
Maribavir | Tablet 200 mg | Oral | Livtencity | C16735 C16806 |
| 112 | 1 |
Mepolizumab | Injection 100 mg in 1 mL single dose pre‑filled pen | Injection | Nucala | C13865 C15376 C15849 C18271 C18284 C18830 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Methadone | Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL in 1 L bottle, 1 mL | Oral | Aspen Methadone Syrup | C16083 |
| 840 | 5 |
|
|
| Biodone Forte | C16083 |
| 840 | 5 |
| Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL in 200 mL bottle, 1 mL | Oral | Aspen Methadone Syrup | C16083 |
| 840 | 5 |
|
|
| Biodone Forte | C16083 |
| 840 | 5 |
Methoxsalen | Solution for blood fraction 20 microgram per mL, 10 mL | Extracorporeal Circulation | Uvadex | C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579 | P10988 P10989 | 1 | 5 |
|
|
|
| C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579 | P12531 P12567 | 2 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579 | P10971 P10985 | 2 | 6 |
|
|
|
| C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579 | P12546 P12579 | 12 | 1 |
Methoxy polyethylene glycol‑epoetin beta | Injection 30 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 50 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 75 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 100 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 120 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 200 micrograms in 0.3 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection 360 micrograms in 0.6 mL pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Mircera | C6294 C9688 |
| 2 | 5 |
Midostaurin | Capsule 25 mg | Oral | Rydapt | C11699 C13001 C13013 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Mycophenolic acid | Capsule containing mycophenolate mofetil 250 mg | Oral | APO‑Mycophenolate | C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690 |
| 600 | 5 |
|
|
| Mycophenolate Sandoz | C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690 |
| 600 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Mycophenolate 250 | C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690 |
| 600 | 5 |
| Powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1 g per 5 mL, 165 mL | Oral | CellCept | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 2 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Mycophenolate | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Tablet containing mycophenolate mofetil 500 mg | Oral | ARX-MYCOPHENOLATE | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 300 | 5 |
|
|
| Ceptolate | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 300 | 5 |
|
|
| Mycophenolate GH | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 300 | 5 |
|
|
| Mycophenolate Sandoz | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 300 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Mycophenolate 500 | C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693 |
| 300 | 5 |
| Tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 180 mg mycophenolic acid | Oral | Mycophenolic Acid ARX | C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809 |
| 240 | 5 |
|
|
| Myfortic | C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809 |
| 240 | 5 |
| Tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 360 mg mycophenolic acid | Oral | Mycophenolic Acid ARX | C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809 |
| 240 | 5 |
|
|
| MYCOTEX | C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809 |
| 240 | 5 |
|
|
| Myfortic | C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809 |
| 240 | 5 |
Natalizumab | Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose pre-filled syringe | Injection | Tysabri | C13625 C13718 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 15 mL | Injection | Tysabri | C13625 C13718 |
| 1 | 5 |
Nevirapine | Oral suspension 50 mg (as hemihydrate) per 5 mL, 240 mL | Oral | Viramune | C4454 C4512 |
| 10 | 5 |
| Tablet 200 mg | Oral | Nevirapine Viatris | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
Nusinersen | Solution for injection 12 mg in 5 mL | Injection | Spinraza | C14433 C14459 C15069 C15112 C18053 C18073 C18076 C18077 C18078 C18094 C18101 C18110 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Ocrelizumab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Ocrevus | C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635 |
| 2 | 0 |
| Solution for subcutaneous injection 920 mg in 23 mL | Injection | Ocrevus SC | C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635 |
| 1 | 0 |
Octreotide | Injection 50 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL | Injection | Octreotide GH | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Octreotide (SUN) | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Sandostatin 0.05 | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
| Injection 100 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL | Injection | Octreotide GH | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Octreotide (SUN) | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Sandostatin 0.1 | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
| Injection 500 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL | Injection | Octreotide GH | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Octreotide (SUN) | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
|
|
| Sandostatin 0.5 | C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289 |
| 90 | 11 |
| Injection (modified release) 10 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Sandostatin LAR | C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 20 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Sandostatin LAR | C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Injection (modified release) 30 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Sandostatin LAR | C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313 C17634 C17635 C17637 |
| 2 | 5 |
Omalizumab | Injection 75 mg in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled pen | Injection | Xolair | C15347 C15376 C15870 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 75 mg in 0.5 mL single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Omlyclo | C15347 C15376 C15870 C16846 C16949 C17012 C17075 C17085 C17086 C17102 C17284 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Xolair | C15347 C15376 C15870 C17012 C17075 C17086 C17284 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose pre-filled pen | Injection | Xolair | C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16906 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Omlyclo | C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16846 C16905 C16906 C16949 C16960 C17012 C17075 C17084 C17096 C17284 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose pre-filled pen | Injection | Xolair | C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16906 C18731 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Onasemnogene abeparvovec | Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 8 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 8 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Pack containing 9 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL | Injection | Zolgensma | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Pamidronic Acid | Concentrated injection containing pamidronate disodium 60 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Pamisol | C4433 C9234 |
| 1 | 2 |
| Concentrated injection containing pamidronate disodium 90 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Pamisol | C4433 C5218 C5291 C9234 C9315 C9335 |
| 1 | 11 |
Pasireotide | Injection (modified release) 20 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Signifor LAR | C9088 C9089 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection (modified release) 40 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Signifor LAR | C9088 C9089 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection (modified release) 60 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe | Injection | Signifor LAR | C9088 C9089 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Patisiran | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 10 mg in 5 mL | Injection | Onpattro | C15453 C15501 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Pegcetacoplan | Solution for subcutaneous infusion 1,080 mg in 20 mL | Injection | Empaveli | C17598 C17599 C17601 C17622 C17623 C17647 C17683 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Pegfilgrastim | Injection 6 mg in 0.6 mL single use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Pelgraz | C7822 C7843 C9235 C9303 |
| 1 | 11 |
|
|
| Ziextenzo | C7822 C7843 C9235 C9303 |
| 1 | 11 |
Peginterferon alfa‑2a | Injection 135 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Pegasys | C17022 C17108 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 135 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre-filled syringe (s19A) | Injection | Pegasys (Ireland) | C17022 C17108 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 180 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre‑filled syringe | Injection | Pegasys | C17022 C17108 |
| 8 | 5 |
| Injection 180 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre-filled syringe (s19A) | Injection | Pegasys (Ireland) | C17022 C17108 |
| 8 | 5 |
Pegvisomant | Injection set containing powder for injection 10 mg, 30 and diluent, 30 | Injection | Somavert | C7087 C9041 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection set containing powder for injection 15 mg, 30 and diluent, 30 | Injection | Somavert | C7087 C9041 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection set containing powder for injection 20 mg, 1 and diluent, 1 | Injection | Somavert | C9041 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Injection set containing powder for injection 20 mg, 30 and diluent, 30 | Injection | Somavert | C7087 C9041 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Plerixafor | Injection 24 mg in 1.2 mL | Injection | Plerixafor ARX | C4549 C9329 |
| 1 | 1 |
|
|
| PLERIXAFOR EUGIA | C4549 C9329 |
| 1 | 1 |
Pomalidomide | Capsule 1 mg | Oral | Pomolide | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Pomalidomide Sandoz | C13746 C13755 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 2 mg | Oral | Pomolide | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Pomalidomide Sandoz | C13746 C13755 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 3 mg | Oral | Pomalidomide Sandoz | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Pomolide | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Capsule 4 mg | Oral | Pomalidomide Sandoz | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Pomolide | C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Raltegravir | Tablet 400 mg (as potassium) | Oral | Isentress | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Tablet 600 mg (as potassium) | Oral | Isentress HD | C4454 C4512 |
| 120 | 5 |
Ravulizumab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 3 mL | Injection | Ultomiris | C14748 C16368 C17055 C17605 C17606 C17609 C17610 C17629 C17630 C17631 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18134 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18237 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18283 C18350 C18351 C18423 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1,100 mg in 11 mL | Injection | Ultomiris | C14748 C16368 C17055 C17605 C17606 C17609 C17610 C17629 C17630 C17631 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18134 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18237 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18283 C18350 C18351 C18423 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Rifabutin | Capsule 150 mg | Oral | Mycobutin | C6350 C6356 C9560 C9622 |
| 120 | 5 |
Rilpivirine | Tablet 25 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Edurant | C4454 C4512 |
| 60 | 5 |
Riociguat | Tablet 500 micrograms | Oral | Adempas | C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1 mg | Oral | Adempas | C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1.5 mg | Oral | Adempas | C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 2 mg | Oral | Adempas | C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 2.5 mg | Oral | Adempas | C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Risdiplam | Powder for oral solution 750 micrograms per mL, 80 mL | Oral | Evrysdi | C14392 C14420 C15095 C15986 C18087 C18090 C18118 C18197 C18356 C18357 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 5 mg | Oral | Evrysdi | C14420 C18225 C18306 C18307 C18308 C18369 C18479 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Ritonavir | Tablet 100 mg | Oral | Norvir | C4454 C4512 |
| 720 | 5 |
Rituximab | Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Riximyo |
|
| 6 | 0 |
|
|
| Ruxience |
|
| 6 | 0 |
|
|
| Truxima |
|
| 6 | 0 |
| Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 50 mL | Injection | Riximyo |
|
| 2 | 1 |
|
|
| Ruxience |
|
| 2 | 1 |
|
|
| Truxima |
|
| 2 | 1 |
