National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021

Administered by Department of Health, Disability and Ageing

Legislation au F2021L00374 In force Legislative Instrument

Legislation content

National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021

PB 27 of 2021

made under sections 85, 85A, 88, 99 and 100 of the

National Health Act 1953

Compilation No. 63

Compilation date: 1 July 2026

Includes amendments: F2026L00801 and F2026L00901

This compilation is in 2 volumes

Volume 1:

Parts 1 to 6

sections 1 to 52

Schedules 1 and 2

Schedule 3 (A to I)

Volume 2:

Schedule 3 (L to Z)

Endnotes

Each volume has its own contents

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 1 July 2026 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Register (www.legislation.gov.au).

Application, saving and transitional provisions

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Presentational changes

The Legislation Act 2003 provides for First Parliamentary Counsel to make presentational changes to a compilation. Presentational changes are applied to give a more consistent look and feel to legislation published on the Register, and enable the user to more easily navigate those documents.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. Any modifications affecting the law are accessible on the Register.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Part 1—Preliminary

Division 1—General

1 Name

3 Authority

5 Simplified outline of this instrument

6 Definitions

7 Definition of authorised prescriber

8 Definition of eligible patient

Division 2—Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits from hospitals

9 Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by approved hospital authorities to patients receiving treatment from hospitals

Division 3—HSD hospital authorities

10 HSD hospital authorities

11 References to approved suppliers and approved hospital authorities

12 Numbers allotted to HSD hospital authorities

Part 2—Special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Division 1—Preliminary

13 Definition of special arrangement supply

Division 2—Prescribing of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

15 Prescription circumstances—general (Act s 85(7)(a) and (b))

16 Prescription circumstances—authority required procedures

18 When medication chart prescriptions not to be written

19 Prescriptions not to direct repeated supplies for visitors to Australia

20 Maximum quantity or number of units (Act s 85A(2)(a))

21 Maximum number of repeats (Act s 85A(2)(b))

23 Records to be kept—prescriptions for HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Division 3—Supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits

24 Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

25 Conditions for approved pharmacists

26 Supplies need not be directly to persons

27 Repeated supplies of pharmaceutical benefits

Part 3—Payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Division 1—Supplies by approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

28 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals (Act s 99(4))

29 Dispensed price for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

Division 2—Supplies by other approved suppliers

30 Entitlement to, and amount of, payment for approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners

30A Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

31 Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for private hospitals (Act s 99(4))

32 Dispensed price for approved suppliers other than approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

33 Markup for readyprepared pharmaceutical benefits

34 Dispensing fee

Part 3A—Supply to CTG registered patients by CTG suppliers

34A Application of this Part

34B Application of the CTG Special Arrangement—copayment and payment etc.

Part 4—Claims for payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

35 Rules for providing information about supplies—definition of under copayment data

35A Claim for payment if an eligible patient is a CTG registered patient

Part 5—Miscellaneous

36 Compliance and audit arrangements

37 Value for safety net purposes for supplies

Part 6—Application, saving and transitional provisions

Division 1—Provisions relating to this instrument as made

38 HSD hospital authorities

Division 2—Provisions relating to the National Health Legislation Amendment (Opioid Dependence Treatment and Maximum Dispensed Quantities) Instrument 2023

39 Purpose of this Division

40 Definitions

41 Definition of special arrangement supply

42 Prescriptions directing supply for dispensing over time

43 Prescriptions directing supply of buprenorphine for injection

44 Prescriptions directing supply of methadone

45 First supply on or after 1 July 2023 deemed to be supply on first presentation

46 Supply on first presentation of prescription (Regulations s 44)

47 Repeat authorisations (Regulations s 52)

48 Prescriptions written in electronic form—additional procedures for giving information (Claims Rules s 7) and keeping documents

49 Information to be given using Claims Transmission System (Claims Rules Sch 1)

50 Precommencement benefits

Division 3—Provisions relating to the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement Amendment (Increases in Maximum Quantity and Number of Repeats for Complex Authority required (CAR) Medicines) Instrument 2026

51 Prescriptions directing increased maximum quantities or numbers of units of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug

52 Prescriptions directing increased maximum number of repeats of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug

Schedule 1—HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information

1 Highly specialised drugs and HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Schedule 2—Maximum quantities and repeats for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

1 Maximum quantity or number of units and maximum number of repeats

Schedule 3—Circumstances and purposes

1 Circumstances and purposes

 

Part 1—Preliminary

Division 1—General

1  Name

 (1) This instrument is the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement 2021.

 (2) This instrument may also be cited as PB 27 of 2021.

3  Authority

  This instrument is made under sections 85, 85A, 88, 99 and 100 of the National Health Act 1953.

5  Simplified outline of this instrument

This instrument makes a special arrangement for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits that contain highly specialised drugs for the treatment of chronic conditions.

Restrictions apply to the prescribing and supply of these benefits because of their clinical use and other special features.

The prescribing of these benefits is in most cases limited to practitioners who have undertaken particular training or are affiliated with a specialised hospital unit.

The supply of these benefits is restricted to persons who are receiving treatment by medical practitioners and authorised nurse practitioners.

These benefits will be supplied by approved suppliers (public and private hospitals, community pharmacies and certain medical practitioners).

This instrument also deals with payments for supplies of these pharmaceutical benefits.

Note: Part VII of the Act, and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, have effect subject to this instrument (see subsection 100(3) of the Act).

6  Definitions

Note 1: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:

(a) Chief Executive Medicare;

(b) hospital;

(c) public hospital.

Note 2: Under subsection 4(1A) of the Act, a word or phrase defined for the purposes of the Health Insurance Act 1973 has the meaning that it would have if used in that Act. Expressions used in this instrument that are defined in that Act include the following:

(a) eligible person;

(b) medical practitioner;

(c) private hospital;

(d) specialist.

  In this instrument:

accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis B means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of hepatitis B in accordance with this instrument.

accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis C means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of hepatitis C in accordance with this instrument.

accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS means a medical practitioner, or an authorised nurse practitioner, approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS in accordance with this instrument.

accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of schizophrenia means a medical practitioner approved by a State or Territory to prescribe medication for the treatment of schizophrenia in accordance with this instrument.

Act means the National Health Act 1953.

affiliated: a specialist is affiliated with a hospital if the specialist is:

 (a) a staff specialist of the hospital; or

 (b) a visiting or consulting specialist of the hospital.

approved exmanufacturer price of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

approved hospital authority has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act, as affected by section 11 of this instrument.

approved medical practitioner has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

approved pharmacist has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination means the Commonwealth price (Pharmaceutical benefits supplied by approved pharmacists) Determination 2020.

Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) (Conditions for approved pharmacists) Determination 2017.

approved supplier has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act, as affected by section 11 of this instrument.

authorised nurse practitioner has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

authorised prescriber has the meaning given by section 7.

CAR drug (short for Complex Authority Required drug) means any of the following highly specialised drugs:

 (a) abatacept;

 (b) adalimumab;

 (c) ambrisentan;

 (d) anifrolumab;

 (e) avatrombopag;

 (f) azacitidine;

 (g) benralizumab;

 (h) bosentan;

 (i) burosumab;

 (j) difelikefalin;

 (k) dupilumab;

 (l) eculizumab;

 (m) eflornithine;

 (n) elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor;

 (o) eltrombopag;

 (p) epoprostenol;

 (q) etanercept;

 (r) iloprost;

 (s) infliximab;

 (t) ivacaftor;

 (u) lenalidomide;

 (v) lumacaftor with ivacaftor;

 (w) macitentan;

 (x) macitentan with tadalafil;

 (y) mepolizumab;

 (z) midostaurin;

 (aa) nusinersen;

 (ab) omalizumab;

 (ac) onasemnogene abeparvovec;

 (ad) pasireotide;

 (ae) patisiran;

 (af) pegcetacoplan;

 (ag) pegvisomant;

 (ah) pomalidomide;

 (ai) ravulizumab;

 (aj) riociguat;

 (ak) risdiplam;

 (al) romiplostim;

 (am) rozanolixizumab;

 (an) selexipag;

 (ao) sildenafil;

 (ap) tadalafil;

 (aq) teduglutide;

 (ar) tezacaftor with ivacaftor and ivacaftor;

 (as) tezepelumab;

 (at) tocilizumab;

 (au) ustekinumab;

 (av) vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor;

 (aw) vedolizumab;

 (ax) vutrisiran;

 (ay) zilucoplan.

circumstances code means the letter “C” followed by a number.

community access medication means any of the following:

(a) medication for the treatment of hepatitis B;

(b) medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS, other than a pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug:

 (i) azithromycin; or

 (ii) doxorubicin  pegylated liposomal; or

 (iii) rifabutin;

(c) medication for the treatment of opioid dependence;

(d) medication for continuing treatment of schizophrenia;

(e) edaravone;

(f) lanreotide;

(g) octreotide, if:

 (i) the description of its form includes “Injection (modified release)”; and

 (ii) it is for continuing treatment.

CTG registered patient has the same meaning as in the CTG Special Arrangement.

CTG Special Arrangement means the National Health (Closing the Gap—PBS Copayment Program) Special Arrangement 2026.

CTG supplier has the same meaning as in the CTG Special Arrangement.

dangerous drug has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.

dangerous drug fee has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.

day admitted patient: a person is a day admitted patient of a hospital on a day if, on that day, the person:

 (a) is admitted to the hospital (other than through the hospital’s emergency department); and

 (b) receives treatment; and

 (c) is discharged from the hospital;

in accordance with a preexisting plan for the person’s treatment.

dispensed price:

 (a) for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved hospital authority for a public hospital—has the meaning given by section 29; and

 (b) for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier other than an approved hospital authority for a public hospital—has the meaning given by section 32.

EFC patient has the meaning given by subsection 8(7).

eligible patient has the meaning given by section 8.

erythropoietin stimulating agent means any of the following:

 (a) darbepoetin alfa;

 (b) epoetin alfa;

 (c) epoetin lambda;

 (d) methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta.

General statement for drugs for the treatment of hepatitis C has the same meaning as in the Listing Instrument.

highly specialised drug means a listed drug mentioned in Schedule 1.

hospital authority has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

HSD hospital authority means a hospital authority for which:

 (a) an approval under section 94 of the Act, as modified by section 10 of this instrument, is in force; or

 (b) an approval mentioned in section 38 of this instrument is in force.

HSD pharmaceutical benefit means a pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in Schedule 1.

listed drug has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

Listing Instrument means the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2024 (PB 26 of 2024).

medication chart prescription has the same meaning as in the Regulations.

medication for the treatment of hepatitis B means any of the following:

 (a) entecavir;

 (b) lamivudine;

 (c) tenofovir.

medication for the treatment of hepatitis C means medication mentioned in the table in clause 3 of the General statement for drugs for the treatment of hepatitis C.

medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS means any of the following:

 (a) abacavir;

 (b) abacavir with lamivudine;

 (c) atazanavir with cobicistat;

 (d) azithromycin;

 (e) bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide;

 (f) cabotegravir;

 (g) cabotegravir and rilpivirine;

 (h) darunavir;

 (i) darunavir with cobicistat;

 (j) darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide;

 (k) dolutegravir;

 (l) dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine;

 (m) dolutegravir with lamivudine;

 (n) dolutegravir with rilpivirine;

 (o) doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal;

 (p) emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide;

 (q) emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide;

 (r) etravirine;

 (s) ganciclovir;

 (t) lamivudine;

 (u) lamivudine with zidovudine;

 (v) lopinavir with ritonavir;

 (w) maraviroc;

 (x) nevirapine;

 (y) raltegravir;

 (z) rifabutin;

 (aa) rilpivirine;

 (ab) ritonavir;

 (ac) tenofovir;

 (ad) tenofovir alafenamide with emtricitabine, elvitegravir and cobicistat;

 (ae) tenofovir with emtricitabine;

 (af) tenofovir with emtricitabine and efavirenz;

 (ag) valganciclovir;

 (ah) zidovudine.

medication for the treatment of opioid dependence means any of the following:

 (a) buprenorphine;

 (b) buprenorphine with naloxone;

 (c) methadone.

medication for the treatment of schizophrenia means clozapine.

ODT pharmaceutical benefit means an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of opioid dependence.

pack quantity has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

pharmaceutical benefit has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

price to pharmacists has the same meaning as in the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination.

proportional exmanufacturer price of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item has the same meaning as in Part VII of the Act.

purposes code means the letter “P” followed by a number.

Regulations means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefit) Regulations 2017.

residential care service has the same meaning as in the Regulations.

special arrangement supply has the meaning given by sections 13 and 41.

UNAR drug (short for Unrestricted—No Authority Required drug) means any of the following highly specialised drugs:

 (a) rituximab.

7  Definition of authorised prescriber

Specialists affiliated with hospitals

 (1) A specialist is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital if the specialist is affiliated with the hospital.

Medical practitioners—with the agreement of specialists

 (2) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital if all of the following apply:

 (a) the benefit is for continuing treatment for the patient;

 (b) the patient’s treatment is being managed by a specialist;

 (c) it is impractical for the patient to obtain a prescription for the benefit from the specialist;

 (d) the specialist has agreed to the prescribing of the benefit for the patient by the medical practitioner.

Medical practitioners—if authorised by Commonwealth and State authorities

 (3) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient if all of the following apply:

 (a) the HSD pharmaceutical benefit is for continuing treatment for the patient;

 (b) the medical practitioner is authorised (however described) by an authority of the Commonwealth for the purposes of this provision;

 (c) the medical practitioner is authorised (however described) by an authority of the State or Territory in which the hospital is located for the purposes of this provision.

Medical practitioners—specified medications

 (4) A medical practitioner is an authorised prescriber for the following HSD pharmaceutical benefits:

 (a) a benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C;

 (b) a benefit that has the drug edaravone;

 (c) a benefit that has the drug lanreotide;

 (d) a benefit that has the drug octreotide, if:

 (i) the description of its form includes “Injection (modified release)”; and

 (ii) it is for continuing treatment;

 (e) a benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent.

Accredited prescribers—HSD pharmaceutical benefits for the treatment of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HIV or AIDS, and schizophrenia

 (5) The following table has effect.

 

Authorised prescribers for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Item

Column 1
The following person …

Column 2
is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is …

1

An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis B

a medication for the treatment of hepatitis B.

2

An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of hepatitis C

a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C.

3

An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS

a medication for the treatment of HIV or AIDS.

4

An accredited prescriber of medication for the treatment of schizophrenia

a medication for the treatment of schizophrenia.

Authorised nurse practitioners and medical practitioners—ODT pharmaceutical benefits

 (6) Each of the following is an authorised prescriber for an ODT pharmaceutical benefit:

 (a) an authorised nurse practitioner;

 (b) a medical practitioner.

Authorised nurse practitioners—erythropoietin stimulating agents

 (6A) An authorised nurse practitioner is an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit for a patient if the pharmaceutical benefit has an erythropoietin stimulating agent.

 (7) To avoid doubt, a person is not an authorised prescriber, within the meaning of this instrument, for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit only because the person is authorised in accordance with section 12 of the Listing Instrument to write a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit.

Note: A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit is not a special arrangement supply of the benefit unless the supply was prescribed by an authorised prescriber for the benefit (see section 13 of this instrument).

8  Definition of eligible patient

Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients

 (1) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner at or from a public hospital; and

 (c) is receiving that treatment as:

 (i) a nonadmitted patient of the hospital; or

 (ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or

 (iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital; and

 (d) is not an EFC patient (see subsection (7)) for the benefit.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—medication for the treatment of hepatitis C

 (2) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and

 (c) is receiving that treatment as:

 (i) a nonadmitted patient of the hospital; or

 (ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or

 (iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.

Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners in public hospitals as admitted patients—HSD pharmaceutical benefits that contain eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome

 (3) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner in a public hospital; and

 (c) is receiving that treatment as an admitted patient (other than a day admitted patient) of the hospital.

Persons receiving treatment by medical practitioners in, at or from private hospitals

 (4) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by a medical practitioner in, at or from a private hospital; and

 (c) is not an EFC patient (see subsection (7)) for the benefit.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—medication for the treatment of hepatitis C

 (5) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a drug that is a medication for the treatment of hepatitis C if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.

Persons receiving HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have drugs that are community access medications

 (6) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) the benefit has a drug that is a community access medication; and

 (b) the person is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person.

EFC patient

 (7) A person is an EFC patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a UNAR drug if the benefit is or will be prescribed to the person:

 (a) in accordance with the National Health (Efficient Funding of Chemotherapy) Special Arrangement 2024; or

 (b) for the purposes of chemotherapy treatment for cancer.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin

 (8) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and

 (c) is receiving that treatment as:

 (i) a nonadmitted patient of the hospital; or

 (ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or

 (iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin

 (9) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug azithromycin, doxorubicin ‑ pegylated liposomal or rifabutin if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners at or from public hospitals other than as admitted patients—erythropoietin stimulating agents

 (10) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner at or from a public hospital; and

 (c) is receiving that treatment as:

 (i) a nonadmitted patient of the hospital; or

 (ii) a day admitted patient of the hospital; or

 (iii) a patient on discharge from the hospital.

Persons receiving treatment by authorised nurse practitioners in, at or from private hospitals—erythropoietin stimulating agents

 (11) A person is an eligible patient for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has an erythropoietin stimulating agent if the person:

 (a) is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (b) is receiving medical treatment by an authorised nurse practitioner in, at or from a private hospital.

Division 2—Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits from hospitals

9  Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by approved hospital authorities to patients receiving treatment from hospitals

 (1) In this instrument, and in Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a reference to an approved hospital authority supplying pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in or at the hospital of which it is the governing body or proprietor includes a reference to the hospital authority supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment from the hospital.

 (2) This section applies in addition to section 94 of the Act.

Division 3—HSD hospital authorities

10  HSD hospital authorities

 (1) Section 94 of the Act applies as if that section permitted the Minister to approve a hospital authority for the purpose of its supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from the hospital of which it is the governing body or proprietor if the dispensing of those benefits is performed:

 (a) other than at the hospital; and

 (b) by or under the direct supervision of a medical practitioner or pharmacist.

 (2) Subsection (1) applies despite subsection 94(5) of the Act.

11  References to approved suppliers and approved hospital authorities

  In this instrument, and in Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a reference to an approved supplier or an approved hospital authority includes a reference to an HSD hospital authority.

12  Numbers allotted to HSD hospital authorities

  For the purposes of Part VII of the Act and regulations or other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, a number allotted to an HSD hospital authority under either of the following provisions is taken to have been allotted by the Minister under subsection 16(4) of the Regulations:

 (a) subsection 52(3) of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program) Special Arrangement 2010 (PB 116 of 2010);

 (b) subsection 52(3) of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program for public hospitals) Special Arrangements Instrument 2010 (PB 63 of 2010).

Part 2—Special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Division 1—Preliminary

13  Definition of special arrangement supply

Prescriptions written for public hospital patients

 (1) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:

 (a) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and

 (b) the benefit is supplied by:

 (i) for any benefit—an approved hospital authority for a public hospital; or

 (ii) for a benefit that has a CAR drug or UNAR drug—an approved pharmacist; and

 (c) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:

 (i) when the person was receiving medical treatment in, at or from a public hospital; and

 (ii) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and

 (iii) unless the benefit has a UNAR drug—in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.

Prescriptions written for private hospital patients

 (2) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:

 (a) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and

 (b) the benefit is supplied by:

 (i) an approved hospital authority for a private hospital; or

 (ii) an approved pharmacist; and

 (c) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:

 (i) when the person was receiving medical treatment in, at or from a private hospital; and

 (ii) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and

 (iii) unless the benefit has a UNAR drug—in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.

Community access arrangements

 (3) A supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if:

 (a) the benefit has a drug that is a community access medication; and

 (b) the person is an eligible patient for the benefit; and

 (c) the benefit is supplied by an approved supplier; and

 (d) the benefit is supplied on the basis of a prescription written:

 (i) by an authorised prescriber for the benefit; and

 (ii) in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 for the benefit.

Division 2—Prescribing of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

15  Prescription circumstances—general (Act s 85(7)(a) and (b))

 (1) For the purposes of paragraph 85(7)(a) of the Act, an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, other than a benefit that has a UNAR drug, is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.

 (2) For the purposes of paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act, the circumstances in which a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, other than a benefit that has a UNAR drug, may be written are the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit.

 (3) This section applies in addition to section 13 of the Listing Instrument.

16  Prescription circumstances—authority required procedures

 (1) This section applies to a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if the circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 (if any) in which the prescription is written include:

 (a) Compliance with Authority Required procedures; or

 (b) Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures.

 (2) Section 19 of the Listing Instrument applies to the prescription as if:

 (a)  a reference to Part 1 of Schedule 4 to that instrument were a reference to Schedule 3 to this instrument; and

 (b)  a reference to an authorised prescriber were a reference to an authorised prescriber within the meaning of this instrument.

18  When medication chart prescriptions not to be written

Persons receiving treatment in residential care services

 (2) Subparagraph 41(1)(a)(i) of the Regulations does not apply to a prescription for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit.

19  Prescriptions not to direct repeated supplies for visitors to Australia

 (1) An authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit must not write a prescription directing a repeated supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person who is a visitor to Australia even if the person is, in accordance with section 7 of the Health Insurance Act 1973, to be treated as an eligible person within the meaning of that Act.

 (2) This section applies despite section 85A of the Act.

20  Maximum quantity or number of units (Act s 85A(2)(a))

 (1) For the purposes of paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act, this section sets out the maximum quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that may, in one prescription for a special arrangement supply of the benefit, be directed by an authorised prescriber to be supplied on any one occasion.

Supply for particular purposes

 (2) If:

 (a) a purposes code is mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) the supply of the benefit is for purposes mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for the purposes code;

the maximum quantity or number of units is the quantity or number of units is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit and the purposes code.

Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits not in Schedule 2

 (3) If:

 (a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) a quantity or number of units is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit;

the maximum quantity or number of units is that quantity or number of units.

Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits in Schedule 2

 (4) If:

 (a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) the words “See Schedule 2” appear in the column headed “Maximum quantity” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (c) the prescription is written in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit;

the maximum quantity or number of units is the quantity or number of units that is applicable under Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit and the circumstances code.

Application of this section

 (5) To the extent that this section provides for a matter not provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies in addition to the Listing Instrument.

 (6) To the extent that this section makes a different provision for a matter provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies despite the Listing Instrument.

21  Maximum number of repeats (Act s 85A(2)(b))

 (1) For the purposes of paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act, this section sets out the maximum number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct that a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit be repeated.

Supply for particular purposes

 (2) If:

 (a) a purposes code is mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) the supply is for purposes mentioned in Schedule 3 to this instrument for the purposes code;

the maximum number is the number mentioned in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit and the purposes code.

Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits not in Schedule 2

 (3) If:

 (a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) a number is mentioned in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit;

the maximum number is that number.

Supply for all purposes—HSD pharmaceutical benefits in Schedule 2

 (4) If:

 (a) a purposes code is not mentioned in the column headed “Purposes” in Schedule 1 to this instrument for the benefit; and

 (b) the words “See Schedule 2” appear in the column headed “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1 for the benefit; and

 (c) the prescription is written in circumstances mentioned in Schedule 3 for a circumstances code mentioned in the column headed “Circumstances” in Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit;

the maximum number is the number that is applicable under Schedule 2 to this instrument for the benefit and the circumstances code.

Application of this section

 (5) To the extent that this section provides for a matter not provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies in addition to the Listing Instrument.

 (6) To the extent that this section makes a different provision for a matter provided for in the Listing Instrument, this section applies despite the Listing Instrument.

23  Records to be kept—prescriptions for HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome

 (1) If an authorised prescriber for an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug eculizumab for the treatment of atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome writes a prescription for a special arrangement supply of the benefit, a copy of any clinical records relating to the prescription, including records required to demonstrate that the prescription was written in compliance with the circumstances and purposes determined in relation to the benefit under subsection 85(7) of the Act, must be kept by:

 (a) the approved hospital authority for the hospital in, at or from which the eligible patient is receiving treatment; or

 (b) if the approved hospital authority is not able to keep the records—the authorised prescriber.

 (2) The records must be kept for 2 years after the date the prescription to which the records relate is written.

Division 3—Supplying HSD pharmaceutical benefits

24  Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

 (1) This section applies to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit mentioned in the following table.

 

Special patient contribution for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Item

Drug

Form

Manner of administration

Brand

Pack quantity

Claimed price ($)

1

Lamivudine

Tablet 100 mg

Oral

Zeffix

28

28.09

2

Valaciclovir

Tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Valtrex

100

42.70

 (2) The special patient contribution for a pack quantity of a listed brand of a pharmaceutical item mentioned in the table is the amount that is the difference between:

 (a) the price that would have been the dispensed price for that quantity of the brand of the pharmaceutical item if that dispensed price had been based on the claimed price (within the meaning of Part VII of the Act) mentioned in the table for that quantity; and

 (b) the dispensed price for that quantity of the brand of the pharmaceutical item.

 (3) This section applies despite subsection 85B(5) of the Act.

25  Conditions for approved pharmacists

Special arrangement supplies of certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

 (1) The Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination does not apply to the dispensing or supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) the manner of administration of the benefit is injection or extracorporeal circulation; and

 (b) the benefit does not have a drug that is a community access medication; and

 (c) the supply is a special arrangement supply of the benefit.

ODT pharmaceutical benefits—special arrangement supplies through agents

 (2) If a supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit mentioned in subsection 26(2) of this instrument, the Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination applies to the dispensing and supply of the benefit as if paragraph 6(e), subsection 9(1), section 10, paragraphs 14(a) and (b) and section 15 of that Determination were omitted.

ODT pharmaceutical benefits—special arrangement supplies other than through agents

 (3) If a supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit other than a special arrangement supply of the benefit mentioned in subsection 26(2) of this instrument, the Approved Pharmacists Conditions Determination applies to the dispensing and supply of the benefit as if paragraph (c) of the definition of dispensing step in section 5 of that Determination were omitted.

26  Supplies need not be directly to persons

Supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits by HSD hospital authorities

 (1) An HSD hospital authority may make a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person:

 (a) other than directly to the person; or

 (b) through an agent.

Supplies of ODT pharmaceutical benefits by approved pharmacists and approved hospital authorities

 (2) An approved pharmacist or an approved hospital authority may make a special arrangement supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit to a person through a person or organisation:

 (a) that has premises in a State or Territory; and

 (b) that is authorised (however described) by an authority of the State or Territory for the purposes of supplying medication for the treatment of opioid dependence.

Application of this section

 (3) This section applies in addition to section 94 of the Act.

27  Repeated supplies of pharmaceutical benefits

  Section 51 of the Regulations does not apply to a special arrangement supply of HSD pharmaceutical benefits.

Part 3—Payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

Division 1—Supplies by approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

28  Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals (Act s 99(4))

 (1) For the purposes of subsection 99(4) of the Act, the amount payable to an approved hospital authority for a public hospital in respect of a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by the authority is the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the hospital authority was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.

Note 1: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved hospital authorities can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.

Note 2: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.

 (2) This section applies despite the National Health (Commonwealth Price—Pharmaceutical Benefits Supplied By Public Hospitals) Determination 2017 (PB 25 of 2017).

Note: See subsection 99(4) of the Act (read with section 9 of this instrument) for the entitlement of an approved hospital authority to payment for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital in respect of which the authority is approved.

29  Dispensed price for approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

 (1) The dispensed price for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved hospital authority for a public hospital is as follows:

 (a) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is equal to a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of the approved exmanufacturer price or the proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity;

 (b) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is less than a pack quantity of the benefit (a broken quantity)—the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2);

 (c) if neither paragraph (a) or (b) applies to the quantity of the benefit supplied—the sum of:

 (i) the approved exmanufacturer price or the proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and

 (ii) the amount calculated in accordance with subsection (2) for the remainder of the quantity that is a broken quantity.

Broken quantities

 (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b) and subparagraph (1)(c)(ii), the amount for a broken quantity is worked out by:

 (a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the pack quantity, expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and

 (b) applying that percentage to the approved exmanufacturer price or proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for the pack quantity.

Rounding

 (3) The dispensed price under subsection (1) is rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).

Division 2—Supplies by other approved suppliers

30  Entitlement to, and amount of, payment for approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners

 (1) This section applies if:

 (a) an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner has supplied an HSD pharmaceutical benefit; and

 (b) the supply is a special arrangement supply of the benefit.

Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.

 (2) The approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner is, subject to section 99AAA of the Act and the conditions determined under section 98C of the Act that are applicable at the time of the supply, entitled to be paid by the Commonwealth the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.

Note: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.

 (3) This section applies despite subsections 99(2) and (2AA) of the Act.

30A  Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

  Paragraph 99AAAB(1)(b) of the Act does not apply to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit if:

 (a) the manner of administration of the benefit is injection or extracorporeal circulation; and

 (b) the benefit is not a community access medication.

31  Rates of payment for approved hospital authorities for private hospitals (Act s 99(4))

 (1) For the purposes of subsection 99(4) of the Act, the amount payable to an approved hospital authority for a private hospital in respect of a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by the authority is the amount, if any, by which the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit exceeds the amount that the authority was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.

Note 1: Section 87 of the Act limits the amounts that approved hospital authorities can charge patients for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits.

Note 2: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.

 (2) This section applies despite the National Health (Commonwealth Price Pharmaceutical benefits supplied by private hospitals) Determination 2020 (PB 99 of 2020).

Note: See subsection 99(4) of the Act (read with section 9 of this instrument) for the entitlement of an approved hospital authority to payment for the supply of pharmaceutical benefits to patients receiving treatment in, at or from a hospital in respect of which the authority is approved.

32  Dispensed price for approved suppliers other than approved hospital authorities for public hospitals

 (1) The dispensed price for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier other than an approved hospital authority for a public hospital is as follows:

 (a) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is equal to a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of:

 (i) the approved exmanufacturer price or the proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and

 (ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale markup for a pack quantity of a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved exmanufacturer price or proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and

 (ii) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit—the markup mentioned in section 33 for each pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards); and

 (iii) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and

 (iv) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee;

 (b) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is less than a pack quantity of the benefit (a broken quantity)—the sum of:

 (i) the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2); and

 (ii) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and

 (iii) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee;

 (c) if the quantity of the benefit supplied is more than a multiple of a pack quantity of the benefit—the sum of:

 (i) the approved exmanufacturer price or the proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for each pack quantity; and

 (ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale markup for a pack quantity of a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved exmanufacturer price or proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and

 (ii) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit—the markup mentioned in section 33 for each pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards); and

 (iii) the amount worked out in accordance with subsection (2) for the remainder of the quantity that is a broken quantity; and

 (iv) the dispensing fee for the benefit in accordance with section 34; and

 (v) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit and a dangerous drug—the dangerous drug fee.