Romiplostim | Powder for injection 375 micrograms | Injection | Nplate | C13396 C14099 C14149 C18405 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Powder for injection 625 micrograms | Injection | Nplate | C13396 C14099 C14149 C18405 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Rozanolixizumab | Solution for subcutaneous infusion 280 mg in 2 mL (140 mg per mL) | Injection | Rystiggo | C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378 C18789 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Ruxolitinib | Tablet 5 mg | Oral | Jakavi | C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911 | P13907 P13911 | 56 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911 | P13876 P13892 | 56 | 5 |
| Tablet 10 mg | Oral | Jakavi | C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911 | P13907 P13911 | 56 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911 | P13876 P13892 | 56 | 5 |
Selexipag | Tablet 200 micrograms | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 C11261 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 400 micrograms | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 600 micrograms | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 800 micrograms | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 C11261 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1 mg | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1.2 mg | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1.4 mg | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet 1.6 mg | Oral | Uptravi | C11193 C11195 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Selinexor | Tablet 20 mg | Oral | Xpovio | C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045 | P14021 P14045 | 16 | 2 |
|
|
|
| C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045 | P14023 P14024 | 20 | 2 |
|
|
|
| C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045 | P14031 P14039 | 32 | 2 |
Sevelamer | Tablet containing sevelamer carbonate 800 mg | Oral | ARX-SEVELAMER | C5530 C9762 |
| 360 | 5 |
|
|
| Sevelamer Lupin | C5530 C9762 |
| 360 | 5 |
| Tablet containing sevelamer hydrochloride 800 mg | Oral | Renagel | C5530 C9762 |
| 360 | 5 |
Sildenafil | Tablet 20 mg (as citrate) | Oral | SILDATIO PHT | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Sildenafil PHT APOTEX | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| SILDENAFIL PHT ARX | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Sildenafil Sandoz PHT 20 | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Siltuximab | Powder for injection 100 mg | Injection | Sylvant | C12585 C12594 |
| 2 | 4 |
| Powder for injection 400 mg | Injection | Sylvant | C12585 C12594 |
| 2 | 4 |
Sirolimus | Oral solution 1 mg per mL, 60 mL | Oral | Rapamune | C5795 C9914 |
| 2 | 5 |
| Tablet 0.5 mg | Oral | Rapamune | C5795 C9914 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Tablet 1 mg | Oral | Rapamune | C5795 C9914 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Tablet 2 mg | Oral | Rapamune | C5795 C9914 |
| 200 | 5 |
Sofosbuvir with velpatasvir | Tablet containing 400 mg sofosbuvir with 100 mg velpatasvir | Oral | Epclusa | C5969 |
| 28 | 2 |
Sofosbuvir with velpatasvir and voxilaprevir | Tablet containing 400 mg sofosbuvir with 100 mg velpatasvir and 100 mg voxilaprevir | Oral | Vosevi | C10248 |
| 28 | 2 |
Sucroferric oxyhydroxide | Tablet, chewable, 2.5 g (equivalent to 500 mg iron) | Oral | Velphoro | C5530 C9762 |
| 180 | 5 |
Tacrolimus | Capsule 0.5 mg | Oral | Pacrolim | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Tacrolimus 0.5 | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Prograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Capsule 0.5 mg (once daily prolonged release) | Oral | ADVAGRAF XL | C5569 C9697 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus XR Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Capsule 0.75 mg | Oral | Tacrolimus Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Capsule 1 mg | Oral | Pacrolim | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Pharmacor Tacrolimus 1 | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Prograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Capsule 1 mg (once daily prolonged release) | Oral | ADVAGRAF XL | C5569 C9697 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus XR Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 120 | 5 |
| Capsule 2 mg | Oral | Tacrolimus Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 200 | 5 |
| Capsule 3 mg (once daily prolonged release) | Oral | ADVAGRAF XL | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 3 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus XR Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 3 |
| Capsule 5 mg | Oral | Pharmacor Tacrolimus 5 | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 5 |
|
|
| Prograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrograf | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 100 | 5 |
| Capsule 5 mg (once daily prolonged release) | Oral | ADVAGRAF XL | C5569 C9697 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Tacrolimus XR Sandoz | C5569 C9697 |
| 60 | 5 |
Tadalafil | Tablet 20 mg | Oral | Adcirca | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Tadalca | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| TADALIS 20 | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Tadalis 20 | C15463 C15495 C15525 C18780 C18824 C18852 C18872 C18884 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Teduglutide | Powder for injection 5 mg with diluent | Injection | Revestive | C11999 C18198 C18493 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Tenofovir | Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg | Oral | TENOFOVIR ARX | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P10362 | 60 | 2 |
|
|
| Tenofovir Sandoz | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P10362 | 60 | 2 |
|
|
| TENOFOVIR ARX | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998 | 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Tenofovir Sandoz | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998 | 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg | Oral | Tenofovir Disoproxil Viatris | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P10362 | 60 | 2 |
|
|
| Tenofovir Disoproxil Viatris | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998 | 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil phosphate 291 mg | Oral | Tenofovir GH | C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P10362 | 60 | 2 |
|
|
|
| C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362 | P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998 | 60 | 5 |
Tenofovir alafenamide with emtricitabine, elvitegravir and cobicistat | Tablet containing tenofovir alafenamide 10 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg, elvitegravir 150 mg and cobicistat 150 mg | Oral | Genvoya | C4470 C4522 |
| 60 | 5 |
Tenofovir with emtricitabine | Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg | Oral | CIPLA TENOFOVIR + EMTRICITABINE 300/200 | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| TENOFOVIR/EMTRICITABINE 300/200 APX | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| TENOFOVIR/EMTRICITABINE 300/200 ARX | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
|
|
| Tenofovir/Emtricitabine Sandoz Pharma 300/200 | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg | Oral | Tenofovir Disoproxil Emtricitabine Viatris 300/200 | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil succinate 301 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg | Oral | Tenofovir/Emtricitabine Sandoz 301/200 | C6985 C6986 |
| 60 | 5 |
Tenofovir with emtricitabine and efavirenz | Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg and efavirenz 600 mg (s19A) | Oral | Efavirenz, Emtricitabine and Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate Tablet 600 mg/200 mg/ | C4470 C4522 |
| 60 | 5 |
| Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg and efavirenz 600 mg | Oral | Tenofovir Disoproxil Emtricitabine Efavirenz Viatris 300/200/600 | C4470 C4522 |
| 60 | 5 |
Tezacaftor with ivacaftor and ivacaftor | Pack containing 28 tablets tezacaftor 100 mg with ivacaftor 150 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 150 mg | Oral | Symdeko | C17844 C17935 C17968 C17969 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Tezepelumab | Solution for injection 210 mg in 1.91 mL single dose pre-filled pen (110 mg per mL) | Injection | Tezspire | C18729 C18732 C18792 C18793 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Thalidomide | Capsule 50 mg | Oral | Thalomid | C5914 C9290 |
| 112 | 0 |
| Capsule 100 mg | Oral | Thalomid | C5914 C9290 |
| 56 | 0 |
Tocilizumab | Concentrate for injection 80 mg in 4 mL | Injection | Actemra | C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Concentrate for injection 200 mg in 10 mL | Injection | Actemra | C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Concentrate for injection 400 mg in 20 mL | Injection | Actemra | C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Ublituximab | Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 150 mg in 6 mL | Injection | Briumvi | C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635 | P7386 P9635 | 3 | 0 |
|
|
|
| C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635 | P7699 P9523 | 4 | 0 |
Ustekinumab | Solution for I.V. infusion 130 mg in 26 mL | Injection | Stelara | C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Steqeyma | C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
|
|
| Wezlana | C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Valaciclovir | Tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | APX Valaciclovir | C5975 C9267 |
| 500 | 2 |
|
|
| Valaciclovir RBX | C5975 C9267 |
| 500 | 2 |
|
|
| Valtrex | C5975 C9267 |
| 500 | 2 |
Valganciclovir | Powder for oral solution 50 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 100 mL | Oral | Valcyte | C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814 |
| 11 | 5 |
| Tablet 450 mg (as hydrochloride) | Oral | Valganciclovir Sandoz | C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814 |
| 120 | 5 |
|
|
| Valganciclovir Viatris | C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814 |
| 120 | 5 |
Vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor | Tablet containing 4 mg vanzacaftor (as calcium) with 20 mg tezacaftor and with 50 mg deutivacaftor | Oral | Alyftrek | C17769 C17932 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Tablet containing 10 mg vanzacaftor (as calcium) with 50 mg tezacaftor and with 125 mg deutivacaftor | Oral | Alyftrek | C17769 C17932 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Vedolizumab | Powder for injection 300 mg | Injection | Entyvio | C15844 C15909 C15910 C15923 C15933 C16169 C16181 C16216 C16239 C18759 C18760 C18805 C18806 C18807 C18863 C18906 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Vutrisiran | Injection 25 mg (as sodium) in 0.5 mL pre-filled syringe | Injection | Amvuttra | C16434 C16446 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Zidovudine | Capsule 100 mg | Oral | Retrovir | C4454 C4512 |
| 400 | 5 |
| Capsule 250 mg | Oral | Retrovir | C4454 C4512 |
| 240 | 5 |
| Syrup 10 mg per mL, 200 mL | Oral | Retrovir | C4454 C4512 |
| 15 | 5 |
Zilucoplan | Solution for injection 16.6 mg in 0.416 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe | Oral | Zilbrysq | C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Solution for injection 23 mg in 0.574 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe | Oral | Zilbrysq | C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
| Solution for injection 32.4 mg in 0.810 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe | Oral | Zilbrysq | C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378 |
| See Schedule 2 | See Schedule 2 |
Zoledronic acid | Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 4 mg (as monohydrate) in 5 mL | Injection | DEZTRON | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P14729 P14735 | 1 | 0 |
|
|
| Zoledronate-DRLA 4 | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P14729 P14735 | 1 | 0 |
|
|
| Zoledronic Acid Accord | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P14729 P14735 | 1 | 0 |
|
|
| APO Zoledronic Acid | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 |
| 1 | 11 |
|
|
| DEZTRON | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328 | 1 | 11 |
|
|
| Zoledronate‑DRLA 4 | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328 | 1 | 11 |
|
|
| Zoledronic Acid Accord | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735 | P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328 | 1 | 11 |
|
|
| Zometa | C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 |
| 1 | 11 |
Schedule 2—Maximum quantities and repeats for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits
Note: See sections 20 and 21, and the columns headed “Maximum quantity” and “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1.
1 Maximum quantity or number of units and maximum number of repeats
The following table sets out the maximum quantity or number of units, and the maximum number of repeats, for prescribing HSD pharmaceutical benefits with the listed drugs, and in the circumstances, mentioned in the table.
Maximum quantity or number of units, and maximum number of repeats | |||
Listed drug | Circumstances | Maximum quantity | Maximum repeats |
Abatacept | C14488 C18274 | 1 dose | Sufficient for treatment for 16 weeks |
| C14507 C14555 C14604 C18273 | 1 dose | Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks |
| C18169 C18272 | 1 dose | 4 |
Adalimumab | C12120 C17717 C17719 C17733 | 2 doses | 3 |
| C17707 C17713 C17734 | 2 doses | 5 |
Ambrisentan | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Anifrolumab | C15387 C18465 | 1 | 5 |
Avatrombopag | C14054 C15340 C15375 C18297 | 30 | 5 |
Azacitidine | C12439 C12983 C13010 C13029 | 14 units | 2 |
| C12986 C13011 C13012 C13015 | 14 units | 5 |
Benralizumab | C15376 C15884 C18874 | 1 | Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment |
| C18271 | 1 | Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment |
Bosentan | C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
| C12425 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 0 |
Burosumab | C13330 C13377 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
Difelikefalin | C15171 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 2 |
| C15211 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
Dupilumab | C17009 C17113 C18269 | 1 pack | Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment |
| C15886 C17016 C17072 C17073 C18464 C18858 C18889 | 1 pack | Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment |
Eculizumab | C14781 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 0 |
| C17675 | 1 | 0 |
| C14750 C14792 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 4 |
| C14753 C14754 C14793 C14799 C14805 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
| C17602 C17626 C17651 C17693 C17697 | 6 | 5 |
| C17630 C17673 C17684 | 8 | 0 |
Eflornithine | C16841 C17735 C17753 | 3 packs | 2 |
Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor | C17770 C17772 C17846 C17937 C17970 C17971 | 1 pack | 5 |
Eltrombopag | C13327 C14127 C14129 C18210 | 1 pack | 5 |
| C18209 | 3 packs | 3 |
| C15173 C16455 | 3 packs | 5 |
Epoprostenol | C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Etanercept | C12120 C17706 C17724 C17725 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 3 |
| C17707 C17713 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
Iloprost | C13491 C13506 C13577 C18294 C18403 C18802 C18859 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Infliximab | C8844 C8940 C9188 C9472 C9584 C9602 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14585 C14638 C18343 | 1 dose of 3 mg per kg of patient weight | 2 |
| C14502 C14544 C14548 C14623 C18165 C18267 C18345 | 1 dose of 3 mg per kg of patient weight | 3 |
| C7777 C8296 C9068 C9732 C9754 C9787 C12042 C12059 C12074 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18164 C18196 C18285 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18437 C18441 C18466 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868 | 1 dose of 5 mg per kg of patient weight | 2 |
| C9111 C9559 C11158 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C18158 C18162 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18263 C18287 C18340 C18352 C18436 C18439 C18462 C18468 C18469 | 1 dose of 5 mg per kg of patient weight | 3 |
| C4524 C9632 | 5 vials | 1 |
Ivacaftor | C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878 | 1 pack | Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment |
| C16928 C16971 | 1 pack | 2 |
Lenalidomide | C13785 C13811 | 14 tablets | 3 |
| C13813 | 21 tablets | 1 |
| C13782 C14362 C17414 | 21 tablets | 2 |
| C13786 C13801 C13810 | 21 tablets | 3 |
| C13787 C13803 C13805 C13812 | 21 tablets | 5 |
| C13791 C13804 | 28 tablets | 2 |
Lumacaftor with ivacaftor | C17763 C17765 C17842 C17933 C17934 C17967 | 1 pack | 5 |
Macitentan | C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Macitentan with tadalafil | C16433 C16457 | 1 pack | 5 |
Mepolizumab | C18271 | 1 | Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment |
| C15376 C15849 C18830 | 1 | Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment |
| C13865 C18284 | 1 | 5 |
Midostaurin | C11699 C13001 C13013 | 1 pack | 2 |
Nusinersen | C14433 C14459 C15069 C15112 | 1 dose | 0 |
| C18053 C18073 C18076 C18077 C18078 C18094 C18101 C18110 | 1 dose | 3 |
Omalizumab | C16906 | Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment | 2 |
| C7046 C15347 C16846 C16905 C16949 C16960 C17084 C17085 C17086 C17096 C17102 | Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment | 5 |
| C17075 C17284 | Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment | 6 |
| C15870 C18731 | Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment | 7 |
| C17012 | Sufficient for up to 28 weeks of treatment | 0 |
| C15376 | Sufficient for up to 32 weeks of treatment | 0 |
Onasemnogene abeparvovec | C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213 | 1 dose | 0 |
Pasireotide | C9088 C9089 | 2 | 5 |
Patisiran | C15453 C15501 | 1 pack | 7 |
Pegcetacoplan | C17601 C17623 C17683 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 0 |
| C17598 C17599 C17622 C17647 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
Pegvisomant | C7087 C9041 | 1 | 5 |
Pomalidomide | C13757 C13768 | 1 pack (14 capsules) | 2 |
| C13746 C13755 | 1 pack (21 capsules) | 0 |
Ravulizumab | C17055 C17605 C17606 C17610 C17630 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18237 C18283 C18350 C18351 | 1 dose | 0 |
| C18134 | 1 dose | 1 |
| C14748 C16368 C17609 C17629 C17631 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18423 | 1 dose | 2 |
Riociguat | C18200 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 3 |
| C13514 C18215 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 4 |
| C13502 C15271 C15272 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Risdiplam | C18087 C18090 C18118 C18357 | 1 | 0 |
| C15095 C15986 | 1 | 5 |
| C14392 C14420 C18197 | 3 | 5 |
| C18356 | 3 | 7 |
| C14420 C18225 C18306 C18307 C18308 C18369 C18479 | 28 | 5 |
Romiplostim | C18405 | 1 vial | 5 |
| C13396 C14099 | Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks | 5 |
| C14149 | 1 vial | Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks |
Rozanolixizumab | C18319 | 18 | 1 |
| C18129 C18232 C18378 C18789 | 18 | 2 |
Selexipag | C11193 C11195 | 60 | 5 |
| C11261 | 140 | Sufficient for treatment for 12 weeks |
Sildenafil | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
Tadalafil | C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876 | Sufficient for treatment for 1 month | 5 |
| C15463 C15495 C15525 C18780 C18824 C18852 C18872 C18884 | 60 tablets | 5 |
Teduglutide | C18198 | 1 pack | 5 |
| C11999 C18493 | 1 pack | 11 |
Tezacaftor with Ivacaftor and Ivacaftor | C17844 C17935 C17968 C17969 | 1 pack | 5 |
Tezepelumab | C18729 | 1 pack | 5 |
| C18732 C18792 C18793 | 1 pack | 7 |
Tocilizumab | C9386 C12120 C14488 C14507 C17712 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18280 C18282 C18348 | 1 infusion | 3 |
| C9380 C14485 C14621 C17707 C17713 C18279 C18346 | 1 infusion | 5 |
| C10570 C14085 C14091 C14148 | 2 infusions | 3 |
| C14093 C14179 | 2 infusions | 5 |
Ustekinumab | C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856 | 4 vials (130 mg each) | 0 |
Vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor | C17769 C17932 | 1 pack | 5 |
Vedolizumab | C18760 | 1 | 0 |
| C15844 C15910 C15923 C15933 C16169 C16181 C16216 C16239 C18759 C18805 C18806 C18863 C18906 | 1 | 2 |
| C15909 C18807 | 1 | Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks |
Vutrisiran | C16434 C16446 | 1 | 1 |
Zilucoplan | C18319 | 28 units | 2 |
| C18128 C18129 C18232 C18378 | 28 units | 5 |
Schedule 3—Circumstances and purposes
Note: See sections 13, 15, 16, 20 and 21.
1 Circumstances and purposes
The following table sets out circumstances and purposes for circumstances codes and purposes codes.
Listed Drug | Circumstances Code | Purposes Code | Circumstances and Purposes | Authority Requirements—Part of Circumstances |
Abacavir | C4454 |
| HIV infection Patient must have previously received PBS‑subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4454 |
| C4512 |
| HIV infection Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4512 |
| C13920 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Abacavir with Lamivudine | C4527 |
| HIV infection Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4527 |
| C4528 |
| HIV infection Patient must have previously received PBS‑subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4528 |
Abatacept | C14488 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14507 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14555 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14555 |
| C14604 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14604 |
| C18169 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the application must include details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be documented in the application, if applicable. The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity. The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months. If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided in the authority application. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion. Up to a maximum of 4 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18272 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Patients who have received PBS-subsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores. Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; AND either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion. Up to a maximum of 4 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBS-subsidised biological therapy treatment-free period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18273 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis First continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; AND either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18274 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Adalimumab | C12120 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17707 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17707 |
| C17713 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17713 |
| C17717 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 2 active major joints; (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Active major joints are defined as: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of this application and must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 10 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of active major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of active major joints. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and (b) the date of the last continuing prescription. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17719 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR Patient must have demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be under 18 years of age. Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours. Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis. If treatment with methotrexate alone or in combination with another DMARD is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be documented in the patient's medical records. If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be documented in the patient's medical records. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: (a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis. The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and (b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17733 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17734 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised treatment - Grandfather arrangements Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 January 2026; AND Patient must have, prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition, demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR Patient must have, prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition, demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must be under 18 years of age, prior to commencement of this drug for this condition. Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours. Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: (a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis. The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and (b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment. The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Alemtuzumab | C6847 | P6847 | Multiple sclerosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6847 |
| C7714 | P7714 | Multiple sclerosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7714 |
| C9589 | P9589 | Multiple sclerosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9589 |
| C9636 | P9636 | Multiple sclerosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9636 |
Ambrisentan | C11229 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13497 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13575 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18737 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 2 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension is established through a prior PBS authority application The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; prior monotherapy has been inadequate - the patient has at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate - the patient has WHO functional class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18741 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial treatment 2 - Change of treatment Patient must have had their most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. PAH agents are not PBS-subsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to re-qualify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted. Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction. The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information. A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18743 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; OR Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with dual combination therapy consisting of endothelin receptor antagonist with phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor where one drug was prescribed as a non-PBS benefit. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18752 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 - combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; this combination therapy is treating a patient with at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18836 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial treatment 1 - New patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information. A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Anakinra | C5450 |
| Moderate to severe cryopyrin associated periodic syndromes (CAPS) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5450 |
Anifrolumab | C15387 |
| Systemic lupus erythematosus Continuing or recommencement of treatment (within 12 months of a treatment break) Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND Patient must be responding to treatment if they have received less than 12 months of treatment with this drug for this condition; OR Patient must have attained a Lupus Low Disease Activity State (LLDAS) and maintained this state while on treatment. Must be treated by a specialist physician experienced in the management of this condition. Lupus Low Disease Activity State (LLDAS) is defined as: (a) Total SLEDAI-2K of not greater than 4, with no major activity in major organ systems (renal, central nervous system (CNS), cardiopulmonary, vasculitis, fever); and (b) No new features of lupus disease activity compared with the previous assessment, and (c) Physician Global Assessment (PGA) of not greater than 1, and (d) Current prednisolone (or equivalent) dose of not greater than 7.5 mg daily, and (e) Well tolerated standard maintenance doses of anti-malarial and immunosuppressive drugs are allowed. Where retreatment with anifrolumab after a break in PBS-subsidised treatment with anifrolumab is being sought, the date of cessation of the previous treatment course with anifrolumab must be included in the application. Recommencement of treatment with anifrolumab for severe SLE is within 12 months from the date that treatment was ceased. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18465 |
| Systemic lupus erythematosus Initial treatment Patient must have a confirmed and documented diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) according to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR)/European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) SLE Classification Criteria 2019; AND Patient must have persistent disease activity as supported by a SLE Disease Activity Index 2000 (SLEDAI-2K) score of at least 10 points; AND Patient must be currently receiving hydroxychloroquine, with treatment received for at least 12 weeks, unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND Patient must be currently receiving immunosuppressant medication, with treatment received for at least 12 weeks, with either: (i) minimum dose of methotrexate 20 mg per week, (ii) azathioprine 100 mg per day, (iii) mycophenolate 1,000 mg per day unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND Patient must be currently receiving prednisolone or equivalent of at least 7.5 mg per day, with treatment received for at least 4 weeks, unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND Patient must not have either: (i) severe active lupus nephritis, (ii) severe active central nervous system systemic lupus erythematosus. Must be treated by a specialist physician experienced in the management of this condition. If prednisolone or equivalent is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated of at least 7.5 mg per day, the patient must have received at least 12 weeks of continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; (iii) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (iv) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day. Where two of: (i) hydroxychloroquine; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; or (iii) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (iv) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day, are either contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to prednisolone or equivalent: at least one of the remaining tolerated therapies must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above. If the patient has a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) prednisolone or equivalent of at least 7.5 mg per day; (ii) hydroxychloroquine; (iii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; (iv) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (v) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application. The authority application must be made in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (a) details of the ACR/EULAR SLE Classification Criteria 2019 confirming diagnosis of SLE; (b) details (date and score) of the completed SLEDAI-2K score sheet; (c) details of current systemic therapy used (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy including prior anifrolumab use); (d) details of contraindication/intolerances to prior therapies (drug name, the degree of toxicity and dose). All the reports must be documented in the patient's medical records. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Apomorphine | C10830 |
| Parkinson disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10830 |
| C10863 |
| Parkinson disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10863 |
| C11385 |
| Parkinson disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 11385 |
| C11445 |
| Parkinson disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 11445 |
Atazanavir with cobicistat | C4454 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4454 |
| C4512 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4512 |
Avatrombopag | C14054 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C15340 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia Balance of supply or change of therapy The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition; AND Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the First Continuing treatment or Re-initiation of interrupted continuing treatment restriction; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Second or Subsequent Continuing treatment restriction; OR Patient must be changing therapy from romiplostim or eltrombopag to this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment under this restriction. Patients receiving treatment with romiplostim or eltrombopag may change to avatrombopag under this restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C15375 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia First Continuing treatment or Re-initiation of interrupted continuing treatment The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction if the patient has not had a treatment break, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; OR Patient must have changed treatment from either romiplostim or eltrombopag to this drug under the Balance of Supply/Change of Therapy restriction and demonstrated a sustained response; OR Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to the most recent PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to interrupted treatment, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition. For the purposes of this restriction, a sustained response is defined as the patient having the ability to maintain a platelet count sufficient to prevent clinically significant bleeding based on clinical assessment. The platelet count must be conducted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent PBS-subsidised course of treatment with this drug and must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18297 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia Initial treatment - New patient The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, corticosteroid therapy; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, immunoglobulin therapy; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to corticosteroid and/or immunoglobulin therapy and must be demonstrated at the time of initial application; (a) a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 million per L; OR (b) a platelet count of 20,000 million to 30,000 million per L, where the patient is experiencing significant bleeding or has a history of significant bleeding in this platelet range. The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (a) details of a platelet count supporting the diagnosis of ITP. All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records. A maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug will be authorised under this criterion. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Azacitidine | C12439 |
| Acute Myeloid Leukaemia The treatment must be used in combination with venetoclax (refer to Product Information for timing of azacitidine and venetoclax doses). | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C12983 |
| Myelodysplastic syndrome | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C12986 |
| Acute Myeloid Leukaemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 12986 |
| C13010 |
| Acute Myeloid Leukaemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13011 |
| Myelodysplastic syndrome | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13012 |
| Acute Myeloid Leukaemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 13012 |
| C13015 |
| Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13029 |
| Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Azithromycin | C6356 |
| Mycobacterium avium complex infection The treatment must be for prophylaxis; AND Patient must be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive; AND Patient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 75 per cubic millimetre. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6356 |
| C9604 |