Broken quantities

 (2) For the purposes of subparagraphs (1)(b)(i) and (c)(iii), the amount for a broken quantity is worked out by:

 (a) dividing the quantity or number of units in the broken quantity by the pack quantity, expressed as a percentage to 2 decimal places; and

 (b) applying that percentage to the sum of:

 (i) the approved exmanufacturer price or the proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for the pack quantity; and

 (ia) if the approved supplier is an approved pharmacist—the wholesale markup for a pack quantity of a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit worked out in the table in section 11 of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination for the approved exmanufacturer price or proportional exmanufacturer price (as applicable) for that pack quantity; and

 (ii) if the benefit is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit—the markup mentioned in section 33 for the pack quantity, rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).

Rounding

 (3) The dispensed price under subsection (1) is rounded to the nearest cent (rounding 0.5 cents upwards).

33  Mark‑up for ready‑prepared pharmaceutical benefits

Approved suppliers other than approved pharmacists

 (1) Subsection (2) applies if an approved supplier is not an approved pharmacist.

 (2) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(ii), (c)(ii) and (2)(b)(ii), the markup for a pack quantity of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit is:

 (a) if the pack quantity of the benefit is equal to the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20—the amount mentioned in the following table for the approved exmanufacturer price (AEMP) or proportional exmanufacturer price (PEMP) (as applicable) for that quantity; or

 (b) if the pack quantity of the benefit is less than the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20:

 (i) if the markup mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a monetary amount—that monetary amount reduced proportionately for the relative quantities; or

 (ii) if the markup mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a percentage of the AEMP or PEMP (as applicable)—that percentage of the AEMP or PEMP for the pack quantity.

 

Markup for readyprepared pharmaceutical benefits

Item

If the AEMP or PEMP (as applicable) for the maximum quantity is …

the markup for the maximum quantity is …

1

less than $40

10% of the AEMP or PEMP

2

at least $40 but not more than $100

$4

3

more than $100 but not more than $1,000

4% of the AEMP or PEMP

4

more than $1,000

$40

Approved pharmacists

 (3) Subsection (4) applies if an approved supplier is an approved pharmacist.

 (4) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(ii), (c)(ii) and (2)(b)(ii), the markup for a pack quantity of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit is:

 (a) if the pack quantity of the benefit is equal to the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20—the amount mentioned in the following table for the price to pharmacists (PTP) for that quantity; or

 (b) if the pack quantity of the benefit is less than the maximum quantity of the benefit mentioned in section 20:

 (i) if the markup mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a monetary amount—that monetary amount reduced proportionately for the relative quantities; or

 (ii) if the markup mentioned in the following table for the maximum quantity is a percentage of the price to pharmacists—that percentage of the price to pharmacists for the pack quantity.

 

Markup for readyprepared pharmaceutical benefits

Item

If the PTP for the maximum quantity is …

the markup for the PTP is …

1

less than $40

10% of the PTP

2

at least $40 but not more than $100

$4

3

more than $100 but not more than $1,000

4% of the PTP

4

more than $1,000

$40

Note: See the definition of price to pharmacists in section 6.

34  Dispensing fee

 (1) For the purposes of subparagraphs 32(1)(a)(iii), (b)(ii) and (c)(iv):

 (a) the dispensing fee for the supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit is:

 (i) if the benefit has a drug mentioned in subsection (2) in the form mentioned in that subsection for the drug—the extemporaneouslyprepared dispensing fee (within the meaning of the Approved Pharmacists Commonwealth Price Determination); or

 (ii) if subparagraph (i) does not apply—the readyprepared dispensing fee (within the meaning of that Determination); and

 (b) if the authorised prescriber who prescribed the benefit, instead of directing a repeated supply of the benefit, directed the supply on one occasion of a quantity or number of units of the benefit, not exceeding the total quantity or number of units that could be prescribed if the authorised prescriber directed a repeated supply, the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit includes:

 (i) only one dispensing fee; and

 (ii) only one dangerous drug fee.

Note: See section 49 of the Regulations for the circumstances in which such a supply may be directed.

 (2) For the purpose of subparagraph (1)(a)(i), the drugs and the forms for the drugs are as follows:

 (a) mycophenolic acid as a powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1g per 5 mL, 165mL;

 (b) valganciclovir as a powder for oral solution 50mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 100 mL.

Part 3A—Supply to CTG registered patients by CTG suppliers

 

34A  Application of this Part

  This Part applies to a special arrangement supply (the relevant supply) of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit under this Special Arrangement if the relevant supply is made:

 (a) to an eligible patient who is a CTG registered patient; and

 (b) by an approved supplier who is a CTG supplier.

34B  Application of the CTG Special Arrangement—co‑payment and payment etc.

 (1) Despite sections 28, 30, 31 and 37 of this Special Arrangement, subsections 10(1), (2), (3) and (10) (copayment reduction etc.), section 11 (value for safety net purposes) and section 12 (payment by Commonwealth) of the CTG Special Arrangement apply in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement with the modification set out in subsection (2) of this section.

 (2) A reference in the CTG Special Arrangement to a special arrangement supply (within the meaning of the CTG Special Arrangement) of a pharmaceutical benefit is taken to be a reference to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement.

 (3) However, the notes to subsections 10(2) and (3) of the CTG Special Arrangement do not apply in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement.

Note: The notes to subsections 10(2) and (3) of the CTG Special Arrangement relate to CTG suppliers making claims for payment under the CTG Special Arrangement. Claims for payment in relation to the relevant supply under this Special Arrangement are instead dealt with under Part 4 of this Special Arrangement.

Part 4—Claims for payment for special arrangement supplies of HSD pharmaceutical benefits

 

35  Rules for providing information about supplies—definition of under co‑payment data

  The National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Copayment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022 apply to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier as if the definition of under copayment data in that instrument were replaced with the following definition:

under copayment data means information relating to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier where the amount payable by the Commonwealth is nil because the dispensed price for the supply of the benefit does not exceed the amount that the supplier was entitled to charge under section 87 of the Act in respect of the supply.

35A  Claim for payment if an eligible patient is a CTG registered patient

  If:

 (a) a claim for payment for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit made under the National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Copayment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022 is made using the manual system referred to in section 99AAA of the Act; and

 (b) the claim is made:

 (i) by an approved supplier who is a CTG supplier; and

 (ii) in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to an eligible patient who is a CTG registered patient;

the claim must include an indicator that the eligible patient is a CTG registered patient.

Part 5—Miscellaneous

 

36  Compliance and audit arrangements

 (1) If an approved supplier makes a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit, the approved supplier must keep adequate, secure and auditable records of all supplied HSD pharmaceutical benefits for which a claim is made.

 (2) The records must be kept in systems that are able to be audited by the Chief Executive Medicare on reasonable notice being given to the approved supplier.

37  Value for safety net purposes for supplies

Supplies by approved hospital authorities

 (1) The value for safety net purposes for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person by an approved hospital authority is the amount paid by the person for the supply of the benefit that is equivalent to the amount chargeable under subsection 87(5) of the Act for the supply of the benefit less the amount chargeable under that subsection because of subsection 87(2A) of the Act.

Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.

Supplies by approved pharmacists and approved medical practitioners

 (2) The value for safety net purposes for a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a person by an approved pharmacist or approved medical practitioner is the amount paid by the person for the supply of the benefit that is equivalent to the amount chargeable under section 87 of the Act for the supply of the benefit less the amount chargeable under subsection 87(2A) of the Act.

Note: However, see Part 3A in relation to a special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit to a CTG registered patient by a CTG supplier.

Application of this section

 (3) This section applies despite regulation 17A of the Regulations.

Part 6—Application, saving and transitional provisions

Division 1—Provisions relating to this instrument as made

38  HSD hospital authorities

  Despite the repeal of the National Health (Highly specialised drugs program) Special Arrangement 2010 (PB 116 of 2010):

 (a) an approval that was in force under subsection 52(2) of that instrument immediately before 1 April 2021; and

 (b) an approval that was continued in force under section 53 of that instrument as if it were an approval under subsection 52(2) of that instrument, and was in force immediately before 1 April 2021;

continues in force as if it were an approval under section 94 of the Act, as modified by section 10 of this instrument.

Division 2—Provisions relating to the National Health Legislation Amendment (Opioid Dependence Treatment and Maximum Dispensed Quantities) Instrument 2023

39  Purpose of this Division

  This Division makes provision in relation to certain precommencement prescriptions for the purpose of the application of Part VII of the Act, and regulations and other instruments made for the purposes of that Part, to those prescriptions.

40  Definitions

  In this Division:

Claims Rules means the National Health (Supply of Pharmaceutical Benefits—Under Copayment Data and Claims for Payment) Rules 2022.

precommencement benefit: see section 50.

precommencement prescription: a prescription is a precommencement prescription if:

 (a) the prescription was written:

 (i) before 1 July 2023; and

 (ii) by an authorised nurse practitioner or a medical practitioner; and

 (iii) for the supply to a person of a drug that is a medication for the treatment of opioid dependence; and

 (iv) in the circumstance that the prescription was for the treatment of opiate dependence, including for detoxification (withdrawal) and maintenance of withdrawal; and

 (b) immediately before 1 July 2023, a precommencement benefit could have been supplied to the person on the basis of the prescription.

41  Definition of special arrangement supply

  A supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit is a special arrangement supply of the benefit if the benefit is supplied:

 (a) on or after 1 July 2023; and

 (b) to a person who is, or is to be treated as, an eligible person; and

 (c) by an approved supplier; and

 (d) on the basis of a precommencement prescription (as affected by this Division, if applicable); and

 (e) in accordance with this Division.

42  Prescriptions directing supply for dispensing over time

 (1) This section applies if a precommencement prescription directed the supply of a specified quantity or number of units (whether expressed as a total or as a dose) to be dispensed over a specified period of time (the directed dispensing period).

Deemed variation of application of determination of maximum number or quantity of units

 (2) If the specified quantity or number of units, or the quantity or number of units required for the doses over the directed dispensing period, is more than the maximum quantity or number of units mentioned in Schedule 1 for the pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied on the basis of the prescription:

 (a) the application of the determination of the maximum quantity or number of units under paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act for the benefit is taken to have been varied under section 30 of the Regulations; and

 (b) the prescription is taken to have been authorised in accordance with subsection 30(4) of the Regulations; and

 (c) the number P2023OD is taken to have been allotted to, and marked on, the prescription as mentioned in subsection 30(5) of the Regulations.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of up to 28 days

 (3) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the period remaining in the directed dispensing period (the remaining period) is not more than 28 days, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for the remaining period.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 29 to 55 days

 (4) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is more than 28 days but not more than 55 days, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 56 to 83 days

 (5) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is more than 55 days but not more than 83 days, the prescription is taken to direct:

 (a) the supply on any one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days; and

 (b) that the supply be repeated once.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining period of 84 days or more

 (6) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining period is 84 days or more, the prescription is taken to direct:

 (a) the supply on any one occasion of the total quantity or number of units required for 28 days; and

 (b) that the supply be repeated twice.

43  Prescriptions directing supply of buprenorphine for injection

 (1) This section applies if:

 (a) a precommencement prescription is for the supply of the drug buprenorphine with the manner of administration injection (the medication); and

 (b) the prescription directed the supply of a specified quantity or number of units of the medication (the directed quantity) that is more than the quantity of the medication mentioned in subsection (2) (the standard quantity for the medication).

 (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the standard quantity for the medication is:

 (a) if the brand of the medication is Buvidal Weekly—4; or

 (b) if the brand of the medication is Buvidal Monthly or Sublocade—1.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of not more than standard quantity

 (3) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the quantity or number of units of the medication that remains to be supplied (the remaining quantity) is not more than the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the remaining quantity.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of more than standard quantity but less than twice standard quantity

 (4) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is more than the standard quantity for the medication but is less than twice the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct the supply on one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of more than twice standard quantity but less than 3 times standard quantity

 (5) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is more than twice the standard quantity for the medication but is less than 3 times the standard quantity for the medication, the prescription is taken to direct:

 (a) the supply on any one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication; and

 (b) that the supply be repeated once.

Deemed modification of prescription—remaining quantity of 3 times standard quantity or more

 (6) If, when the prescription is first presented to an approved supplier on or after 1 July 2023, the remaining quantity is 3 times the standard quantity for the medication or more, the prescription is taken to direct:

 (a) the supply on any one occasion of the standard quantity for the medication; and

 (b) that the supply be repeated twice.

44  Prescriptions directing supply of methadone

 (1) This section applies if a precommencement prescription is for the supply of the drug methadone.

 (2) On the basis of the prescription, the person for whom the prescription was written is entitled to receive, and an approved supplier may supply to the person, any ODT pharmaceutical benefit that has the drug methadone.

 (3) This section applies despite section 89 and paragraph 103(2)(a) of the Act.

45  First supply on or after 1 July 2023 deemed to be supply on first presentation

  If the first supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit by an approved supplier on the basis of a precommencement prescription on or after 1 July 2023 is not a supply of that benefit on first presentation of the prescription, it is taken to be a supply of that benefit on first presentation of the prescription.

46  Supply on first presentation of prescription (Regulations s 44)

  Subparagraphs 44(2)(a)(i) and (3)(a)(i) of the Regulations do not apply to a special arrangement supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a precommencement prescription.

47  Repeat authorisations (Regulations s 52)

 (1) Section 52 of the Regulations applies to the supply of an ODT pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a precommencement prescription to which subsection 42(5) or (6) or 43(5) or (6) of this instrument applies as if the benefit were supplied in the circumstances set out in subsection 52(2) of the Regulations.

 (2) Subsection 52(3) of the Regulations applies in relation to a precommencement prescription as if the prescription had been authorised in accordance with authority required procedures that are part of the circumstances determined by the Minister under paragraph 85(7)(b) of the Act for the pharmaceutical benefit to be supplied on the basis of the prescription.

48  Prescriptions written in electronic form—additional procedures for giving information (Claims Rules s 7) and keeping documents

Additional procedures for giving information

 (1) Section 7 of the Claims Rules applies in relation to a precommencement prescription written in electronic form as if a reference in that section to the prescription were a reference to a printout of the prescription.

Keeping printouts of prescriptions

 (2) If an approved supplier supplies a pharmaceutical benefit on the basis of a precommencement prescription written in electronic form, the approved supplier must keep a printout of the prescription for at least 2 years from the date the pharmaceutical benefit was supplied by the approved supplier.

49  Information to be given using Claims Transmission System (Claims Rules Sch 1)

General

 (1) The table in clause 1 of Schedule 1 to the Claims Rules applies to a precommencement prescription as follows:

 (a) as if, for the purposes of item 2 of the table, the Authority Prescription Number for the prescription were 00000641;

 (b) as if, for the purposes of item 8 of the table, the prescription were signed on 1 July 2023;

 (c) if the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription did not write their PBS prescriber number on the prescription—as if, for the purposes of item 28 of the table, that number were written on the prescription;

 (d) if the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription did not write their prescriber ID on the prescription—as if, for the purposes of item 31 of the table, that number were written on the prescription;

 (e) if the prescription was written in electronic form—as if, for the purposes of item 32 of the table, the prescription were a paperbased prescription;

 (f) as if, for the purposes of item 40 of the table, the authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner who wrote the prescription had written on the prescription:

 (i) the words “Streamlined Authority Code”; and

 (ii) the relevant streamlined authority code included in any circumstances mentioned in an item of the table in Part 1 of Schedule 4 to the Listing Instrument for the writing of a prescription for a pharmaceutical benefit for the treatment of opioid dependence.

Precommencement prescriptions written in electronic form

 (2) Clause 2 of Schedule 1 to the Claims Rules does not apply to a precommencement prescription written in electronic form.

50  Pre‑commencement benefits

  Each pharmaceutical benefit specified in the following table is a precommencement benefit.