| Mycobacterium avium complex infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9604 |
Baclofen | C6911 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6911 |
| C6925 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6925 |
| C6939 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6939 |
| C6940 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6940 |
| C7134 |
| Severe chronic spasticity Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND Patient must have chronic spasticity due to multiple sclerosis. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7134 |
| C7148 |
| Severe chronic spasticity Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7148 |
| C7152 |
| Severe chronic spasticity Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND Patient must have chronic spasticity of cerebral origin. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7152 |
| C7153 |
| Severe chronic spasticity Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord injury. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7153 |
| C9488 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9488 |
| C9489 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9489 |
| C9524 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9524 |
| C9525 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9525 |
| C9562 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9562 |
| C9606 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9606 |
| C9637 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9637 |
| C9638 |
| Severe chronic spasticity | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9638 |
Benralizumab | C15376 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Balance of supply Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 1 (new patients or recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle) restriction to complete 32 weeks treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 2 (change of treatment) restriction to complete 32 weeks treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND The treatment must not provide more than the balance of up to 32 weeks of treatment if the most recent authority approval was made under an Initial treatment restriction; OR The treatment must not provide more than the balance of up to 24 weeks of treatment if the most recent authority approval was made under the Continuing treatment restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C15884 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine. An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 4 repeats to provide for an initial course sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, based on a dose of 30 mg every 4 weeks for the first three doses (weeks 0, 4, and 8) then 30 mg every eight weeks thereafter (refer to the TGA-approved Product Information). A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and (b) details (date and duration of treatment) of prior biological medicine treatment; and (c) eosinophil count and date; and (d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and (e) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18271 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Continuing treatment Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as: (a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR (b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in ACQ-5 score from baseline or an increase in ACQ-5 score from baseline less than or equal to 0.5. All applications for second and subsequent continuing treatments with this drug must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment or the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made from 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed. The assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. Where treatment was ceased for clinical reasons despite the patient experiencing improvement, an assessment of the patient's response to treatment made at the time of treatment cessation or retrospectively will be considered to determine whether the patient demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment. A patient who fails to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for uncontrolled severe asthma will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for severe asthma within the current treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of this drug sufficient for up to 24 weeks of therapy. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following information must be provided at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records: (a) if applicable, details of maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and (b) a completed Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18874 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patients; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND Patient must have a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; AND Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated. If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application: (a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND (b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime. A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 4 repeats to provide for an initial course of benralizumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 30 mg every 4 weeks for the first three doses (weeks 0, 4, and 8) then 30 mg every eight weeks thereafter. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and (b) if applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and (c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and (d) the eosinophil count and date; and (e) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide | C4470 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4470 |
C4522 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4522 | |
Bosentan | C11229 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C12425 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13497 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13571 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18737 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 2 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension is established through a prior PBS authority application The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; prior monotherapy has been inadequate - the patient has at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate - the patient has WHO functional class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18738 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial treatment 1 - New patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. If patients will be taking 62.5mg for the first month then 125 mg, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information and no repeats. Prescribers should request the second authority prescription of therapy with the 125 mg tablet strengths, with a quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information, and a maximum of 4 repeats. If patients will be taking 62.5mg for longer than 1 month, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment and a maximum of 5 repeats based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18743 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; OR Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with dual combination therapy consisting of endothelin receptor antagonist with phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor where one drug was prescribed as a non-PBS benefit. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18752 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 - combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; this combination therapy is treating a patient with at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18833 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial treatment 2 - Change of treatment Patient must have had their most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. PAH agents are not PBS-subsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to re-qualify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted. Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction. If patients will be taking 62.5mg for the first month then 125 mg, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information and no repeats. Prescribers should request the second authority prescription of therapy with the 125 mg tablet strengths, with a quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information, and a maximum of 4 repeats. If patients will be taking 62.5mg for longer than 1 month, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment and a maximum of 5 repeats based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Buprenorphine | C16009 |
| Opioid dependence The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment. The prescriber must request a quantity sufficient for up to 28 days of supply per dispensing according to the patient's daily dose. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised. The maximum listed quantity or number of repeats must not be prescribed if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16009 |
| C16015 |
| Opioid dependence Must be treated by a health care professional. The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment; AND Patient must be stabilised on one of the following prior to commencing treatment with this drug for this condition: (i) weekly prolonged release buprenorphine (Buvidal Weekly) (ii) sublingual buprenorphine (iii) buprenorphine/naloxone. The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16015 |
| C16050 |
| Opioid dependence Must be treated by a health care professional. The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment; AND Patient must be stabilised on sublingual buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone prior to commencing treatment with this drug for this condition. The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16050 |
| C16051 |
| Opioid dependence Must be treated by a health care professional. The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment. The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16051 |
Buprenorphine with naloxone | C16009 |
| Opioid dependence The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment. The prescriber must request a quantity sufficient for up to 28 days of supply per dispensing according to the patient's daily dose. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised. The maximum listed quantity or number of repeats must not be prescribed if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16009 |
Burosumab | C13330 |
| X‑linked hypophosphataemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13377 |
| X‑linked hypophosphataemia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Cabotegravir | C12619 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 12619 |
Cabotegravir and rilpivirine | C12636 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 12636 |
Ciclosporin | C6628 |
| Management of transplant rejection The treatment must be used by organ or tissue transplant recipients. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6628 |
| C6631 |
| Nephrotic syndrome Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) Patient must have failed prior treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; OR | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6631 |
| C6638 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) The condition must have been ineffective to prior treatment with classical slow‑acting anti‑rheumatic agents (including methotrexate); OR | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6638 |
| C6643 |
| Management of transplant rejection Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) Patient must have had an organ or tissue transplantation; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6643 |
| C6660 |
| Severe atopic dermatitis Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) Must be treated by a dermatologist; OR | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6660 |
| C9694 |
| Nephrotic syndrome | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9694 |
| C9695 |
| Severe atopic dermatitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9695 |
| C9742 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9742 |
| C9764 |
| Management of transplant rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9764 |
| C9831 |
| Management of transplant rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9831 |
| C15360 |
| Severe psoriasis Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies; AND The condition must have caused significant interference with quality of life. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either: (i) a dermatologist, (ii) a rheumatologist, (iii) general physician; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with one of the above specialist types who is either an accredited: (i) dermatology registrar, (ii) rheumatology registrar. For patients who do not demonstrate an adequate response to ciclosporin, a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment must be completed, preferably while on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following the cessation of treatment. This assessment will be required for patients who transition to 'biological medicines' for the treatment of 'severe chronic plaque psoriasis'. This assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15360 |
| C15361 |
| Severe psoriasis Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies; AND The condition must have caused significant interference with quality of life. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either: (i) a dermatologist, (ii) a rheumatologist, (iii) general physician; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with one of the above specialist types who is either an accredited: (i) dermatology registrar, (ii) rheumatology registrar. For patients who do not demonstrate an adequate response to ciclosporin, a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment must be completed, preferably while on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following the cessation of treatment. This assessment will be required for patients who transition to 'biological medicines' for the treatment of 'severe chronic plaque psoriasis'. This assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15361 |
Cinacalcet | C10063 |
| Secondary hyperparathyroidism | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10063 |
| C10067 |
| Secondary hyperparathyroidism | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10067 |
| C10073 |
| Secondary hyperparathyroidism | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Clozapine | C4998 |
| Schizophrenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4998 |
| C5015 |
| Schizophrenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5015 |
| C9490 |
| Schizophrenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9490 |
Darbepoetin Alfa | C6294 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease Patient must require transfusion; AND Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6294 |
| C9688 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9688 |
Darunavir | C4313 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy, AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents, AND The treatment must be co‑administered with 100 mg ritonavir, AND Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen, AND Patient must not have demonstrated darunavir resistance associated mutations detected on resistance testing. Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatment‑limiting toxicity. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4313 |
| C5094 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy, AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents, AND The treatment must be co‑administered with 100 mg ritonavir twice daily, AND Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen. Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatment‑limiting toxicity. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5094 |
Darunavir with cobicistat | C6377 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy; AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir; AND Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen. Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatment‑limiting toxicity. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6377 |
| C6413 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection Initial treatment Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6413 |
| C6428 |
| Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection Continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS‑subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6428 |
Darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide | C10317 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10317 |
| C10324 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10324 |
Deferasirox | C7374 | P7374 | Chronic iron overload Initial treatment Patient must not be transfusion dependent; AND The condition must be thalassaemia. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C7375 | P7375 | Chronic iron overload Initial treatment Patient must be transfusion dependent; AND Patient must not have a malignant disorder of erythropoiesis. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C7385 | P7385 | Chronic iron overload Initial treatment Patient must be red blood cell transfusion dependent; AND Patient must have a serum ferritin level of greater than 1000 microgram/L; AND Patient must have a malignant disorder of haemopoiesis; AND Patient must have a median life expectancy exceeding five years. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C8326 | P8326 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8326 |
| C8328 | P8328 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8328 |
| C8329 | P8329 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8329 |
| C9222 | P9222 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9222 |
| C9258 | P9258 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9258 |
| C9302 | P9302 | Chronic iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9302 |
Deferiprone | C6403 |
| Iron overload Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND Patient must be one in whom desferrioxamine therapy has proven ineffective. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6403 |
| C6448 |
| Iron overload Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND Patient must be unable to take desferrioxamine therapy. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6448 |
| C9228 |
| Iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9228 |
| C9286 |
| Iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9286 |
| C9590 |
| Iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9590 |
| C9623 |
| Iron overload | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9623 |
Desferrioxamine | C6394 |
| Disorders of erythropoiesis The condition must be associated with treatment‑related chronic iron overload. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6394 |
| C9696 |
| Disorders of erythropoiesis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9696 |
Difelikefalin | C15171 |
| Moderate to severe pruritus (itching) associated with chronic kidney disease Initial treatment Patient must be on optimised haemodialysis; AND Patient must be on haemodialysis for at least 3 months; AND The condition must be confirmed based on both physical examination and patient history to exclude any factors that may be triggering the pruritus; AND Patient must have experienced itch that persists for at least 6 weeks despite best supportive care; AND Patient must have a 24-hour Worst Itching Intensity Numerical Rating Scale (WI-NRS) baseline score of more than 4; AND Patient must not receive more than 12 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a nephrologist. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Prescriber must exclude any other causes of pruritus which include any of the following: (i) drug/dialysis related (e.g., opioid-related pruritus); (ii) drug hypersensitivity or adverse effect; contact dermatitis; allergy; (iii) differential diagnoses (e.g., xerosis; infestations; iron deficiency; liver disease; polycythaemia vera/leukemia/lymphoma; hypothyroidism; uncontrolled diabetes). Best supportive care for patients with chronic kidney disease-associated pruritus is not limited to but includes: (i) optimisation of dialysis; (ii) skin hydration and nutrition (with the use of moisturiser, emollients, barrier creams or oils); (iii) patient education on the importance of avoiding or minimising scratching. Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the dry body weight of the patient (in kg), adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. No more than 4 doses per week will be authorised even if the number of haemodialysis treatments in a week exceeds 4. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C15211 |
| Moderate to severe pruritus (itching) associated with chronic kidney disease Continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug including at least a 3-point improvement from baseline in 24-hour Worst Itching Intensity Numerical Rating Scale (WI-NRS) score. Must be treated by a nephrologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with a nephrologist. Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the dry body weight of the patient (in kg), adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). Up to a maximum of 5 repeats will be authorised. No more than 4 doses per week will be authorised even if the number of haemodialysis treatments in a week exceeds 4. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Dolutegravir | C4454 |
| HIV infection Continuing Patient must have previously received PBS subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents | Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4454 |
| C4512 |
| HIV infection Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4512 |
Dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine | C9981 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9981 |
| C10116 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 10116 |
Dolutegravir with lamivudine | C9987 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9987 |
| C11066 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 11066 |
Dolutegravir with rilpivirine | C8214 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8214 |
| C8226 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8226 |
Dornase alfa | C5634 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5634 |
| C5635 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5635 |
| C5740 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5740 |
| C9591 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9591 |
| C9592 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9592 |
| C9624 |
| Cystic fibrosis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9624 |
Doxorubicin ‑ | C6234 |
| Kaposi sarcoma | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6234 |
| C6274 |
| Kaposi sarcoma | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6274 |
| C9223 |
| Kaposi sarcoma | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9223 |
| C9287 |
| Kaposi sarcoma | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9287 |
Dupilumab | C15886 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma, that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine. An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 400 mg as an initial dose, followed by 200 mg every 2 weeks thereafter. A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts. A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and (b) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior biological medicine treatment; and (c) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and (d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and (e) if applicable, the IgE result and date; and (f) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17009 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Continuing treatment Patient must have a documented history of either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician. Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years. An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as: (a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR (b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score from baseline, OR (c) a reduction in the time-adjusted exacerbation rates compared to the 12 months prior to baseline. All applications for continuing treatment with this biological medicine must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment, the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate must be made at around 20 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed. The first assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the date of assessment, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for this condition. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity and number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of dupilumab, sufficient for 24 weeks therapy. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and (b) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or (c) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score. The most recent Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17016 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy) Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR Patient must have had a break in treatment from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma in consultation with a respiratory physician, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility, (b) airway hyperresponsiveness, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability; AND Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb in the last 12 months; AND Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician. Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years. Optimised asthma therapy includes: (i) Adherence to optimal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least six months. If LABA therapy is contraindicated, not tolerated or not effective, montelukast, cromoglycate or nedocromil may be used as an alternative; AND (ii) treatment with at least 2 courses of oral or IV corticosteroids (daily or alternate day maintenance treatment courses, or 3-5 day exacerbation treatment courses), in the previous 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated. If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications (including those specified in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information) and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application. The initial IgE assessment, blood eosinophil count or fractional exhaled nitric oxide measurement must be no more than 12 months old at the time of application. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application: (a) An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month (for children aged 6 to 10 years it is recommended that the Interviewer Administered version - the ACQ-IA be used), AND (b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the previous 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of exacerbation rate should be made at around 28 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for this condition. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab of up to 32 weeks. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) details of prior optimised asthma drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (b) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and (c) the IgE, blood eosinophil or the fractional exhaled nitric oxide result and date; and (d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or (e) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17072 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) Patient must have had a total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR Patient must have had a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; AND Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine in this treatment cycle for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician. Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma or severe allergic asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-5-IA) assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made no more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine. An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-5-IA) assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be submitted no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the IgE, blood eosinophil or fractional exhaled nitric oxide result and date; and (b) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or (c) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score. (d) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment; and (e) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17073 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy), Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment), Continuing treatment, or transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements - Balance of Supply in a patient aged 6 to 12 years Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy) restriction to complete 32 weeks of treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) restriction to complete 32 weeks of treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 32 weeks treatment available under the Initial 1 and Initial 2 restriction; OR The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the Continuing and transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements restriction. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17113 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 September 2025; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist; (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma in consultation with a respiratory physician, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (i) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility, (ii) airway hyperresponsiveness, (iii) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability; AND Patient must have had a duration of asthma of at least 1 year prior to commencement of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug; AND Patient must have had a documented total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL measured no more than 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition, with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE no more than 12 months prior to initiation of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre in the 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR Patient must have had a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb in the 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have documented a failure to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, prior to initiating non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with this drug if the patient has received at least 28 weeks of treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician. Patient must have been aged 6 to less than 12 years prior to starting non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug. Optimised asthma therapy includes: (i) Adherence to optimal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least six months. If LABA therapy is contraindicated, not tolerated or not effective, montelukast, cromoglycate or nedocromil may be used as an alternative; AND (ii) treatment with at least 2 courses of oral or IV corticosteroids (daily or alternate day maintenance treatment courses, or 3-5 day exacerbation treatment courses), in the previous 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated. If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications (including those specified in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information) and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application. An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as: (a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR (b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score from baseline, OR (c) a reduction in the time-adjusted exacerbation rates compared to the 12 months prior to baseline. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:(a) An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed prior to non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition (for children aged 6 to 10 years it is recommended that the Interviewer Administered version - the ACQ-IA be used), AND(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the prior to non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate to determine whether the patient has achieved or sustained an adequate response to non-PBS subsidised treatment, must be conducted immediately (no later than 4 weeks after the last dose of non-PBS-subsidised treatment) prior to this application if the treatment duration has been at least 28 weeks All applications for continuing treatment with this biological medicine must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment, the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate must be made at around 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed. The first assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the date of assessment, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug for this condition. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date of the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity and number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of dupilumab, sufficient for 24 weeks of therapy. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) prior optimised asthma drug therapy (date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (b) IgE, blood eosinophils or fractional exhaled nitric oxide results and date from prior to initiating non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug; and (c) date of commencing non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. (d) If applicable, maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and (e) If applicable, the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) scores, including the date of assessment of the patient's symptoms; or (f) If applicable, the Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) scores, including the date of assessment of the patient's symptoms. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18269 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Continuing treatment Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as: (a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR (b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in ACQ-5 score from baseline or an increase in ACQ-5 score from baseline less than or equal to 0.5. All applications for second and subsequent continuing treatments with this drug must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment or the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made from 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and, for the application for continuing therapy to be processed. The assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. Where treatment was ceased for clinical reasons despite the patient experiencing improvement, an assessment of the patient's response to treatment made at the time of treatment cessation or retrospectively will be considered to determine whether the patient demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment. A patient who fails to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for uncontrolled severe asthma will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for severe asthma within the current treatment cycle. A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of this drug sufficient for up to 24 weeks of therapy. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following information must be provided at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records: (a) if applicable, details of maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and (b) a completed Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18464 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR Patient must have each of: (i) total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL measured no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma, (ii) past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE in the past 12 months or in the 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; AND Patient must have received regular maintenance oral corticosteroids (OCS) in the last 6 months with a stable daily OCS dose of 5 to 35 mg/day of prednisolone or equivalent over the 4 weeks prior to treatment initiation; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine. An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy at a dose of 600 mg as an initial dose, followed by 300 mg every 2 weeks thereafter. A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts. A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and (b) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior biological medicine treatment; and (c) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and (d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and (e) if applicable, the IgE result and date; and (f) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18858 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment 1 - (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND Patient must have been receiving regular maintenance oral corticosteroids (OCS) in the last 6 months with a stable daily OCS dose of 5 to 35 mg/day of prednisolone or equivalent over the 4 weeks prior to treatment initiation; AND Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured in the last 12 months that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. Optimised asthma therapy includes: (i) Adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated; AND (ii) treatment with oral corticosteroids as outlined in the clinical criteria. If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application: (a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND (b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime. A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 600 mg as an initial dose, followed by 300 mg every 2 weeks thereafter. A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and (b) If applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and (c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and (d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; and (e) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and (f) if applicable, the IgE result and date. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18889 |
| Uncontrolled severe asthma Initial treatment 1 - (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy) Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma. Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND Patient must have a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured in the last 12 months that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma. Patient must be aged 12 years or older. Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated. If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application: (a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND (b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle. The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle. There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime. A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of: (i) A respiratory physician; and (ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 400 mg as an initial dose, followed by 200 mg every 2 weeks thereafter. A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and (b) If applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and (c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and (d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; and (e) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and (f) if applicable, the IgE result and date. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Eculizumab | C14750 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C14753 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C14754 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) Continuing treatment Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the initial treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the initial treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing treatment phase for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated on-going treatment response with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; AND Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND Patient must not receive more than 80 weeks of eculizumab treatment in total under this restriction; OR Patient must not receive more than 104 weeks supply of a C5 inhibitor under the initial and continuing treatment restrictions if they had switched C5 inhibitors during the course of initial and continuing treatment; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time. A treatment response is defined as: (1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and (2) One of the following: a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline. PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought. A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is: (1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or (2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented. The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment). The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following: (1) A completed authority prescription form(s); (2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice); (3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application; (4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted; (5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable; (6) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS); (7) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease, if applicable; (8) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 1 week old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 1 week old at the time of application; (9) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved; (10) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14781 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C14792 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C14793 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) Continuing recommencement of treatment Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the recommencement of treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the recommencement treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing recommencement of treatment phase for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated ongoing treatment response to 'Recommencement of treatment' with a C5 inhibitor for this condition; AND Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment with eculizumab per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time. A treatment response is defined as: (1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and (2) One of the following: a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline. PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought. A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is: (1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or (2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented. The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment). The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following: (1) A completed authority prescription form(s); (2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice); (3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application; (4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted; (5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable; (6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS before recommencing eculizumab treatment, if applicable; (7) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS); (8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease, if applicable; (9) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 1 week old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 1 week old at the time of application; (10) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved; (11) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14799 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) Recommencement of treatment Patient must have demonstrated treatment response to previous treatment with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the recommencement treatment phase for this condition; AND Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND Patient must have the following clinical conditions prior to recommencing C5 inhibitor treatment: (i) either significant haemolysis as measured by low/absent haptoglobin; or presence of schistocytes on the blood film; or lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) above normal; AND (ii) either platelet consumption as measured by either 25% decline from patient baseline or thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150 x 10^9/L); OR (iii) TMA-related organ impairment including on recent biopsy; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time. A treatment response is defined as: (1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and (2) One of the following: a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline. PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought. A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is: (1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or (2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented. The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment). The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following: (1) A completed authority prescription form(s); (2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice); (3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application; (4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted; (5) A family history of aHUS if applicable; (6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS following the treatment break, if applicable; (7) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS); (8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease; (9) A supporting statement with clinical evidence of TMA-related organ damage including current (within one week of application) haematological results (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH), eGFR level, and, if applicable, on recent biopsy; (10) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response to their previous treatment with eculizumab; (11) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved; (12) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14805 |
| Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS) Extended Continuing treatment Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the continuing treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing treatment phase for this condition; OR Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the extended continuing treatment phase for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated on-going treatment response with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; AND Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND Patient must have a TMA-related cardiomyopathy as evidenced by left ventricular ejection fraction < 40% on current objective measurement; OR Patient must have severe TMA-related neurological impairment; OR Patient must have severe TMA-related gastrointestinal impairment; OR Patient must have severe TMA-related pulmonary impairment on current objective measurement; OR Patient must have grade 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease (eGFR of less than 30 mL/min); OR Patient must have a high risk of aHUS recurrence in the short term in the absence of continued treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time. A treatment response is defined as: (1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and (2) One of the following: a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline. PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought. A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is: (1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or (2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented. The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment). The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following: (1) A completed authority prescription form(s); (2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice); (3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application; (4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted; (5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable; (6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS before commencing eculizumab treatment, if applicable; (7) A history of kidney transplant, if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS); (8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease; (9) A supporting statement with clinical evidence of severe TMA-related cardiomyopathy (including current LVEF result), neurological impairment, gastrointestinal impairment or pulmonary impairment; (10) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; (11) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved; (12) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17602 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Grandfather 2 (transition from LSDP-funded eculizumab) Patient must have previously received eculizumab for the treatment of this condition funded under the Australian Government's Life Saving Drugs Program (LSDP); AND Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided: (i) Haemoglobin (g/L) (ii) Platelets (x109/L) (iii) White Cell Count (x109/L) (iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L) (v) Neutrophils (x109/L) (vi) Granulocyte clone size (%) (vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) (viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory (ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5 | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17626 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Grandfather 1 (transition from non-PBS-subsidised treatment) - maintenance phase Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition prior to 1 March 2022; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided: (i) Haemoglobin (g/L) (ii) Platelets (x109/L) (iii) White Cell Count (x109/L) (iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L) (v) Neutrophils (x109/L) (vi) Granulocyte clone size (%) (vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) (viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory (ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5 | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17630 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Switching from PBS-subsidised pegcetacoplan or iptacopan - induction doses Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan for this condition; AND Patient must have developed resistance or intolerance to either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, a 'Returning' patient must proceed under the'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17651 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Initial treatment - Initial 2 (switching from PBS-subsidised ravulizumab for pregnancy) Patient must be planning pregnancy; OR Patient must be pregnant; AND Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with ravulizumab for this condition; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). Patient may qualify under this treatment phase more than once. In the event of miscarriage, patient may continue on eculizumab if patient is stable, and/or is planning a subsequent pregnancy. For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, a 'Switching' patient must proceed under the 'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17673 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Initial treatment - (initial 3) switching from PBS-subsidised pegcetacoplan or iptacopan for pregnancy (induction doses) Patient must be planning pregnancy; OR Patient must be pregnant; AND Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan for this condition; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). Patient may qualify under this treatment phase more than once. In the event of miscarriage, patient may continue on eculizumab if patient is stable, and/or is planning a subsequent pregnancy. For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, a 'Switching' patient must proceed under the 'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17675 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Balance of Supply (transition from non-PBS-subsidised treatment during induction phase) Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition prior to 1 March 2022; AND Patient must have received insufficient quantity to complete the induction treatment phase; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to complete the induction treatment phase, as per the Product Information. At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided: (i) Haemoglobin (g/L) (ii) Platelets (x109/L) (iii) White Cell Count (x109/L) (iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L) (v) Neutrophils (x109/L) (vi) Granulocyte clone size (%) (vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) (viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory (ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17684 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Initial treatment - initial 1 (new patient) induction doses Patient must not have received prior treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry; AND Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10%; AND Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal; AND Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy; OR Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms; OR Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms; OR Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; OR Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; OR Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided: (i) Haemoglobin (g/L) (ii) Platelets (x109/L) (iii) White Cell Count (x109/L) (iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L) (v) Neutrophils (x109/L) (vi) Granulocyte clone size (%) (vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) (viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory (ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5 | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17693 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Subsequent Continuing Treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the 'First Continuing Treatment' or 'Switch' criteria; AND Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17697 |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) First Continuing Treatment Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under an 'Initial', 'Balance of Supply', or 'Grandfather' treatment criteria; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition. Must be treated by a haematologist; OR Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided: (i) Haemoglobin (g/L) (ii) Platelets (x109/L) (iii) White Cell Count (x109/L) (iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L) (v) Neutrophils (x109/L) (vi) Granulocyte clone size (%) (vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) (viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory (ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Edaravone | C16479 | P16479 | Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have undergone a tracheostomy; AND Patient must not have experienced respiratory failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18480 |
| Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Initial treatment The condition must be/have been diagnosed by a neurologist; AND Patient must not have had symptoms for more than 2 years prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND Patient must have at least 80 percent of predicted forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (SVC) within the 2 months prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND Patient must not require assistance with eating or ambulation prior to commencing treatment with this drug; AND Patient must have at least two points on each individual item of the ALS Functional Rating Scale - Revised (ALSFRS-R) score prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND Patient must not have undergone a tracheostomy; AND Patient must not have experienced respiratory failure. The date of diagnosis, the date and results of spirometry (in terms of percent of predicted forced vital capacity or slow vital capacity) must be supplied with the initial authority application. Prescribers must request a quantity sufficient to cover one month per dispensing, in accordance with the patient's treatment cycle. Prescribers must request a smaller number of units than the listed maximum quantity units if it is adequate for the patient's needs. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Eflornithine | C16841 |
| High-risk neuroblastoma Initial treatment Patient must have high-risk neuroblastoma according to a validated risk classification system; AND Patient must be in remission, with at least a partial response, at the end of multiagent, multimodality therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma; AND The treatment must be initiated after completing previous therapy; AND Patient must not have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist. Prior to initiating treatment with this drug, a complete blood count, liver function tests and baseline hearing assessments should be performed and documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information. The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription). Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2. Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed PBS authority application form, relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following: (i) details of prior multiagent, multimodality therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma [date of commencement and duration of therapy]; and (ii) the patient's BSA measurement. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17735 |
| High-risk neuroblastoma Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 August 2025; AND Patient must not have developed disease recurrence while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 27 cycles (based on 4 weeks per cycle) from the first dose of this drug, regardless of whether it was PBS/non-PBS-subsidised. Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner under the direct supervision of either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist. At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information. The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription). Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17753 |
| High-risk neuroblastoma Continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have developed disease recurrence while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 27 cycles (based on 4 weeks per cycle) from the first dose of this drug, regardless of whether it was PBS/non-PBS-subsidised. Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist; OR Must be treated by a medical practitioner under the direct supervision of either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist. At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information. The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription). Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2; Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor | C17770 |
| Cystic fibrosis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be 2 to 5 years of age. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17772 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be 2 to 5 years of age. For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17846 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged between 2 and 11 years inclusive. For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17937 |
| Cystic fibrosis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be at least 6 years of age. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17970 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be at least 6 years of age. For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17971 |
| Cystic fibrosis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged between 2 and 11 years inclusive. This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information. The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Eltrombopag | C13327 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14127 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14129 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C15173 |
| Severe aplastic anaemia Continuing treatment - Second line treatment The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the initial treatment restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug. Platelet, haemoglobin and neutrophil counts must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records. Once platelet count is greater than 50 x 109/L, haemoglobin is greater than 100 g/L in the absence of red blood cell (RBC) transfusion, and absolute neutrophil (ANC) is greater than 1 x 109/L for more than 8 weeks, the dose of eltrombopag should be reduced as per the Product Information. For the purposes of this restriction, a response is defined as no longer meeting the criteria for severe aplastic anaemia. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16455 |
| Severe aplastic anaemia First line treatment The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND Patient must not have received treatment with immunosuppressive therapy for this condition; AND The treatment must be administered in combination with standard immunosuppressive therapy, including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; AND Patient must be considered ineligible for haemopoietic stem cell transplant; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction in a lifetime. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18209 |
| Severe aplastic anaemia Initial treatment - Second line treatment The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to prior immunosuppressive therapy including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; OR Patient must have relapsed following prior immunosuppressive therapy including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (a) prior immunosuppressive therapy, including dates of treatment. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18210 |
| Severe thrombocytopenia Initial treatment - New patient The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, corticosteroid therapy; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, immunoglobulin therapy; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to corticosteroid and/or immunoglobulin therapy and must be demonstrated at the time of initial application; (a) a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 million per L; OR (b) a platelet count of 20,000 million to 30,000 million per L, where the patient is experiencing significant bleeding or has a history of significant bleeding in this platelet range. The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (a) details of a platelet count supporting the diagnosis of ITP. All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
Emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide | C4470 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4470 |
| C4522 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4522 |
Emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide | C4454 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4454 |
| C4512 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4512 |
Entecavir | C4993 |
| Chronic hepatitis B infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4993 |
| C5036 |
| Chronic hepatitis B infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5036 |
| C5037 |
| Chronic hepatitis B infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5037 |
| C5044 |
| Chronic hepatitis B infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5044 |
Epoetin Alfa | C6294 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6294 |
| C9688 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9688 |
Epoetin lambda | C6294 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease Patient must require transfusion; AND Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6294 |
| C9688 |
| Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9688 |
Epoprostenol | C13491 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13506 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13577 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18208 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 (new patients) Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND Patient must have WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) approved Product Information. A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18401 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18802 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 3 - changing the prostanoid agent in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy) The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid. Patient must be undergoing existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing; AND Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures
|
| C18859 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 2 - starting combination therapy that has a prostanoid in the combination (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of PAH is established through a prior PBS authority application Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND Patient must have failed to achieve/maintain WHO functional class II status with at least one of the following: (i) endothelin receptor antagonist monotherapy, (ii) phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor monotherapy, (iii) prostanoid monotherapy, (iv) dual combination therapy with an endothelin receptor antagonist plus a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Esketamine | C16419 | P16419 | Treatment resistant major depression Non-induction treatment The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records). Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The listed quantity of 12 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 84 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16422 | P16422 | Treatment resistant major depression Induction treatment The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies. Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The following must apply if reinitiating treatment: (i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and (ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and (iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression. The listed quantity of 16 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 56 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16454 | P16454 | Treatment resistant major depression Induction treatment The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies. Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The following must apply if reinitiating treatment: (i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and (ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and (iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression. The listed quantity of 24 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 84 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16460 | P16460 | Treatment resistant major depression Non-induction treatment The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records). Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The listed quantity of 4 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 28 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16470 | P16470 | Treatment resistant major depression Non-induction treatment The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records). Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The listed quantity of 8 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 56 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C16477 | P16477 | Treatment resistant major depression Induction treatment The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies. Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine. The following must apply if reinitiating treatment: (i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and (ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and (iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression. The listed quantity of 8 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 28 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Etanercept | C12120 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) - balance of supply Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17706 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 2 active major joints; (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Active major joints are defined as: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of this application and must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 10 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of active major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of active major joints. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and (b) the date of the last continuing prescription. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17707 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17707 |
| C17713 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17713 |
| C17724 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR Patient must have demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be under 18 years of age. Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours. Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis. If treatment with methotrexate alone or in combination with another DMARD is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be documented in the patient's medical records. If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be documented in the patient's medical records. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: (a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis. The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and (b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17725 |
| Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or (c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or (d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or (e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction. If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Etravirine | C5014 |
| HIV infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5014 |
Everolimus | C5554 |
| Management of cardiac allograft rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5554 |
| C5795 |
| Management of renal allograft rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5795 |
| C9691 |
| Management of renal allograft rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9691 |
| C9693 |
| Management of cardiac allograft rejection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9693 |
Filgrastim | C6621 |
| Severe chronic neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6621 |
| C6640 |
| Chronic cyclical neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6640 |
| C6653 |
| Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6653 |
| C6654 |
| Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6654 |
| C6655 |
| Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6655 |
| C6679 |
| Assisting bone marrow transplantation | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6679 |
| C6680 |
| Severe congenital neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6680 |
| C7822 |
| Chemotherapy‑induced neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7822 |
| C7843 |
| Chemotherapy‑induced neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 7843 |
| C8667 |
| Chemotherapy‑induced neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8667 |
| C8668 |
| Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8668 |
| C8669 |
| Severe congenital neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8669 |
| C8670 |
| Severe chronic neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8670 |
| C8671 |
| Assisting bone marrow transplantation | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8671 |
| C8672 |
| Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8672 |
| C8673 |
| Chronic cyclical neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8673 |
| C8674 |
| Chemotherapy‑induced neutropenia | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8674 |
| C8696 |
| Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8696 |
Foslevodopa with foscarbidopa | C16812 | P16812 | Advanced Parkinson disease Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease. Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16812 |
| C16853 | P16853 | Advanced Parkinson disease Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease. Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy; AND Patient must require continuous administration of foslevodopa without an overnight break; OR Patient must require a total daily dose of more than 2,400 mg of foslevodopa. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16853 |
| C16883 | P16883 | Advanced Parkinson disease Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease. Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16883 |
| C16972 | P16972 | Advanced Parkinson disease Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease. Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy; AND Patient must require continuous administration of foslevodopa without an overnight break; OR Patient must require a total daily dose of more than 2,400 mg of foslevodopa. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16972 |
Ganciclovir | C5000 |
| Cytomegalovirus retinitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 5000 |
| C15782 |
| Cytomegalovirus infection and disease Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15782 |
| C15784 |
| Cytomegalovirus infection and disease Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15784 |
| C15800 |
| Cytomegalovirus infection and disease Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15800 |
| C15814 |
| Cytomegalovirus infection and disease Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15814 |
Glecaprevir with pibrentasvir | C7593 | P7593 | Chronic hepatitis C infection Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C7615 | P7615 | Chronic hepatitis C infection Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C10268 | P10268 | Chronic hepatitis C infection | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Iloprost | C13491 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13506 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C13577 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18294 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18403 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 1 (new patients) Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND Patient must have WHO Functional Class III drug and toxins induced PAH, or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat. Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). (1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition: (a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or (b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function. (2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted: - RHC composite assessment; and - ECHO composite assessment; and - 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT) Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - RHC plus ECHO composite assessments; - RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT; - RHC composite assessment only. In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is: - ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT; - ECHO composite assessment only. (3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s: (i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds; (ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records. (4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current. (5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted. The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application. The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) approved Product Information. A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18802 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 3 - changing the prostanoid agent in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy) The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid. Patient must be undergoing existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing; AND Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18859 |
| Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) Initial 2 - starting combination therapy that has a prostanoid in the combination (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of PAH is established through a prior PBS authority application Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND Patient must have failed to achieve/maintain WHO functional class II status with at least one of the following: (i) endothelin receptor antagonist monotherapy, (ii) phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor monotherapy, (iii) prostanoid monotherapy, (iv) dual combination therapy with an endothelin receptor antagonist plus a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; AND The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate. Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
Infliximab | C4524 |
| Acute severe ulcerative colitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 4524 |
| C7777 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease Balance of supply Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C8296 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C8844 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8844 |
| C8940 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 8940 |
| C9068 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C9111 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C9188 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9188 |
| C9472 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9472 |
| C9559 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C9584 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9584 |
| C9602 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9602 |
| C9632 |
| Acute severe ulcerative colitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9632 |
| C9732 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9732 |
| C9754 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C9787 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9787 |
| C11158 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C12042 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years. Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug. Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. A patient may re‑trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS‑subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 12042 |
| C12059 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years. Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug. Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS‑subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re‑trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS‑subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C12074 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Continuing treatment Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS‑subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years. Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug. Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBS‑subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. A patient may re‑trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS‑subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBS‑subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBS‑subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 12074 |
| C14502 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14504 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14504 |
| C14505 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14505 |
| C14507 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14544 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14548 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14585 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14585 |
| C14623 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14638 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14638 |
| C14667 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of at least 5 years from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND Patient must have a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND Patient must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR Patient must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR Patient must have a clinical reason as to why demonstration of an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met and the application must state the reason; AND Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and (iii) a baseline ESR and/or CRP level. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14683 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14683 |
| C14689 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14689 |
| C14701 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14701 |
| C14705 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14707 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14718 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. Details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment must be provided at the time of application. If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the reason a higher dose cannot be used must be provided. If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details of the contraindication must be provided. If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the nature and severity of this intolerance must be provided. All relevant details must be documented in the patient's medical records. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application: (a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and (b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L. The baseline BASDAI score and ESR or CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied must be provided at the time of application. The following must be provided at the time of application: (i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and (iii) details of the completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form (commencement and finish date); and (iv) baseline ESR and/or CRP level. All supporting evidence, including the completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form must be kept in the patient's medical records. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C14723 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 14723 |
| C17097 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Balance of supply for paediatric patient Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 14 weeks therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment; OR The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks therapy available under Continuing treatment. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C17111 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Patient must have confirmed diagnosis of Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features including histological evidence; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to 2 of the following 3 conventional prior therapies including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg or 40 mg (whichever is the lesser) prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; (ii) an 8 week course of enteral nutrition; or (iii) immunosuppressive therapy including azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months, or, 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months, or, methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly for 3 or more months; OR Patient must have a documented intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal or a contra-indication to each of prednisolone (or equivalent), azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine and methotrexate; AND Patient must have a Paediatric Crohn Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 preferably whilst still on treatment; OR Patient must have extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestine as evidenced by radiological imaging; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). For patients assessed as having extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestines, such evidence of intestinal inflammation includes: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery. The PCDAI score should preferably be obtained whilst on conventional treatment but must be obtained within one month of the last conventional treatment dose. If treatment with any of the specified prior conventional drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, please provide details at the time of application. If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application. Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17112 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease First continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. The application for first continuing treatment with this drug must be accompanied with the assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment. The assessment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete 24 weeks treatment may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for continuing authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the continuing treatment period. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17115 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under an initial treatment restriction, the patient must have been assessed for response to that course following a minimum of 12 weeks therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for infliximab and this assessment must be submitted to Services Australia no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased. If the response assessment to the previous course of biological medicine treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient will be deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of biological medicine. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17116 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have confirmed diagnosis of Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features including histological evidence; AND Patient must have a Paediatric Crohn Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) Score greater than or equal to 30; OR Patient must have a documented history and radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation if the patient has extensive small intestinal disease that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). For patients assessed as having extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestines, such evidence of intestinal inflammation includes: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C17117 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Subsequent continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of prescribing. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17117 |
| C17120 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Subsequent continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of prescribing. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17120 |
| C17122 |
| Moderate to severe Crohn disease Subsequent continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. Each application for subsequent continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of therapy. If the response assessment is not provided at the time of application the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment, unless the patient has experienced serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. Authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug may be requested through the balance of supply restriction for patients who: (i) received fewer than 2 repeats at the time of application; and/or (ii) required changes to their dosing regimen during this treatment phase. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18158 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Subsequent continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following: (a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline. Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18162 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 5 years, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine within the timeframes specified below. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a patient is changing from PBS-subsidised treatment with a biosimilar medicine for this condition, the prescriber must submit baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below. An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following: (a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline. Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18164 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis Subsequent continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug was approved under the first continuing treatment restriction, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18165 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the application must include details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be documented in the application, if applicable. The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity. The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months. If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided in the authority application. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18191 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis. Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months; OR Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Where treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application. Where intolerance to treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application. The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application: an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and either (a) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form. An assessment of a patient's response to an initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18192 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, first or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18194 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND The condition must have either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than one month old at the time of initial application. If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker will be used to determine response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, first or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18196 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; OR Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine (adalimumab or infliximab) for this condition in this treatment cycle if aged 6 to 17 years; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; OR Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle more than once if aged 6 to 17 years. Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition if relevant; and (ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction. If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18263 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of at least 5 years from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND Patient must have a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND Patient must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR Patient must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR Patient must have a clinical reason as to why demonstration of an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met and the application must state the reason; AND Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and (iii) a baseline ESR and/or CRP level. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18267 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18285 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease First continuing treatment Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug. An adequate response is defined as: (a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or (b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient. Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed Fistula Assessment form including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. The application for first continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment. The assessment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. Where a response assessment is not provided within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. A maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug will be authorised under this restriction. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18287 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 2, Face, hand, foot (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18340 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The application must include details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment. If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must include the reason a higher dose cannot be used. If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must provide details of the contraindication. If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, the application must provide details of the nature and severity of this intolerance. The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application: (a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and (b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L. The baseline BASDAI score and ESR or CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application. If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and (iii) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form included in the supporting information form; and (iv) baseline ESR and/or CRP level. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18343 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis First continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; AND either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18345 |