 

Precommencement benefits

Item

Listed drug

Form

Manner of administration

Brand

1

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 8 mg in 0.16 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

2

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 16 mg in 0.32 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

3

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 24 mg in 0.48 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

4

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 32 mg in 0.64 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

5

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 64 mg in 0.18 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

6

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 96 mg in 0.27 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

7

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 128 mg in 0.36 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

8

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 160 mg in 0.45 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

9

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 100 mg in 0.50 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Sublocade

10

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 300 mg in 1.50 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Sublocade

11

Buprenorphine

Tablet (sublingual) 400 micrograms (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

12

Buprenorphine

Tablet (sublingual) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

13

Buprenorphine

Tablet (sublingual) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

14

Buprenorphine with naloxone

Film (soluble) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)0.5 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Suboxone Film 2/0.5

15

Buprenorphine with naloxone

Film (soluble) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Suboxone Film 8/2

16

Methadone

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL

Oral

Biodone Forte

17

Methadone

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL

Oral

Aspen Methadone Syrup

18

Methadone

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 1 L

Oral

Biodone Forte

19

Methadone

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL, 1 L

Oral

Aspen Methadone Syrup

Note: The drugs mentioned in the table were declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act, and the forms, manners of administration and brands mentioned in the table were determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively—see the National Health (Listing of Pharmaceutical Benefits) Instrument 2012 (PB 71 of 2012) as in force before 1 July 2023.

Division 3—Provisions relating to the National Health (Highly Specialised Drugs Program) Special Arrangement Amendment (Increases in Maximum Quantity and Number of Repeats for Complex Authority required (CAR) Medicines) Instrument 2026

51  Prescriptions directing increased maximum quantities or numbers of units of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug

 (1) This section applies to the special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a CAR drug that is made on or after 1 February 2026 if:

 (a) the supply is made on the basis of a prescription that was written before 1 February 2026; and

 (b) the prescription directs the supply on any one occasion of a quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item in the HSD pharmaceutical benefit that is more than the applicable maximum quantity for the pharmaceutical item; and

 (c) before 1 February 2026, the Minister purported under section 30 of the Regulations to:

 (i) authorise the variation of the application of the determination of the applicable maximum quantity; and

 (ii) allot a number to the prescription.

Note: Former section 22 of this instrument prevented the Minister from authorising, under section 30 of the Regulations, a variation of the application of the determination of the maximum quantity or number of units of a pharmaceutical item in an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that a prescriber could direct to be supplied on any one occasion.

 (2) The Minister is taken to have authorised, under subsection 30(2) of the Regulations, the variation of the determination of the applicable maximum quantity in relation to the prescription and the person who wrote the prescription.

 (3) The number purportedly allotted to the prescription is taken to have been allotted to the prescription in accordance with subsection 30(3) of the Regulations.

 (4) In this section, the applicable maximum quantity, for the pharmaceutical item in the HSD pharmaceutical benefit prescribed for supply, means the quantity or number of units of the pharmaceutical item determined for paragraph 85A(2)(a) of the Act under subsection 20(2), 20(3) or 20(4) of this instrument (whichever is applicable).

52  Prescriptions directing increased maximum number of repeats of HSD pharmaceutical benefits that have a CAR drug

 (1) This section applies to the special arrangement supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit that has a CAR drug that is made on or after 1 February 2026 if:

 (a) the supply is made on the basis of a prescription that was written before 1 February 2026; and

 (b) the prescription directs the supply of the HSD pharmaceutical benefit be repeated on a number of occasions that is more than the applicable maximum number of repeats for the pharmaceutical benefit; and

 (c) before 1 February 2026, the Minister purported under section 30 of the Regulations to:

 (i) authorise the variation of the application of the determination of the applicable maximum number of repeats; and

 (ii) allot a number to the prescription.

Note: Former section 22 of this instrument prevented the Minister from authorising, under section 30 of the Regulations, a variation of the application of the determination of the maximum number of occasions on which the supply of an HSD pharmaceutical benefit may, in one prescription, be directed to be repeated.

 (2) The Minister is taken to have authorised, under subsection 30(2) of the Regulations, the variation of the determination of the applicable maximum number of repeats in relation to the prescription and the person who wrote the prescription.

 (3) The number purportedly allotted to the prescription is taken to have been allotted to the prescription in accordance with subsection 30(3) of the Regulations.

 (4) In this section, the applicable maximum number of repeats, for the HSD pharmaceutical benefit prescribed for supply, means the number of occasions an authorised prescriber may, in one prescription, direct the supply of the HSD pharmaceutical be repeated, determined for paragraph 85A(2)(b) of the Act under subsection 21(2), 21(3) or 21(4) of this instrument (whichever is applicable).

Schedule 1—HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information

 

 

Note: See the definitions of highly specialised drug and HSD pharmaceutical benefit in section 6, and sections 13, 15, 20 and 21.

1  Highly specialised drugs and HSD pharmaceutical benefits

 (1) Each listed drug specified in the following table is a highly specialised drug.

 (2) Each pharmaceutical benefit specified in the following table is an HSD pharmaceutical benefit.

 (3) The following table also specifies circumstances, purposes, maximum quantities and maximum repeats for HSD pharmaceutical benefits.

Note: The drugs mentioned in the table have been declared by the Minister under subsection 85(2) of the Act. The forms, manners of administration and brands mentioned in the table have been determined by the Minister under subsections 85(3), (5) and (6) of the Act respectively.

 

HSD pharmaceutical benefits and related information

Listed drug

Form

Manner of administration

Brand

Circumstances

Purposes

Maximum quantity

Maximum repeats

Abacavir

Oral solution 20 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 240 mL

Oral

Ziagen

C13920

 

8

5

 

Tablet 300 mg (as sulfate)

Oral

Ziagen

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

Abacavir with Lamivudine

Tablet containing abacavir 600 mg (as sulfate) with lamivudine 300 mg

Oral

Abacavir/Lamivudine Viatris

C4527 C4528

 

60

5

Abatacept

Powder for I.V. infusion 250 mg

Injection

Orencia

C14488 C14507 C14555 C14604 C18169 C18272 C18273 C18274

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Adalimumab

Injection 20 mg in 0.2 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Humira

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 20 mg in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Amgevita

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL prefilled pen

Injection

Hadlima

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Humira

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hyrimoz

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Yuflyma

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 40 mg in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Hadlima

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Humira

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hyrimoz

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Yuflyma

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL prefilled pen

Injection

Abrilada

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Amgevita

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hadlima

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hyrimoz

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Amgevita

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hadlima

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Hyrimoz

C12120 C17707 C17713 C17717 C17719 C17733 C17734

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Alemtuzumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 12 mg in 1.2 mL

Injection

Lemtrada

C6847 C7714 C9589 C9636

P6847 P9589

3

0

 

 

 

 

C6847 C7714 C9589 C9636

P7714 P9636

5

0

Ambrisentan

Tablet 5 mg

Oral

Ambrisentan Viatris

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Cipla Ambrisentan

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

PULMORIS

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Volibris

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 10 mg

Oral

Ambrisentan Viatris

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Cipla Ambrisentan

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

PULMORIS

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Volibris

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Anakinra

Injection 100 mg in 0.67 mL single use prefilled syringe

Injection

Kineret

C5450

 

28

5

Anifrolumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 2 mL

Injection

Saphnelo

C15387 C18465

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Apomorphine

Injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 50 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Movapo

C11385 C11445

 

180

5

 

Injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 100 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Apomine Solution for Infusion

C10830 C10863

 

90

5

 

 

 

MOVAPO POD

C10830 C10863

 

90

5

 

Solution for subcutaneous infusion containing apomorphine hydrochloride hemihydrate 50 mg in 10 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Movapo PFS

C11385 C11445

 

180

5

 

Solution for subcutaneous injection containing apomorphine hydrochloride 30 mg in 3 mL prefilled pen

Injection

Apomine Intermittent

C10830 C10863

 

100

5

 

 

 

Movapo Pen

C10830 C10863

 

100

5

Atazanavir with cobicistat

Tablet containing 300 mg atazanavir and 150 mg cobicistat

Oral

Evotaz

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

Avatrombopag

Tablet 20 mg

Oral

Doptelet

C14054 C15340 C15375 C18297

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Azacitidine

Powder for injection 100 mg

Injection

Azacitidine Accord

C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Azacitidine Dr.Reddy's

C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Azacitidine Juno

C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Azacitidine MSN

C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Azacitidine SXP

C12439 C12983 C12986 C13010 C13011 C13012 C13015 C13029

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Azithromycin

Tablet 600 mg (as dihydrate)

Oral

Zithromax

C6356 C9604

 

16

5

Baclofen

Intrathecal injection 10 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Bacthecal

C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637

 

10

0

 

 

 

Lioresal Intrathecal

C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637

 

10

0

 

 

 

Sintetica Baclofen Intrathecal

C6911 C6925 C6939 C6940 C9488 C9489 C9524 C9637

 

10

0

 

Intrathecal injection 40 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Sintetica Baclofen Intrathecal

C7134 C7148 C7152 C7153 C9525 C9562 C9606 C9638

 

2

0

Benralizumab

Injection 30 mg in 1 mL single dose prefilled pen

Injection

Fasenra Pen

C15376 C15884 C18271 C18874

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide

Tablet containing bictegravir 50 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg

Oral

Biktarvy

C4470 C4522

 

60

5

Bosentan

Tablet 62.5 mg (as monohydrate)

Oral

Bosentan APO

C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

BOSENTAN DR.REDDY’S

C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Bosentan RBX

C11229 C12425 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 125 mg (as monohydrate)

Oral

Bosentan APO

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

BOSENTAN DR.REDDY’S

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Bosentan GH

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Bosentan RBX

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Bosentan Viatris

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Buprenorphine

Injection (modified release) 8 mg in 0.16 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

C16051

 

4

5

 

Injection (modified release) 16 mg in 0.32 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

C16051

 

4

5

 

Injection (modified release) 24 mg in 0.48 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

C16051

 

4

5

 

Injection (modified release) 32 mg in 0.64 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Weekly

C16051

 

4

5

 

Injection (modified release) 64 mg in 0.18 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

C16015

 

1

5

 

Injection (modified release) 96 mg in 0.27 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

C16015

 

1

5

 

Injection (modified release) 100 mg in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Sublocade

C16050

 

1

5

 

Injection (modified release) 128 mg in 0.36 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

C16015

 

1

5

 

Injection (modified release) 160 mg in 0.45 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Buvidal Monthly

C16015

 

1

5

 

Injection (modified release) 300 mg in 1.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Sublocade

C16050

 

1

5

 

Tablet (sublingual) 400 micrograms (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

C16009

 

28

5

 

Tablet (sublingual) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

C16009

 

84

5

 

Tablet (sublingual) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Subutex

C16009

 

112

5

Buprenorphine with naloxone

Film (soluble) 2 mg (as hydrochloride)0.5 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Suboxone Film 2/0.5

C16009

 

84

5

 

Film (soluble) 8 mg (as hydrochloride)2 mg (as hydrochloride)

Sublingual

Suboxone Film 8/2

C16009

 

112

5

Burosumab

Solution for injection 10 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Crysvita

C13330 C13377

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Solution for injection 20 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Crysvita

C13330 C13377

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Solution for injection 30 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Crysvita

C13330 C13377

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Cabotegravir

Tablet 30 mg

Oral

Vocabria

C12619

 

30

0

Cabotegravir and rilpivirine

Pack containing 1 vial cabotegravir 600 mg in 3 mL and 1 vial rilpivirine 900 mg in 3 mL

Injection

Cabenuva

C12636

 

1

5

Ciclosporin

Capsule 10 mg

Oral

Neoral 10

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

Capsule 25 mg

Oral

APOCiclosporin

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

CICLOSPORIN-WGR

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

Neoral 25

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

Capsule 50 mg

Oral

APOCiclosporin

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

CICLOSPORIN-WGR

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

Neoral 50

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

Capsule 100 mg

Oral

APOCiclosporin

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

CICLOSPORIN-WGR

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

 

 

Neoral 100

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

120

5

 

Oral liquid 100 mg per mL, 50 mL

Oral

Neoral

C6631 C6638 C6643 C6660 C9694 C9695 C9742 C9764 C15360 C15361

 

4

5

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 50 mg in 1 mL

Injection

Sandimmun

C6628 C9831

 

10

0

Cinacalcet

Tablet 30 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Cinacalcet Viatris

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Cinacalcet

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

 

Tablet 60 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Cinacalcet Viatris

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Cinacalcet

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

 

Tablet 90 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Cinacalcet Viatris

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Cinacalcet

C10063 C10067 C10073

 

56

5

Clozapine

Oral liquid 50 mg per mL, 100 mL

Oral

Clopine Suspension

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

1

0

 

 

 

Versacloz

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

1

0

 

Tablet 25 mg

Oral

Clopine 25

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozaril 25

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozitor

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

Tablet 50 mg

Oral

Clopine 50

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozitor

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

Tablet 100 mg

Oral

Clopine 100

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozaril 100

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozitor

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

Tablet 200 mg

Oral

Clopine 200

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

 

 

 

Clozitor

C4998 C5015 C9490

 

200

0

Darbepoetin alfa

Injection 10 micrograms in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 20 micrograms in 0.5 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 20 micrograms in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 30 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 40 micrograms in 0.4 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 40 micrograms in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 50 micrograms in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 60 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 60 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 80 micrograms in 0.4 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 80 micrograms in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 100 micrograms in 0.5 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 100 micrograms in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled injection pen

Injection

Aranesp SureClick

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

 

Injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Aranesp

C6294 C9688

 

8

5

Darunavir

Tablet 600 mg

Oral

Darunavir Juno

C5094

 

120

5

 

Tablet 600 mg (as ethanolate)

Oral

Prezista

C5094

 

120

5

 

Tablet 800 mg

Oral

Darunavir Juno

C4313

 

60

5

 

Tablet 800mg (as ethanolate)

Oral

Prezista

C4313

 

60

5

Darunavir with cobicistat

Tablet containing darunavir 800mg with cobicistat 150 mg

Oral

Prezcobix

C6377 C6413 C6428

 

60

5

Darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide

Tablet containing darunavir
800 mg with cobicistat 150 mg, emtricitabine 200 mg and tenofovir alafenamide 10 mg

Oral

Symtuza

C10317 C10324

 

60

5

Deferasirox

Tablet 90 mg

Oral

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

Tablet 180 mg

Oral

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

Tablet 360 mg

Oral

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

180

2

 

 

 

DEFERAMED

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox ARX

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Deferasirox Sandoz

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

DEFERASIROXTEVA

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Eferas

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Jadenu

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox FC

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

180

5

 

Tablet, dispersible, 125 mg

Oral

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

 

Tablet, dispersible, 250 mg

Oral

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

 

Tablet, dispersible, 500 mg

Oral

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7385 P8326 P8328 P8329 P9222 P9258 P9302

168

2

 

 

 

Deferasirox Juno

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Deferasirox

C7374 C7375 C7385 C8326 C8328 C8329 C9222 C9258 C9302

P7374 P7375

168

5

Deferiprone

Oral solution 100 mg per mL, 250 mL

Oral

Ferriprox

C6403 C6448 C9228 C9286

 

5

5

 

Tablet 500 mg

Oral

Ferriprox

C6403 C6448 C9228 C9286

 

300

5

 

Tablet 1000 mg

Oral

Ferriprox

C6403 C6448 C9590 C9623

 

300

5

Desferrioxamine

Powder for injection containing desferrioxamine mesilate 500 mg

Injection

DBL Desferrioxamine Mesilate

C6394 C9696

 

400

5

 

Powder for injection containing desferrioxamine mesilate 2 g

Injection

DBL Desferrioxamine Mesilate

C6394 C9696

 

60

5

Difelikefalin

Solution for I.V. injection 50 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL

Injection

Korsuva

C15171 C15211

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Dolutegravir

Tablet 50mg (as sodium)

Oral

Tivicay

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

Dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine

Tablet containing dolutegravir 50 mg with abacavir 600 mg and lamivudine 300 mg

Oral

Triumeq

C9981 C10116

 

60

5

Dolutegravir with lamivudine

Tablet containing dolutegravir
50 mg (as sodium) with lamivudine 300 mg

Oral

Dovato

C9987 C11066

 

60

5

Dolutegravir with rilpivirine

Tablet containing dolutegravir 50 mg (as sodium) with rilpivirine 25 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Juluca

C8214 C8226

 

60

5

Dornase Alfa

Solution for inhalation 2.5 mg (2,500 units) in 2.5 mL

Inhalation

Pulmozyme

C5634 C5635 C5740 C9591 C9592 C9624

 

60

5

Doxorubicin
Pegylated Liposomal

Suspension for I.V. infusion containing pegylated liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride 20 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Caelyx

C6234 C6274 C9223 C9287

 

4

5

 

 

 

Liposomal Doxorubicin SUN

C6234 C6274 C9223 C9287

 

4

5

Dupilumab

Injection 200 mg in 1.14 mL single dose prefilled pen

Injection

Dupixent

C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 200 mg in 1.14 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Dupixent

C15886 C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 C18269 C18889

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose pre-filled pen

Injection

Dupixent

C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Dupixent

C17009 C17016 C17072 C17073 C17113 C18269 C18464 C18858

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Eculizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 30 mL

Injection

Soliris

C14750 C14753 C14754 C14781 C14792 C14793 C14799 C14805 C17602 C17626 C17630 C17651 C17673 C17675 C17684 C17693 C17697

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Edaravone

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 30 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Radicava

C16479 C18480

P16479

20

2

 

 

 

 

C16479 C18480

P18480

28

0

Eflornithine

Tablet 192 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Ifinwil

C16841 C17735 C17753

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor

Pack containing 28 sachets containing granules elexacaftor 80 mg with tezacaftor 40 mg and with ivacaftor 60 mg and 28 sachets containing granules ivacaftor 59.5 mg

Oral

Trikafta

C17770 C17772

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 28 sachets containing granules elexacaftor 100 mg with tezacaftor 50 mg and with ivacaftor 75 mg and 28 sachets containing granules ivacaftor 75 mg

Oral

Trikafta

C17770 C17772

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 56 tablets elexacaftor 50 mg with tezacaftor 25 mg and with ivacaftor 37.5 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 75 mg

Oral

Trikafta

C17846 C17971

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 56 tablets elexacaftor 100 mg with tezacaftor 50 mg and with ivacaftor 75 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 150 mg

Oral

Trikafta

C17937 C17970

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Eltrombopag

Tablet 25 mg (as olamine)

Oral

Revolade

C13327 C14127 C14129 C15173 C16455 C18209 C18210

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 50 mg (as olamine)

Oral

Revolade

C13327 C14127 C14129 C15173 C16455 C18209 C18210

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide

Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with rilpivirine 25 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg

Oral

Odefsey

C4470 C4522

 

60

5

Emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide

Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 10 mg

Oral

Descovy

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

 

Tablet containing emtricitabine 200 mg with tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg

Oral

Descovy

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

Entecavir

Tablet 0.5 mg (as monohydrate)

Oral

ENTAC

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

ENTECAVIR APO

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

Entecavir GH

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

ENTECAVIR RBX

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

Entecavir Sandoz

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

Entecavir Viatris

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

 

 

ENTECAVIR-WGR

C4993 C5036

 

60

5

 

Tablet 1 mg (as monohydrate)

Oral

ENTECAVIR APO

C5037 C5044

 

60

5

 

 

 

ENTECAVIR RBX

C5037 C5044

 

60

5

 

 

 

Entecavir Sandoz

C5037 C5044

 

60

5

 

 

 

Entecavir Viatris

C5037 C5044

 

60

5

 

 

 

ENTECAVIR-WGR

C5037 C5044

 

60

5

Epoetin Alfa

Injection 1,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 1000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 2,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 2000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 3,000 units in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 3000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 4,000 units in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 4000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 5,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 5000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 6,000 units in 0.6 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 6000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 8,000 units in 0.8 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 8000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 10,000 units in 1 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 10000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 20,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 20,000

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 40,000 units in 1 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Eprex 40,000

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

Epoetin lambda

Injection 1,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 2,000 units in 1 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 3,000 units in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 4,000 units in 0.4 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 5,000 units in 0.5 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 6,000 units in 0.6 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 8,000 units in 0.8 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

 

Injection 10,000 units in 1 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Novicrit

C6294 C9688

 

12

5

Epoprostenol

Powder for I.V. infusion 500 micrograms (as sodium)

Injection

Veletri

C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Powder for I.V. infusion 1.5 mg (as sodium)

Injection

Veletri

C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Esketamine

Nasal spray device 28 mg in 2 actuations

Nasal

Spravato

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16460

4

5

 

 

 

 

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16477

8

0

 

 

 

 

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16470

8

5

 

 

 

 

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16419

12

5

 

 

 

 

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16422

16

0

 

 

 

 

C16419 C16422 C16454 C16460 C16470 C16477

P16454

24

0

Etanercept

Injection 50 mg in 1 mL single use autoinjector, 4

Injection

Enbrel

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Erelzi

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Nepexto

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injections 50 mg in 1 mL single use prefilled syringes, 4

Injection

Enbrel

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Erelzi

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Nepexto

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection set containing 4 vials powder for injection 25 mg and 4 prefilled syringes solvent 1 mL

Injection

Enbrel

C12120 C17706 C17707 C17713 C17724 C17725

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Etravirine

Tablet 200 mg

Oral

Intelence

C5014

 

120

5

Everolimus

Tablet 0.25 mg

Oral

Certican

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

120

5

 

 

 

Everocan

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

120

5

 

Tablet 0.5 mg

Oral

Certican

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

120

5

 

 

 

Everocan

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

120

5

 

Tablet 0.75 mg

Oral

Certican

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

240

5

 

 

 

Everocan

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

240

5

 

Tablet 1 mg

Oral

Certican

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

240

5

 

 

 

Everocan

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

240

5

Filgrastim

Injection 120 micrograms in 0.2 mL singleuse prefilled syringe

Injection

Nivestim

C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696

 

20

11

 

Injection 300 micrograms in 0.5 mL singleuse prefilled syringe

Injection

Nivestim

C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696

 

20

11

 

 

 

Zarzio

C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696

 

20

11

 

Injection 480 micrograms in 0.5 mL singleuse prefilled syringe

Injection

Nivestim

C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696

 

20

11

 

 

 

Zarzio

C6621 C6640 C6653 C6654 C6655 C6679 C6680 C7822 C7843 C8667 C8668 C8669 C8670 C8671 C8672 C8673 C8674 C8696

 

20

11

Foslevodopa with foscarbidopa

Solution for subcutaneous infusion containing foslevodopa 2400 mg with foscarbidopa 120 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Vyalev

C16812 C16853 C16883 C16972

P16812 P16883

28

5

 

 

 

 

C16812 C16853 C16883 C16972

P16853 P16972

56

5

Ganciclovir

Powder for I.V. infusion 500 mg (as sodium)

Injection

Cymevene

C5000 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814

 

10

1

 

 

 

GANCICLOVIR SXP

C5000 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814

 

10

1

Glecaprevir with pibrentasvir

Tablet containing 100 mg glecaprevir with 40 mg pibrentasvir

Oral

Maviret

C7593 C7615 C10268

P7593

84

1

 

 

 

 

C7593 C7615 C10268

P7615

84

2

 

 

 

 

C7593 C7615 C10268

P10268

84

3

Iloprost

Solution for inhalation 20 micrograms (as trometamol) in 2 mL

Inhalation

Ventavis

C13491 C13506 C13577 C18294 C18403 C18802 C18859

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Infliximab

Powder for I.V. infusion 100 mg

Injection

Inflectra

C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Ixifi

C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Remicade

C4524 C7777 C8296 C9068 C9111 C9559 C9632 C9754 C11158 C12059 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14548 C14705 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18849 C18866

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Remsima

C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Renflexis

C4524 C7777 C8296 C8844 C8940 C9068 C9111 C9188 C9472 C9559 C9584 C9602 C9632 C9732 C9754 C9787 C11158 C12042 C12059 C12074 C14502 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14544 C14548 C14585 C14623 C14638 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18158 C18162 C18164 C18165 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18196 C18263 C18267 C18285 C18287 C18340 C18343 C18345 C18352 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18436 C18437 C18439 C18441 C18462 C18466 C18468 C18469 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Interferon Gamma1b

Injection 2,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL

Injection

Imukin

C6222 C9639

 

12

11

Ivacaftor

Sachet containing granules 13.4 mg

Oral

Kalydeco

C16928 C16971

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Sachet containing granules 25 mg

Oral

Kalydeco

C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Sachet containing granules 50 mg

Oral

Kalydeco

C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Sachet containing granules 75 mg

Oral

Kalydeco

C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 150 mg

Oral

Kalydeco

C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Lamivudine

Oral solution 10 mg per mL, 240 mL

Oral

3TC

C4454 C4512

 

8

5

 

Tablet 100 mg

Oral

Zeffix

C4993 C5036

 

56

5

 

 

 

Zetlam

C4993 C5036

 

56

5

 

Tablet 150 mg

Oral

3TC

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

 

 

 

Lamivudine Viatris

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

 

Tablet 300 mg

Oral

3TC

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

 

 

 

Lamivudine Alphapharm

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

 

 

 

Lamivudine Viatris

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

Lamivudine with Zidovudine

Tablet 150 mg300 mg

Oral

Combivir

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

 

 

 

Lamivudine/Zidovudine Viatris 150/300

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

Lanreotide

Injection 60 mg (as acetate) in single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Mytolac

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057

 

2

5

 

 

 

Somatuline Autogel

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057

 

2

5

 

Injection 90 mg (as acetate) in single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Mytolac

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057

 

2

5

 

 

 

Somatuline Autogel

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057

 

2

5

 

Injection 120 mg (as acetate) in single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Mytolac

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 C17635 C17637 C17638 C17696

 

2

5

 

 

 

Somatuline Autogel

C4575 C7025 C9260 C9261 C15955 C16024 C16055 C16057 C17635 C17637 C17638 C17696

 

2

5

Lanthanum

Tablet, chewable, 500 mg (as carbonate hydrate)

Oral

Fosrenol

C5530 C9762

 

180

5

 

Tablet, chewable, 750 mg (as carbonate hydrate)

Oral

Fosrenol

C5530 C9762

 

180

5

 

Tablet, chewable, 1000 mg (as carbonate hydrate)

Oral

Fosrenol

C5530 C9762

 

180

5

Lenalidomide

Capsule 5 mg

Oral

Lenalide

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Sandoz

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Revlimid

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 10 mg

Oral

Lenalide

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Sandoz

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Revlimid

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13801 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13810 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 15 mg

Oral

Lenalide

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Sandoz

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Revlimid

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13791 C13803 C13804 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 20 mg

Oral

Lenalide

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Sandoz

C13782 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 25 mg

Oral

Lenalide

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Dr.Reddy's

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Lenalidomide Sandoz

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Revlimid

C13782 C13785 C13786 C13787 C13803 C13805 C13811 C13812 C13813 C14362 C17414

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Levodopa with carbidopa

Intestinal gel containing levodopa 20 mg with carbidopa monohydrate 5 mg per mL,
100 mL

Intra
intestinal

Duodopa

C10138 C10161 C10363 C10375

P10138 P10161

28

5

 

 

 

 

C10138 C10161 C10363 C10375

P10363 P10375

56

5

Lipegfilgrastim

 

Injection 6 mg in 0.6 mL single use prefilled syringe

Injection

Lonquex

C7822 C7843 C9224 C9322

 

1

11

Lopinavir with ritonavir

Oral liquid 400 mg100 mg per 5 mL, 60 mL

Oral

Kaletra

C4454 C4512

 

10

5

 

Tablet 200 mg50 mg

Oral

Kaletra

C4454 C4512

 

240

5

Lumacaftor with ivacaftor

Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 75 mg and ivacaftor 94 mg

Oral

Orkambi

C17763 C17765

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 100 mg and ivacaftor 125 mg

Oral

Orkambi

C17763 C17765

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Sachet containing granules, lumacaftor 150 mg and ivacaftor 188 mg

Oral

Orkambi

C17763 C17765

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet containing lumacaftor 100 mg with ivacaftor 125 mg

Oral

Orkambi

C17933 C17967

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet containing lumacaftor 200 mg with ivacaftor 125 mg

Oral

Orkambi

C17842 C17934

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Macitentan

Tablet 10 mg

Oral

Opsumit

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Macitentan with tadalafil

Tablet containing 10 mg macitentan with 40 mg tadalafil

Oral

Opsynvi

C16433 C16457

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Mannitol

Pack containing 280 capsules containing powder for inhalation 40 mg and 2 inhalers

Inhalation by mouth

Bronchitol

C7362 C7367 C9527 C9593

 

4

5

Maraviroc

Tablet 150 mg

Oral

Celsentri

C5008

 

120

5

 

 

 

Maraviroc Waymade

C5008

 

120

5

 

Tablet 300 mg

Oral

Celsentri

C5008

 

120

5

 

 

 

Maraviroc Waymade

C5008

 

120

5

Maribavir

Tablet 200 mg

Oral

Livtencity

C16735 C16806

 

112

1

Mepolizumab

Injection 100 mg in 1 mL single dose prefilled pen

Injection

Nucala

C13865 C15376 C15849 C18271 C18284 C18830

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Methadone

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL in 1 L bottle, 1 mL

Oral

Aspen Methadone Syrup

C16083

 

840

5

 

 

 

Biodone Forte

C16083

 

840

5

 

Oral liquid containing methadone hydrochloride 25 mg per 5 mL in 200 mL bottle, 1 mL

Oral

Aspen Methadone Syrup

C16083

 

840

5

 

 

 

Biodone Forte

C16083

 

840

5

Methoxsalen

Solution for blood fraction 20 microgram per mL, 10 mL

Extracorporeal Circulation

Uvadex

C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579

P10988 P10989

1

5

 

 

 

 

C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579

P12531 P12567

2

0

 

 

 

 

C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579

P10971 P10985

2

6

 

 

 

 

C10971 C10985 C10988 C10989 C12531 C12546 C12567 C12579

P12546 P12579

12

1

Methoxy polyethylene glycolepoetin beta

Injection 30 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 50 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 75 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 100 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 120 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 200 micrograms in 0.3 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

 

Injection 360 micrograms in 0.6 mL prefilled syringe

Injection

Mircera

C6294 C9688

 

2

5

Midostaurin

Capsule 25 mg

Oral

Rydapt

C11699 C13001 C13013

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Mycophenolic acid

Capsule containing mycophenolate mofetil 250 mg

Oral

APOMycophenolate

C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690

 

600

5

 

 

 

Mycophenolate Sandoz

C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690

 

600

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Mycophenolate 250

C5600 C5653 C9689 C9690

 

600

5

 

Powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1 g per 5 mL, 165 mL

Oral

CellCept

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

2

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Mycophenolate

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

2

5

 

Tablet containing mycophenolate mofetil 500 mg

Oral

ARX-MYCOPHENOLATE

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

300

5

 

 

 

Ceptolate

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

300

5

 

 

 

Mycophenolate GH

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

300

5

 

 

 

Mycophenolate Sandoz

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

300

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Mycophenolate 500

C5554 C5795 C9691 C9693

 

300

5

 

Tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 180 mg mycophenolic acid

Oral

Mycophenolic Acid ARX

C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809

 

240

5

 

 

 

Myfortic

C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809

 

240

5

 

Tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 360 mg mycophenolic acid

Oral

Mycophenolic Acid ARX

C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809

 

240

5

 

 

 

MYCOTEX

C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809

 

240

5

 

 

 

Myfortic

C4084 C4095 C9692 C9809

 

240

5

Natalizumab

Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose pre-filled syringe

Injection

Tysabri

C13625 C13718

 

2

5

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 15 mL

Injection

Tysabri

C13625 C13718

 

1

5

Nevirapine

Oral suspension 50 mg (as hemihydrate) per 5 mL, 240 mL

Oral

Viramune

C4454 C4512

 

10

5

 

Tablet 200 mg

Oral

Nevirapine Viatris

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

Nusinersen

Solution for injection 12 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Spinraza

C14433 C14459 C15069 C15112 C18053 C18073 C18076 C18077 C18078 C18094 C18101 C18110

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Ocrelizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Ocrevus

C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635

 

2

0

 

Solution for subcutaneous injection 920 mg in 23 mL

Injection

Ocrevus SC

C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635

 

1

0

Octreotide

Injection 50 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL

Injection

Octreotide GH

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Octreotide (SUN)

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Sandostatin 0.05

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

Injection 100 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL

Injection

Octreotide GH

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Octreotide (SUN)

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Sandostatin 0.1

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

Injection 500 micrograms (as acetate) in 1 mL

Injection

Octreotide GH

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Octreotide (SUN)

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

 

 

Sandostatin 0.5

C6369 C6390 C8165 C9232 C9233 C9289

 

90

11

 

Injection (modified release) 10 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Sandostatin LAR

C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313

 

2

5

 

Injection (modified release) 20 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Sandostatin LAR

C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313

 

2

5

 

Injection (modified release) 30 mg (as acetate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Sandostatin LAR

C5901 C5906 C8161 C8197 C8198 C8208 C9262 C9288 C9313 C17634 C17635 C17637

 

2

5

Omalizumab

Injection 75 mg in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled pen

Injection

Xolair

C15347 C15376 C15870 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 75 mg in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Omlyclo

C15347 C15376 C15870 C16846 C16949 C17012 C17075 C17085 C17086 C17102 C17284 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Xolair

C15347 C15376 C15870 C17012 C17075 C17086 C17284 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose pre-filled pen

Injection

Xolair

C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16906 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 150 mg in 1 mL single dose prefilled syringe

Injection

Omlyclo

C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16846 C16905 C16906 C16949 C16960 C17012 C17075 C17084 C17096 C17284 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection 300 mg in 2 mL single dose pre-filled pen

Injection

Xolair

C7046 C15347 C15376 C15870 C16906 C18731

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Onasemnogene abeparvovec

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 8 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 1 vial solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 5.5 mL and 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 2 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 3 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 4 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 5 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 6 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 7 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 8 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Pack containing 9 vials solution for I.V. infusion 20 trillion vector genomes per mL, 8.3 mL

Injection

Zolgensma

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Pamidronic Acid

Concentrated injection containing pamidronate disodium 60 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Pamisol

C4433 C9234

 

1

2

 

Concentrated injection containing pamidronate disodium 90 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Pamisol

C4433 C5218 C5291 C9234 C9315 C9335

 

1

11

Pasireotide

Injection (modified release) 20 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Signifor LAR

C9088 C9089

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection (modified release) 40 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Signifor LAR

C9088 C9089

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection (modified release) 60 mg (as embonate), vial and diluent syringe

Injection

Signifor LAR

C9088 C9089

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Patisiran

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 10 mg in 5 mL

Injection

Onpattro

C15453 C15501

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Pegcetacoplan

Solution for subcutaneous infusion 1,080 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Empaveli

C17598 C17599 C17601 C17622 C17623 C17647 C17683

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Pegfilgrastim

Injection 6 mg in 0.6 mL single use prefilled syringe

Injection

Pelgraz

C7822 C7843 C9235 C9303

 

1

11

 

 

 

Ziextenzo

C7822 C7843 C9235 C9303

 

1

11

Peginterferon alfa2a

Injection 135 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use prefilled syringe

Injection

Pegasys

C17022 C17108

 

8

5

 

Injection 135 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre-filled syringe (s19A)

Injection

Pegasys (Ireland)

C17022 C17108

 

8

5

 

Injection 180 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use prefilled syringe

Injection

Pegasys

C17022 C17108

 

8

5

 

Injection 180 micrograms in 0.5 mL single use pre-filled syringe (s19A)

Injection

Pegasys (Ireland)

C17022 C17108

 

8

5

Pegvisomant

Injection set containing powder for injection 10 mg, 30 and diluent, 30

Injection

Somavert

C7087 C9041

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection set containing powder for injection 15 mg, 30 and diluent, 30

Injection

Somavert

C7087 C9041

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection set containing powder for injection 20 mg, 1 and diluent, 1

Injection

Somavert

C9041

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Injection set containing powder for injection 20 mg, 30 and diluent, 30

Injection

Somavert

C7087 C9041

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Plerixafor

Injection 24 mg in 1.2 mL

Injection

Plerixafor ARX

C4549 C9329

 

1

1

 

 

 

PLERIXAFOR EUGIA

C4549 C9329

 

1

1

Pomalidomide

Capsule 1 mg

Oral

Pomolide

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Pomalidomide Sandoz

C13746 C13755

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 2 mg

Oral

Pomolide

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Pomalidomide Sandoz

C13746 C13755

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 3 mg

Oral

Pomalidomide Sandoz

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Pomolide

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Capsule 4 mg

Oral

Pomalidomide Sandoz

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Pomolide

C13746 C13755 C13757 C13768

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Raltegravir

Tablet 400 mg (as potassium)

Oral

Isentress

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

 

Tablet 600 mg (as potassium)

Oral

Isentress HD

C4454 C4512

 

120

5

Ravulizumab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 300 mg in 3 mL

Injection

Ultomiris

C14748 C16368 C17055 C17605 C17606 C17609 C17610 C17629 C17630 C17631 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18134 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18237 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18283 C18350 C18351 C18423

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 1,100 mg in 11 mL

Injection

Ultomiris

C14748 C16368 C17055 C17605 C17606 C17609 C17610 C17629 C17630 C17631 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18134 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18237 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18283 C18350 C18351 C18423

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Rifabutin

Capsule 150 mg

Oral

Mycobutin

C6350 C6356 C9560 C9622

 

120

5

Rilpivirine

Tablet 25 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Edurant

C4454 C4512

 

60

5

Riociguat

Tablet 500 micrograms

Oral

Adempas

C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1 mg

Oral

Adempas

C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1.5 mg

Oral

Adempas

C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 2 mg

Oral

Adempas

C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 2.5 mg

Oral

Adempas

C13502 C13514 C15271 C15272 C18200 C18215

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Risdiplam

Powder for oral solution 750 micrograms per mL, 80 mL

Oral

Evrysdi

C14392 C14420 C15095 C15986 C18087 C18090 C18118 C18197 C18356 C18357

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 5 mg

Oral

Evrysdi

C14420 C18225 C18306 C18307 C18308 C18369 C18479

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Ritonavir

Tablet 100 mg

Oral

Norvir

C4454 C4512

 

720

5

Rituximab

Solution for I.V. infusion 100 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Riximyo

 

 

6

0

 

 

 

Ruxience

 

 

6

0

 

 

 

Truxima

 

 

6

0

 

Solution for I.V. infusion 500 mg in 50 mL

Injection

Riximyo

 

 

2

1

 

 

 

Ruxience

 

 

2

1

 

 

 

Truxima

 

 

2

1

Romiplostim

Powder for injection 375 micrograms

Injection

Nplate

C13396 C14099 C14149 C18405

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Powder for injection 625 micrograms

Injection

Nplate

C13396 C14099 C14149 C18405

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Rozanolixizumab

Solution for subcutaneous infusion 280 mg in 2 mL (140 mg per mL)

Injection

Rystiggo

C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378 C18789

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Ruxolitinib

Tablet 5 mg

Oral

Jakavi

C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911

P13907 P13911

56

0

 

 

 

 

C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911

P13876 P13892

56

5

 

Tablet 10 mg

Oral

Jakavi

C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911

P13907 P13911

56

0

 

 

 

 

C13876 C13892 C13907 C13911

P13876 P13892

56

5

Selexipag

Tablet 200 micrograms

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195 C11261

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 400 micrograms

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 600 micrograms

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 800 micrograms

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195 C11261

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1 mg

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1.2 mg

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1.4 mg

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet 1.6 mg

Oral

Uptravi

C11193 C11195

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Selinexor

Tablet 20 mg

Oral

Xpovio

C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045

P14021 P14045

16

2

 

 

 

 

C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045

P14023 P14024

20

2

 

 

 

 

C14021 C14023 C14024 C14031 C14039 C14045

P14031 P14039

32

2

Sevelamer

Tablet containing sevelamer carbonate 800 mg

Oral

ARX-SEVELAMER

C5530 C9762

 

360

5

 

 

 

Sevelamer Lupin

C5530 C9762

 

360

5

 

Tablet containing sevelamer hydrochloride 800 mg

Oral

Renagel

C5530 C9762

 

360

5

Sildenafil

Tablet 20 mg (as citrate)

Oral

SILDATIO PHT

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Sildenafil PHT APOTEX

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

SILDENAFIL PHT ARX

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Sildenafil Sandoz PHT 20

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Siltuximab

Powder for injection 100 mg

Injection

Sylvant

C12585 C12594

 

2

4

 

Powder for injection 400 mg

Injection

Sylvant

C12585 C12594

 

2

4

Sirolimus

Oral solution 1 mg per mL, 60 mL

Oral

Rapamune

C5795 C9914

 

2

5

 

Tablet 0.5 mg

Oral

Rapamune

C5795 C9914

 

200

5

 

Tablet 1 mg

Oral

Rapamune

C5795 C9914

 

200

5

 

Tablet 2 mg

Oral

Rapamune

C5795 C9914

 

200

5

Sofosbuvir with velpatasvir

Tablet containing 400 mg sofosbuvir with 100 mg velpatasvir

Oral

Epclusa

C5969

 

28

2

Sofosbuvir with velpatasvir and voxilaprevir

Tablet containing 400 mg sofosbuvir with 100 mg velpatasvir and 100 mg voxilaprevir

Oral

Vosevi

C10248

 

28

2

Sucroferric oxyhydroxide

Tablet, chewable, 2.5 g (equivalent to 500 mg iron)

Oral

Velphoro

C5530 C9762

 

180

5

Tacrolimus

Capsule 0.5 mg

Oral

Pacrolim

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Tacrolimus 0.5

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Prograf

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Tacrograf

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

Capsule 0.5 mg (once daily prolonged release)

Oral

ADVAGRAF XL

C5569 C9697

 

60

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus XR Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

60

5

 

Capsule 0.75 mg

Oral

Tacrolimus Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

Capsule 1 mg

Oral

Pacrolim

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Pharmacor Tacrolimus 1

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Prograf

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Tacrograf

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

Capsule 1 mg (once daily prolonged release)

Oral

ADVAGRAF XL

C5569 C9697

 

120

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus XR Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

120

5

 

Capsule 2 mg

Oral

Tacrolimus Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

200

5

 

Capsule 3 mg (once daily prolonged release)

Oral

ADVAGRAF XL

C5569 C9697

 

100

3

 

 

 

Tacrolimus XR Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

100

3

 

Capsule 5 mg

Oral

Pharmacor Tacrolimus 5

C5569 C9697

 

100

5

 

 

 

Prograf

C5569 C9697

 

100

5

 

 

 

Tacrograf

C5569 C9697

 

100

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

100

5

 

Capsule 5 mg (once daily prolonged release)

Oral

ADVAGRAF XL

C5569 C9697

 

60

5

 

 

 

Tacrolimus XR Sandoz

C5569 C9697

 

60

5

Tadalafil

Tablet 20 mg

Oral

Adcirca

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Tadalca

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

TADALIS 20

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Tadalis 20

C15463 C15495 C15525 C18780 C18824 C18852 C18872 C18884

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Teduglutide

Powder for injection 5 mg with diluent

Injection

Revestive

C11999 C18198 C18493

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Tenofovir

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg

Oral

TENOFOVIR ARX

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P10362

60

2

 

 

 

Tenofovir Sandoz

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P10362

60

2

 

 

 

TENOFOVIR ARX

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998

60

5

 

 

 

Tenofovir Sandoz

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998

60

5

 

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg

Oral

Tenofovir Disoproxil Viatris

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P10362

60

2

 

 

 

Tenofovir Disoproxil Viatris

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998

60

5

 

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil phosphate 291 mg

Oral

Tenofovir GH

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P10362

60

2

 

 

 

 

C6980 C6982 C6983 C6984 C6992 C6998 C10362

P6980 P6982 P6983 P6984 P6992 P6998

60

5

Tenofovir alafenamide with emtricitabine, elvitegravir and cobicistat

Tablet containing tenofovir alafenamide 10 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg, elvitegravir 150 mg and cobicistat 150 mg

Oral

Genvoya

C4470 C4522

 

60

5

Tenofovir with emtricitabine

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg

Oral

CIPLA TENOFOVIR + EMTRICITABINE 300/200

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

 

 

 

TENOFOVIR/EMTRICITABINE 300/200 APX

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

 

 

 

TENOFOVIR/EMTRICITABINE 300/200 ARX

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

 

 

 

Tenofovir/Emtricitabine Sandoz Pharma 300/200

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

 

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg

Oral

Tenofovir Disoproxil Emtricitabine Viatris 300/200

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

 

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil succinate 301 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg

Oral

Tenofovir/Emtricitabine Sandoz 301/200

C6985 C6986

 

60

5

Tenofovir with emtricitabine and efavirenz

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg and efavirenz 600 mg (s19A)

Oral

Efavirenz, Emtricitabine and Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate Tablet 600 mg/200 mg/
300 mg (Camber, USA)

C4470 C4522

 

60

5

 

Tablet containing tenofovir disoproxil maleate 300 mg with emtricitabine 200 mg and efavirenz 600 mg

Oral

Tenofovir Disoproxil Emtricitabine Efavirenz Viatris 300/200/600

C4470 C4522

 

60

5

Tezacaftor with ivacaftor and ivacaftor

Pack containing 28 tablets tezacaftor 100 mg with ivacaftor 150 mg and 28 tablets ivacaftor 150 mg

Oral

Symdeko

C17844 C17935 C17968 C17969

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Tezepelumab

Solution for injection 210 mg in 1.91 mL single dose pre-filled pen (110 mg per mL)

Injection

Tezspire

C18729 C18732 C18792 C18793

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Thalidomide

Capsule 50 mg

Oral

Thalomid

C5914 C9290

 

112

0

 

Capsule 100 mg

Oral

Thalomid

C5914 C9290

 

56

0

Tocilizumab

Concentrate for injection 80 mg in 4 mL

Injection

Actemra

C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Concentrate for injection 200 mg in 10 mL

Injection

Actemra

C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Concentrate for injection 400 mg in 20 mL

Injection

Actemra

C9380 C9386 C10570 C12120 C14085 C14091 C14093 C14148 C14179 C14485 C14488 C14507 C14621 C17707 C17712 C17713 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18279 C18280 C18282 C18346 C18348

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Ublituximab

Solution concentrate for I.V. infusion 150 mg in 6 mL

Injection

Briumvi

C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635

P7386 P9635

3

0

 

 

 

 

C7386 C7699 C9523 C9635

P7699 P9523

4

0

Ustekinumab

Solution for I.V. infusion 130 mg in 26 mL

Injection

Stelara

C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Steqeyma

C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

 

 

Wezlana

C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Valaciclovir

Tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

APX Valaciclovir

C5975 C9267

 

500

2

 

 

 

Valaciclovir RBX

C5975 C9267

 

500

2

 

 

 

Valtrex

C5975 C9267

 

500

2

Valganciclovir

Powder for oral solution 50 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 100 mL

Oral

Valcyte

C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814

 

11

5

 

Tablet 450 mg (as hydrochloride)

Oral

Valganciclovir Sandoz

C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814

 

120

5

 

 

 

Valganciclovir Viatris

C4980 C15782 C15784 C15800 C15814

 

120

5

Vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor

Tablet containing 4 mg vanzacaftor (as calcium) with 20 mg tezacaftor and with 50 mg deutivacaftor

Oral

Alyftrek

C17769 C17932

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Tablet containing 10 mg vanzacaftor (as calcium) with 50 mg tezacaftor and with 125 mg deutivacaftor

Oral

Alyftrek

C17769 C17932

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Vedolizumab

Powder for injection 300 mg

Injection

Entyvio

C15844 C15909 C15910 C15923 C15933 C16169 C16181 C16216 C16239 C18759 C18760 C18805 C18806 C18807 C18863 C18906

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Vutrisiran

Injection 25 mg (as sodium) in 0.5 mL pre-filled syringe

Injection

Amvuttra

C16434 C16446

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Zidovudine

Capsule 100 mg

Oral

Retrovir

C4454 C4512

 

400

5

 

Capsule 250 mg

Oral

Retrovir

C4454 C4512

 

240

5

 

Syrup 10 mg per mL, 200 mL

Oral

Retrovir

C4454 C4512

 

15

5

Zilucoplan

Solution for injection 16.6 mg in 0.416 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe

Oral

Zilbrysq

C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Solution for injection 23 mg in 0.574 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe

Oral

Zilbrysq

C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

 

Solution for injection 32.4 mg in 0.810 mL (as tetrasodium) pre-filled syringe

Oral

Zilbrysq

C18128 C18129 C18232 C18319 C18378

 

See Schedule 2

See Schedule 2

Zoledronic acid

Injection concentrate for I.V. infusion 4 mg (as monohydrate) in 5 mL

Injection

DEZTRON

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P14729 P14735

1

0

 

 

 

Zoledronate-DRLA 4

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P14729 P14735

1

0

 

 

 

Zoledronic Acid Accord

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P14729 P14735

1

0

 

 

 

APO Zoledronic Acid

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328

 

1

11

 

 

 

DEZTRON

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328

1

11

 

 

 

ZoledronateDRLA 4

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328

1

11

 

 

 

Zoledronic Acid Accord

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328 C14729 C14735

P5605 P5703 P5704 P5735 P9268 P9304 P9317 P9328

1

11

 

 

 

Zometa

C5605 C5703 C5704 C5735 C9268 C9304 C9317 C9328

 

1

11

 

Schedule 2—Maximum quantities and repeats for certain HSD pharmaceutical benefits

 

 

Note: See sections 20 and 21, and the columns headed “Maximum quantity” and “Maximum repeats” in Schedule 1.

1  Maximum quantity or number of units and maximum number of repeats

  The following table sets out the maximum quantity or number of units, and the maximum number of repeats, for prescribing HSD pharmaceutical benefits with the listed drugs, and in the circumstances, mentioned in the table.

 

Maximum quantity or number of units, and maximum number of repeats

Listed drug

Circumstances

Maximum quantity

Maximum repeats

Abatacept

C14488 C18274

1 dose

Sufficient for treatment for 16 weeks

 

C14507 C14555 C14604 C18273

1 dose

Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks

 

C18169 C18272

1 dose

4

Adalimumab

C12120 C17717 C17719 C17733

2 doses

3

 

C17707 C17713 C17734

2 doses

5

Ambrisentan

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Anifrolumab

C15387 C18465

1

5

Avatrombopag

C14054 C15340 C15375 C18297

30

5

Azacitidine

C12439 C12983 C13010 C13029

14 units

2

 

C12986 C13011 C13012 C13015

14 units

5

Benralizumab

C15376 C15884 C18874

1

Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment

 

C18271

1

Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment

Bosentan

C11229 C13497 C13571 C18737 C18738 C18743 C18752 C18833

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

 

C12425

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

0

Burosumab

C13330 C13377

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

Difelikefalin

C15171

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

2

 

C15211

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

Dupilumab

C17009 C17113 C18269

1 pack

Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment

 

C15886 C17016 C17072 C17073 C18464 C18858 C18889

1 pack

Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment

Eculizumab

C14781

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

0

 

C17675

1

0

 

C14750 C14792

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

4

 

C14753 C14754 C14793 C14799 C14805

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

 

C17602 C17626 C17651 C17693 C17697

6

5

 

C17630 C17673 C17684

8

0

Eflornithine

C16841 C17735 C17753

3 packs

2

Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor

C17770 C17772 C17846 C17937 C17970 C17971

1 pack

5

Eltrombopag

C13327 C14127 C14129 C18210

1 pack

5

 

C18209

3 packs

3

 

C15173 C16455

3 packs

5

Epoprostenol

C13491 C13506 C13577 C18208 C18401 C18802 C18859

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Etanercept

C12120 C17706 C17724 C17725

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

3

 

C17707 C17713

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

Iloprost

C13491 C13506 C13577 C18294 C18403 C18802 C18859

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Infliximab

C8844 C8940 C9188 C9472 C9584 C9602 C14504 C14505 C14507 C14585 C14638 C18343

1 dose of 3 mg per kg of patient weight

2

 

C14502 C14544 C14548 C14623 C18165 C18267 C18345

1 dose of 3 mg per kg of patient weight

3

 

C7777 C8296 C9068 C9732 C9754 C9787 C12042 C12059 C12074 C17097 C17111 C17112 C17115 C17116 C17117 C17120 C17122 C18164 C18196 C18285 C18355 C18389 C18391 C18431 C18434 C18437 C18441 C18466 C18470 C18502 C18774 C18775 C18776 C18819 C18849 C18866 C18868

1 dose of 5 mg per kg of patient weight

2

 

C9111 C9559 C11158 C14667 C14683 C14689 C14701 C14705 C14707 C14718 C14723 C18158 C18162 C18191 C18192 C18194 C18263 C18287 C18340 C18352 C18436 C18439 C18462 C18468 C18469

1 dose of 5 mg per kg of patient weight

3

 

C4524 C9632

5 vials

1

Ivacaftor

C16844 C16845 C16876 C16878

1 pack

Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment

 

C16928 C16971

1 pack

2

Lenalidomide

C13785 C13811

14 tablets

3

 

C13813

21 tablets

1

 

C13782 C14362 C17414

21 tablets

2

 

C13786 C13801 C13810

21 tablets

3

 

C13787 C13803 C13805 C13812

21 tablets

5

 

C13791 C13804

28 tablets

2

Lumacaftor with ivacaftor

C17763 C17765 C17842 C17933 C17934 C17967

1 pack

5

Macitentan

C11229 C13497 C13575 C18737 C18741 C18743 C18752 C18836

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Macitentan with tadalafil

C16433 C16457

1 pack

5

Mepolizumab

C18271

1

Sufficient for 24 weeks of treatment

 

C15376 C15849 C18830

1

Sufficient for 32 weeks of treatment

 

C13865 C18284

1

5

Midostaurin

C11699 C13001 C13013

1 pack

2

Nusinersen

C14433 C14459 C15069 C15112

1 dose

0

 

C18053 C18073 C18076 C18077 C18078 C18094 C18101 C18110

1 dose

3

Omalizumab

C16906

Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment

2

 

C7046 C15347 C16846 C16905 C16949 C16960 C17084 C17085 C17086 C17096 C17102

Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment

5

 

C17075 C17284

Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment

6

 

C15870 C18731

Sufficient for 4 weeks of treatment

7

 

C17012

Sufficient for up to 28 weeks of treatment

0

 

C15376

Sufficient for up to 32 weeks of treatment

0

Onasemnogene abeparvovec

C15989 C16045 C18211 C18213

1 dose

0

Pasireotide

C9088 C9089

2

5

Patisiran

C15453 C15501

1 pack

7

Pegcetacoplan

C17601 C17623 C17683

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

0

 

C17598 C17599 C17622 C17647

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

Pegvisomant

C7087 C9041

1

5

Pomalidomide

C13757 C13768

1 pack (14 capsules)

2

 

C13746 C13755

1 pack (21 capsules)

0

Ravulizumab

C17055 C17605 C17606 C17610 C17630 C18131 C18132 C18133 C18237 C18283 C18350 C18351

1 dose

0

 

C18134

1 dose

1

 

C14748 C16368 C17609 C17629 C17631 C18135 C18137 C18153 C18155 C18238 C18260 C18262 C18423

1 dose

2

Riociguat

C18200

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

3

 

C13514 C18215

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

4

 

C13502 C15271 C15272

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Risdiplam

C18087 C18090 C18118 C18357

1

0

 

C15095 C15986

1

5

 

C14392 C14420 C18197

3

5

 

C18356

3

7

 

C14420 C18225 C18306 C18307 C18308 C18369 C18479

28

5

Romiplostim

C18405

1 vial

5

 

C13396 C14099

Sufficient for treatment for 4 weeks

5

 

C14149

1 vial

Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks

Rozanolixizumab

C18319

18

1

 

C18129 C18232 C18378 C18789

18

2

Selexipag

C11193 C11195

60

5

 

C11261

140

Sufficient for treatment for 12 weeks

Sildenafil

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

Tadalafil

C11229 C13569 C13572 C18748 C18749 C18782 C18854 C18876

Sufficient for treatment for 1 month

5

 

C15463 C15495 C15525 C18780 C18824 C18852 C18872 C18884

60 tablets

5

Teduglutide

C18198

1 pack

5

 

C11999 C18493

1 pack

11

Tezacaftor with Ivacaftor and Ivacaftor

C17844 C17935 C17968 C17969

1 pack

5

Tezepelumab

C18729

1 pack

5

 

C18732 C18792 C18793

1 pack

7

Tocilizumab

C9386 C12120 C14488 C14507 C17712 C17714 C17729 C18172 C18174 C18177 C18180 C18275 C18276 C18280 C18282 C18348

1 infusion

3

 

C9380 C14485 C14621 C17707 C17713 C18279 C18346

1 infusion

5

 

C10570 C14085 C14091 C14148

2 infusions

3

 

C14093 C14179

2 infusions

5

Ustekinumab

C14801 C16829 C16866 C16939 C16944 C16958 C18785 C18825 C18856

4 vials (130 mg each)

0

Vanzacaftor with tezacaftor and with deutivacaftor

C17769 C17932

1 pack

5

Vedolizumab

C18760

1

0

 

C15844 C15910 C15923 C15933 C16169 C16181 C16216 C16239 C18759 C18805 C18806 C18863 C18906

1

2

 

C15909 C18807

1

Sufficient for treatment for 24 weeks

Vutrisiran

C16434 C16446

1

1

Zilucoplan

C18319

28 units

2

 

C18128 C18129 C18232 C18378

28 units

5

Schedule 3—Circumstances and purposes

 

 

Note: See sections 13, 15, 16, 20 and 21.

1  Circumstances and purposes

  The following table sets out circumstances and purposes for circumstances codes and purposes codes.

 

Listed Drug

Circumstances Code

Purposes Code

Circumstances and Purposes

Authority Requirements—Part of Circumstances

Abacavir

C4454

 

HIV infection
Continuing

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4454

 

C4512

 

HIV infection
Initial

Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4512

 

C13920

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
Patient must be less than 13.00 years of age.
Patient must be unable to take a solid dose form of this drug; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Abacavir with Lamivudine

C4527

 

HIV infection
Initial

Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents;
Patient must be aged 12 years or older; AND
Patient must weigh 40 kg or more

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4527

 

C4528

 

HIV infection
Continuing

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents;
Patient must be aged 12 years or older; AND
Patient must weigh 40 kg or more

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4528

Abatacept

C14488

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) to complete 16 weeks of treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14507

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14555

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14555

 

C14604

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14604

 

C18169

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR

Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the application must include details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be documented in the application, if applicable.

The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity.

The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months.

If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided in the authority application.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either

(a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion.

Up to a maximum of 4 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18272

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND

Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Patients who have received PBS-subsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores.

Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

AND either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion.

Up to a maximum of 4 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBS-subsidised biological therapy treatment-free period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18273

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

First continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

AND either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18274

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND

The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR

The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND

The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Adalimumab

C12120

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) balance of supply
Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR
Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17707

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17707

 

C17713

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17713

 

C17717

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 2 active major joints; (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Active major joints are defined as: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip.

All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of this application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 10 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of active major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of active major joints.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and

(b) the date of the last continuing prescription.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17719

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR

Patient must have demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be under 18 years of age.

Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours.

Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis.

If treatment with methotrexate alone or in combination with another DMARD is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

(a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or

(e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis.

The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and

(b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17733

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections of appropriate strength, based on the weight of the patient. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17734

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised treatment - Grandfather arrangements

Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 January 2026; AND

Patient must have, prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition, demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR

Patient must have, prior to initiating treatment with this drug for this condition, demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must be under 18 years of age, prior to commencement of this drug for this condition.

Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours.

Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

(a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or

(e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis.

The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and

(b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment.

The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Alemtuzumab

C6847

P6847

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than one PBSsubsidised treatment per year; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.
Must be treated by a neurologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6847

 

C7714

P7714

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis by accompanying written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Must be treated by a neurologist.
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7714

 

C9589

P9589

Multiple sclerosis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than one PBSsubsidised treatment per year; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate this therapy.
Must be treated by a neurologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9589

 

C9636

P9636

Multiple sclerosis
Initial treatment
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain and/or spinal cord; OR
The condition must be diagnosed as clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis by accompanying written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years of commencing a PBSsubsidised disease modifying therapy for this condition; AND
Patient must be ambulatory (without assistance or support).
Must be treated by a neurologist.
Where applicable, the date of the magnetic resonance imaging scan must be recorded in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9636

Ambrisentan

C11229

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Triple therapy Initial treatment or continuing treatment of triple combination therapy (including dual therapy in lieu of triple therapy) that includes selexipag
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) PBSsubsidised selexipag (referred to as 'triple therapy'); OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of either: (i) PBSsubsidised selexipag with one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) PBSsubsidised selexipag with one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, as triple combination therapy with selexipagan endothelin receptor antagonista phoshodiesterase5 inhibitor is not possible due to an intolerance/contraindication to the endothelin receptor antagonist class/phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor class (referred to as 'dual therapy in lieu of triple therapy').
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
The authority application for selexipag must be approved prior to the authority application for this agent.
For the purposes of PBS subsidy, an endothelin receptor antagonist is one of: (a) ambrisentan, (b) bosentan, (c) macitentan; a phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor is one of: (d) sildenafil, (e) tadalafil.
PBSsubsidy does not cover patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
PAH (WHO Group 1 pulmonary hypertension) is defined as follows:
(i) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) greater than or equal to 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) less than or equal to 15 mmHg; or
(ii) where a right heart catheter (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure (RVSP), assessed by echocardiography (ECHO), greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.
The results and date of the RHC, ECHO and 6 MWT as applicable must be included in the patient's medical record. Where a RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the written confirmation of the reasons why must also be included in the patient's medical record.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13497

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Initial 3 changing to this drug in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy)
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor; OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND
Patient must be undergoing existing PBSsubsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13575

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with this PAH agent for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18737

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 2 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension is established through a prior PBS authority application

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; prior monotherapy has been inadequate - the patient has at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate - the patient has WHO functional class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18741

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial treatment 2 - Change of treatment

Patient must have had their most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

PAH agents are not PBS-subsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to re-qualify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted.

Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction.

The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information.

A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18743

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag)

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND

Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; OR

Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with dual combination therapy consisting of endothelin receptor antagonist with phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor where one drug was prescribed as a non-PBS benefit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18752

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 - combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; this combination therapy is treating a patient with at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18836

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial treatment 1 - New patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information.

A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Anakinra

C5450

 

Moderate to severe cryopyrin associated periodic syndromes (CAPS)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist or in consultation with a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist or in consultation with a clinical immunologist.
A diagnosis of CAPS must be documented in the patient’s medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5450

Anifrolumab

C15387

 

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Continuing or recommencement of treatment (within 12 months of a treatment break)

Patient must have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must be responding to treatment if they have received less than 12 months of treatment with this drug for this condition; OR

Patient must have attained a Lupus Low Disease Activity State (LLDAS) and maintained this state while on treatment.

Must be treated by a specialist physician experienced in the management of this condition.

Lupus Low Disease Activity State (LLDAS) is defined as:

(a) Total SLEDAI-2K of not greater than 4, with no major activity in major organ systems (renal, central nervous system (CNS), cardiopulmonary, vasculitis, fever); and

(b) No new features of lupus disease activity compared with the previous assessment, and

(c) Physician Global Assessment (PGA) of not greater than 1, and

(d) Current prednisolone (or equivalent) dose of not greater than 7.5 mg daily, and

(e) Well tolerated standard maintenance doses of anti-malarial and immunosuppressive drugs are allowed.

Where retreatment with anifrolumab after a break in PBS-subsidised treatment with anifrolumab is being sought, the date of cessation of the previous treatment course with anifrolumab must be included in the application. Recommencement of treatment with anifrolumab for severe SLE is within 12 months from the date that treatment was ceased.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18465

 

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Initial treatment

Patient must have a confirmed and documented diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) according to the American College of Rheumatology (ACR)/European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) SLE Classification Criteria 2019; AND

Patient must have persistent disease activity as supported by a SLE Disease Activity Index 2000 (SLEDAI-2K) score of at least 10 points; AND

Patient must be currently receiving hydroxychloroquine, with treatment received for at least 12 weeks, unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND

Patient must be currently receiving immunosuppressant medication, with treatment received for at least 12 weeks, with either: (i) minimum dose of methotrexate 20 mg per week, (ii) azathioprine 100 mg per day, (iii) mycophenolate 1,000 mg per day unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND

Patient must be currently receiving prednisolone or equivalent of at least 7.5 mg per day, with treatment received for at least 4 weeks, unless contraindicated/intolerant necessitating treatment withdrawal; AND

Patient must not have either: (i) severe active lupus nephritis, (ii) severe active central nervous system systemic lupus erythematosus.

Must be treated by a specialist physician experienced in the management of this condition.

If prednisolone or equivalent is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated of at least 7.5 mg per day, the patient must have received at least 12 weeks of continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; (iii) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (iv) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day.

Where two of: (i) hydroxychloroquine; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; or (iii) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (iv) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day, are either contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to prednisolone or equivalent: at least one of the remaining tolerated therapies must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above.

If the patient has a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) prednisolone or equivalent of at least 7.5 mg per day; (ii) hydroxychloroquine; (iii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg per week; (iv) azathioprine at a dose of at least 100 mg per day; (v) mycophenolate at a dose of at least 1,000 mg per day; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application.

The authority application must be made in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(a) details of the ACR/EULAR SLE Classification Criteria 2019 confirming diagnosis of SLE;

(b) details (date and score) of the completed SLEDAI-2K score sheet;

(c) details of current systemic therapy used (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy including prior anifrolumab use);

(d) details of contraindication/intolerances to prior therapies (drug name, the degree of toxicity and dose).

All the reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Apomorphine

C10830

 

Parkinson disease
Patient must have experienced severely disabling motor fluctuations which have not responded to other therapy; AND
The treatment must be commenced in a specialist unit in a hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10830

 

C10863

 

Parkinson disease
Patient must have experienced severely disabling motor fluctuations which have not responded to other therapy; AND
The treatment must be commenced in a specialist unit in a hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10863

 

C11385

 

Parkinson disease
Patient must have experienced severely disabling motor fluctuations which have not responded to other therapy; AND
The treatment must be commenced in a specialist unit in a hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11385

 

C11445

 

Parkinson disease
Patient must have experienced severely disabling motor fluctuations which have not responded to other therapy; AND
The treatment must be commenced in a specialist unit in a hospital setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11445

Atazanavir with cobicistat

C4454

 

HIV infection
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4454

 

C4512

 

HIV infection
Initial
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4512

Avatrombopag

C14054

 

Severe thrombocytopenia
Second or Subsequent Continuing treatment
The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under first continuing or reinitiation of interrupted continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a continuing response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.
The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C15340

 

Severe thrombocytopenia

Balance of supply or change of therapy

The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition; AND

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the First Continuing treatment or Re-initiation of interrupted continuing treatment restriction; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Second or Subsequent Continuing treatment restriction; OR

Patient must be changing therapy from romiplostim or eltrombopag to this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment under this restriction.

Patients receiving treatment with romiplostim or eltrombopag may change to avatrombopag under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C15375

 

Severe thrombocytopenia

First Continuing treatment or Re-initiation of interrupted continuing treatment

The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND

Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction if the patient has not had a treatment break, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; OR

Patient must have changed treatment from either romiplostim or eltrombopag to this drug under the Balance of Supply/Change of Therapy restriction and demonstrated a sustained response; OR

Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to the most recent PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to interrupted treatment, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.

For the purposes of this restriction, a sustained response is defined as the patient having the ability to maintain a platelet count sufficient to prevent clinically significant bleeding based on clinical assessment.

The platelet count must be conducted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent PBS-subsidised course of treatment with this drug and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18297

 

Severe thrombocytopenia

Initial treatment - New patient

The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, corticosteroid therapy; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, immunoglobulin therapy; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to corticosteroid and/or immunoglobulin therapy and must be demonstrated at the time of initial application;

(a) a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 million per L; OR

(b) a platelet count of 20,000 million to 30,000 million per L, where the patient is experiencing significant bleeding or has a history of significant bleeding in this platelet range.

The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(a) details of a platelet count supporting the diagnosis of ITP.

All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

A maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug will be authorised under this criterion.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Azacitidine

C12439

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

The treatment must be used in combination with venetoclax (refer to Product Information for timing of azacitidine and venetoclax doses).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12983

 

Myelodysplastic syndrome
Initial treatment
The condition must be myelodysplastic syndrome confirmed through a bone marrow biopsy report and full blood examination; AND
The condition must be classified as Intermediate2 according to the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS); OR
The condition must be classified as high risk according to the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS).
Classification of the condition as Intermediate2 requires a score of 1.5 to 2.0 on the IPSS, achieved with the possible combinations:
a. 11% to 30% marrow blasts with good karyotypic status (normal, Y alone, del(5q) alone, del(20q) alone), and 0 to 1 cytopenias; OR
b. 11% to 20% marrow blasts with intermediate karyotypic status (other abnormalities), and 0 to 1 cytopenias; OR
c. 11% to 20% marrow blasts with good karyotypic status (normal, Y alone, del(5q) alone, del(20q) alone), and 2 to 3 cytopenias; OR
d. 5% to 10% marrow blasts with poor karyotypic status (3 or more abnormalities or chromosome 7 anomalies), regardless of cytopenias; OR
e. 5% to 10% marrow blasts with intermediate karyotypic status (other abnormalities), and 2 to 3 cytopenias; OR
f. Less than 5% marrow blasts with poor karyotypic status (3 or more abnormalities or chromosome 7 anomalies), and 2 to 3 cytopenias.
Classification of the condition as high risk requires a score of 2.5 or more on the IPSS, achieved with the possible combinations:
a. 21% to 30% marrow blasts with good karyotypic status (normal, Y alone, del(5q) alone, del(20q) alone), and 2 to 3 cytopenias; OR
b. 21% to 30% marrow blasts with intermediate (other abnormalities) or poor karyotypic status (3 or more abnormalities or chromosome 7 anomalies), regardless of cytopenias; OR
c. 11% to 20% marrow blasts with poor karyotypic status (3 or more abnormalities or chromosome 7 anomalies), regardless of cytopenias; OR
d. 11% to 20% marrow blasts with intermediate karyotypic status (other abnormalities), and 2 to 3 cytopenias.
The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application:
(a) The patient's International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score
The following reports must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) bone marrow biopsy report demonstrating that the patient has myelodysplastic syndrome; and
(b) full blood examination report; and
(c) pathology report detailing the cytogenetics demonstrating intermediate2 or highrisk disease according to the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS).
No more than 3 cycles will be authorised under this restriction in a patient's lifetime.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12986

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12986

 

C13010

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Initial treatment
The condition must be acute myeloid leukaemia confirmed through a bone marrow biopsy report and full blood examination; AND
The condition must have 20% to 30% marrow blasts and multilineage dysplasia, according to World Health Organisation (WHO) Classification.
The following reports must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) bone marrow biopsy report demonstrating that the patient has acute myeloid leukaemia; and
(b) full blood examination report.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13011

 

Myelodysplastic syndrome
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease.
Up to 6 cycles will be authorised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13012

 

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 13012

 

C13015

 

Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have progressive disease.
Up to 6 cycles will be authorised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13029

 

Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukaemia
Initial treatment
The condition must be chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia confirmed through a bone marrow biopsy report and full blood examination report; AND
The condition must have 10% to 29% marrow blasts without Myeloproliferative Disorder.
The first authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:
(a) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the bone marrow biopsy report from an Approved Pathology Authority demonstrating that the patient has chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia; and
(b) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the full blood examination report from an Approved Pathology Authority
All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:
(i) A completed authority prescription form; and
(ii) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).
The following reports must be documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) bone marrow biopsy report demonstrating that the patient has chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia; and
(b) full blood examination report
No more than 3 cycles will be authorised under this restriction in a patient's lifetime.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Azithromycin

C6356

 

Mycobacterium avium complex infection

The treatment must be for prophylaxis; AND

Patient must be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive; AND

Patient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 75 per cubic millimetre.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6356

 

C9604

 

Mycobacterium avium complex infection
The treatment must be for prophylaxis; AND
Patient must be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive; AND
Patient must have CD4 cell counts of less than 75 per cubic millimetre.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9604

Baclofen

C6911

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6911

 

C6925

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity of cerebral origin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6925

 

C6939

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to multiple sclerosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6939

 

C6940

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord injury.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6940

 

C7134

 

Severe chronic spasticity

Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR

Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND

Patient must have chronic spasticity due to multiple sclerosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7134

 

C7148

 

Severe chronic spasticity

Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR

Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND

Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7148

 

C7152

 

Severe chronic spasticity

Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR

Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND

Patient must have chronic spasticity of cerebral origin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7152

 

C7153

 

Severe chronic spasticity

Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR

Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND

Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord injury.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7153

 

C9488

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity of cerebral origin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9488

 

C9489

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord injury.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9489

 

C9524

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9524

 

C9525

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to multiple sclerosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9525

 

C9562

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity of cerebral origin.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9562

 

C9606

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9606

 

C9637

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to multiple sclerosis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9637

 

C9638

 

Severe chronic spasticity
Patient must have failed to respond to treatment with oral antispastic agents; OR
Patient must have had unacceptable side effects to treatment with oral antispastic agents; AND
Patient must have chronic spasticity due to spinal cord injury.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9638

Benralizumab

C15376

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Balance of supply

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 1 (new patients or recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle) restriction to complete 32 weeks treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 2 (change of treatment) restriction to complete 32 weeks treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND

The treatment must not provide more than the balance of up to 32 weeks of treatment if the most recent authority approval was made under an Initial treatment restriction; OR

The treatment must not provide more than the balance of up to 24 weeks of treatment if the most recent authority approval was made under the Continuing treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C15884

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine.

An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 4 repeats to provide for an initial course sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, based on a dose of 30 mg every 4 weeks for the first three doses (weeks 0, 4, and 8) then 30 mg every eight weeks thereafter (refer to the TGA-approved Product Information).

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and

(b) details (date and duration of treatment) of prior biological medicine treatment; and

(c) eosinophil count and date; and

(d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and

(e) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18271

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 0.5 from baseline,

OR

(b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in ACQ-5 score from baseline or an increase in ACQ-5 score from baseline less than or equal to 0.5.

All applications for second and subsequent continuing treatments with this drug must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment or the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made from 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed.

The assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

Where treatment was ceased for clinical reasons despite the patient experiencing improvement, an assessment of the patient's response to treatment made at the time of treatment cessation or retrospectively will be considered to determine whether the patient demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment.

A patient who fails to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for uncontrolled severe asthma will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for severe asthma within the current treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of this drug sufficient for up to 24 weeks of therapy.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following information must be provided at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) if applicable, details of maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and

(b) a completed Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18874

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patients; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND

Patient must have a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.

If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:

(a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND

(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician.

The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime.

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 4 repeats to provide for an initial course of benralizumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 30 mg every 4 weeks for the first three doses (weeks 0, 4, and 8) then 30 mg every eight weeks thereafter.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and

(b) if applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and

(c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and

(d) the eosinophil count and date; and

(e) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Bictegravir with emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide

C4470

 

HIV infection
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4470

C4522

 

HIV infection
Initial
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4522

Bosentan

C11229

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Triple therapy Initial treatment or continuing treatment of triple combination therapy (including dual therapy in lieu of triple therapy) that includes selexipag
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) PBSsubsidised selexipag (referred to as 'triple therapy'); OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of either: (i) PBSsubsidised selexipag with one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) PBSsubsidised selexipag with one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, as triple combination therapy with selexipagan endothelin receptor antagonista phoshodiesterase5 inhibitor is not possible due to an intolerance/contraindication to the endothelin receptor antagonist class/phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor class (referred to as 'dual therapy in lieu of triple therapy').
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
The authority application for selexipag must be approved prior to the authority application for this agent.
For the purposes of PBS subsidy, an endothelin receptor antagonist is one of: (a) ambrisentan, (b) bosentan, (c) macitentan; a phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor is one of: (d) sildenafil, (e) tadalafil.
PBSsubsidy does not cover patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
PAH (WHO Group 1 pulmonary hypertension) is defined as follows:
(i) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) greater than or equal to 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) less than or equal to 15 mmHg; or
(ii) where a right heart catheter (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure (RVSP), assessed by echocardiography (ECHO), greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.
The results and date of the RHC, ECHO and 6 MWT as applicable must be included in the patient's medical record. Where a RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the written confirmation of the reasons why must also be included in the patient's medical record.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12425

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Cessation of treatment (all patients)
Patient must be receiving PBSsubsidised treatment with this PAH agent; AND
The treatment must be for the purpose of gradual dose reduction prior to ceasing therapy.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment. Treatment beyond 1 month will not be approved.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13497

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Initial 3 changing to this drug in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy)
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor; OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND
Patient must be undergoing existing PBSsubsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13571

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with this PAH agent for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18737

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 2 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension is established through a prior PBS authority application

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; prior monotherapy has been inadequate - the patient has at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate - the patient has WHO functional class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18738

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial treatment 1 - New patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

If patients will be taking 62.5mg for the first month then 125 mg, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information and no repeats.

Prescribers should request the second authority prescription of therapy with the 125 mg tablet strengths, with a quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information, and a maximum of 4 repeats.

If patients will be taking 62.5mg for longer than 1 month