| Severe active rheumatoid arthritis Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Patients who have received PBS-subsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores. Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; AND either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBS-subsidised biological therapy treatment-free period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18352 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must be classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18355 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have had a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6 if an adult patient; OR Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score); OR Patient must have a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 if aged 6 to 17 years; OR Patient must have previously received induction therapy with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or a PUCAI score less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years). Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, or to be administered at 8-weekly intervals for patients who have received prior treatment for an acute severe episode, will be authorised. All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment. The most recent Mayo clinic, partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. Where treatment for an acute severe episode has occurred, an adequate response to induction therapy needs to be demonstrated by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years), within the first 12 weeks of receiving this drug for acute severe ulcerative colitis. A partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18389 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease Subsequent continuing treatment Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]. An adequate response is defined as: (a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or (b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient. Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription; and (b) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed Fistula Assessment form including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Each application for subsequent continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of therapy. If the response assessment is not provided at the time of application the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment, unless the patient has experienced serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18391 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Subsequent continuing treatment, Whole body Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18431 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Subsequent continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug. The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18434 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease Initial treatment (new patient or Recommencement of treatment after more than 5 years break in therapy - Initial 1) Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]. Patient must have confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND Patient must have an externally draining enterocutaneous or rectovaginal fistula. Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: a completed current Fistula Assessment Form including the date of assessment of the patient's condition. The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. An assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (up to 6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of this initial course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18436 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 1, Whole body (new patient) Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application. Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application. Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met. The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application: (a) A current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment. (b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment. (c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy]. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18437 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis First continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug. The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area assessed at baseline. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18439 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 1, Face, hand, foot (new patient) Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application. Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application. Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met. The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application: (a) Chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; (b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment. (c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy]. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18441 |
| Severe psoriatic arthritis First continuing treatment Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis. Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and either of the following: (a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%: (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth). The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, or Initial 3 treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18462 |
| Ankylosing spondylitis First continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following: (a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline. Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment. The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18466 |
| Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease Change or Recommencement of treatment after a break in therapy of less than 5 years (Initial 2) Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]. Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have failed PBS-subsidised therapy with this drug for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle. Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: a completed current Fistula Assessment Form including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and details of prior biological medicine treatment including details of date and duration of treatment. The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application. Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under an initial treatment restriction, the patient must have been assessed for response to that course following a minimum of 12 weeks therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for infliximab and this assessment must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied by the results of the most recent course of biological medicine therapy within the timeframes specified in the relevant restriction. If the response assessment to the previous course of biological medicine treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient will be deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of biological medicine. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. An assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (up to 6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of this initial course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not provided within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18468 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 2, Whole body (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle. An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18469 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis Initial treatment - Initial 3, Whole body (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND The condition must have a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. Must be treated by a dermatologist. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition. To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18470 |
| Severe chronic plaque psoriasis First continuing treatment, Whole body Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction. Patient must be aged 18 years or older. Must be treated by a dermatologist. An adequate response to treatment is defined as: A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle. At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. The authority application must be made in writing and must include: (a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and (b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition. The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18502 |
| Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient) Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist. Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation in a standard dose for induction of remission for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a tapered course of oral steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg (for a child, 1 to 2 mg/kg up to 40 mg) prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, and followed by a failure to achieve an adequate response to 3 or more consecutive months of treatment of an appropriately dosed thiopurine agent; AND Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6 if an adult patient; OR Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score); OR Patient must have a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 if aged 6 to 17 years. Patient must be 6 years of age or older. Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include: (1) details of the proposed prescription; and (2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice), which includes the following: (i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and (ii) details of prior systemic drug therapy [dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy]. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, or to be administered at 8-weekly intervals for patients who have received prior treatment for an acute severe episode, will be authorised. All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment. The most recent Mayo clinic, partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application. An adult patient who has previously received induction therapy with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months, and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic scoreless than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, will not be required to demonstrate failure to prior treatment with a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation and one of azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine or oral steroids. A patient, aged 6 to 17 years, who has previously received induction therapy with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months, and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a PUCAI score of less than 10 will not be required to demonstrate failure to prior treatment with a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation and one of azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine or oral steroids. A partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. If treatment with any of the above-mentioned drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application. An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment. Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment. If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website. | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C18774 |
| Severe Crohn disease Initial 1 (new patient) Patient must have confirmed severe Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; AND Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to prior treatment with a thiopurine at a clinically optimised dose for 3 or more consecutive months; OR Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more consecutive months; AND Patient must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 300 as evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy; OR Patient must have short gut syndrome with diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence, or have had an ileostomy or colostomy; and must have evidence of intestinal inflammation; and must have evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy as specified below; OR Patient must have extensive intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine as evidenced by radiological imaging; and must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and must have evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy as specified below; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) details of prior systemic drug therapy [dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy]; and (b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criteria; and (c) if applicable, details of intestinal inflammation marker/s; and (d) if applicable, the CDAI score and the date of assessment; and (e) the date of the most recent clinical assessment. Evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior therapy must include at least one of the following: (a) patient must have evidence of intestinal inflammation; (b) patient must be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; (c) patient must be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of this drug, if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or is an ostomy patient. Evidence of intestinal inflammation includes: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery. If treatment with any of the specified prior conventional drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant contraindications or precautions in the TGA-approved Product Information, please provide details at the time of application. Patients must attempt to trial alternate conventional therapies that are not contraindicated. If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application. A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure. Any one of the baseline criteria may be used to determine response to an initial course of treatment and eligibility for continued therapy, according to the criteria included in the continuing treatment restriction. However, the same criterion must be used for any subsequent determination of response to treatment, for the purpose of eligibility for continuing PBS-subsidised therapy. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18775 |
| Severe Crohn disease Continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) if applicable, current CDAI score and the date of assessment; and (b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) or details of intestinal inflammation marker/s used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and (c) the date of the most recent clinical assessment. A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure. Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered every 8 weeks will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete 24 weeks treatment may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the continuing treatment period. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures
|
| C18776 |
| Severe Crohn disease Balance of supply Patient must have received insufficient treatment with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, 2 or 3 restrictions to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR Patient must have received insufficient treatment with this drug for this condition under the Continuing restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment (8-weekly infusion regimen); AND The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 14 weeks therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment; OR The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks therapy available under Continuing treatment. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18819 |
| Severe Crohn disease Continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. A maximum quantity to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose will be authorised. Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response. If a patient does not demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 18819 |
| C18849 |
| Severe Crohn disease Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in targeted therapy of more than 12 months) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition; AND Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised targeted therapy for this condition; AND Patient must have confirmed severe Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND Patient must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score of greater than or equal to 300 while off treatment with targeted therapy; OR Patient must have a documented history of intestinal inflammation and have diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence of short gut syndrome if affected by the syndrome or has an ileostomy or colostomy; and evidence of flared disease while off treatment with targeted therapy; OR Patient must have a documented history and radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation if the patient has extensive small intestinal disease affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine, together with a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and evidence of flared disease while off treatment with targeted therapy; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) if applicable, current CDAI score and the date of assessment; and (b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) or details of intestinal inflammation marker/s used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and (c) the date of the most recent clinical assessment. Evidence of flared disease must include at least one of the following: (a) patient must have evidence of intestinal inflammation; (b) patient must be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; (c) patient must be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of this drug, if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or is an ostomy patient. Evidence of intestinal inflammation includes: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. Any one of the baseline criteria may be used to determine response to an initial course of treatment and eligibility for continued therapy, according to the criteria included in the continuing treatment restriction. However, the same criterion must be used for any subsequent determination of response to treatment, for the purpose of eligibility for continuing PBS-subsidised therapy. A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18866 |
| Severe Crohn disease Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in targeted therapy of less than 12 months) Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition in this treatment cycle; OR Patient must have been eligible for prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND Patient must have either: (i) not previously received this drug for this condition in the current treatment cycle, (ii) previously received this drug and demonstrated/maintained an adequate clinical response; AND The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records: (a) if applicable, the CDAI score and the date of assessment; and (b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and (c) if applicable, the date of the most recent clinical assessment; and (d) details of the most recent targeted therapy in the current treatment cycle, including the date and duration of treatment. If a patient was eligible for prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition but did not receive PBS-subsidised treatment at the time, the application must provide a declaration that the patient met all 'Initial 1' eligibility requirements when targeted therapy treatment commenced. The following information must also be provided at the time of application: (a) the baseline CDAI score and the date of assessment; and/or (b) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy. A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised. If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures |
| C18868 |
| Severe Crohn disease Continuing treatment Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application. Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology]. Patient must be at least 18 years of age. The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes. A maximum quantity to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose will be authorised. Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response. If a patient does not demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction. | Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 18868 |
Interferon Gamma‑1b | C6222 |
| Chronic granulomatous disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 6222 |
| C9639 |
| Chronic granulomatous disease | Compliance with Authority Required procedures ‑ Streamlined Authority Code 9639 |
Ivacaftor | C16844 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment - New patient (non-gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is responsive to ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND Patient must not have either: (i) G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene; (ii) other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 4 months or older. For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to ivacaftor as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information. Quote each of the: (a) the specific mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C16845 |
| Cystic fibrosis Continuing treatment (non-gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have received PBS-subsidised initial therapy with ivacaftor, given concomitantly with standard therapy, for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 4 months or older. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C16876 |
| Cystic fibrosis Continuing treatment (gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have received PBS-subsidised initial therapy with ivacaftor, given concomitantly with standard therapy, for this condition; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 4 months or older. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C16878 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment - New patient (gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on at least 1 allele; OR Patient must have other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene on at least 1 allele; AND Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 4 months or older. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating G551D mutation or other gating (Class III) mutation on the CFTR gene - quote each of the: (a) the specific CFTR mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C16928 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment - New patient (gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on at least 1 allele; OR Patient must have other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene on at least 1 allele; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 1 month or older. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating G551D mutation or other gating (Class III) mutation on the CFTR gene - quote each of the: (a) the specific CFTR mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |
| C16971 |
| Cystic fibrosis Initial treatment - New patient (non-gating mutations) Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is responsive to ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND Patient must not have either: (i) G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene; (ii) other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene; AND The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition. Patient must be aged 1 month or older. For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks. Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy. Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers: Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide. The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: (1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to ivacaftor as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information. Quote each of the: (a) the specific mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and (2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics. If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include: (i) details of the proposed prescription; and (ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice). | Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures |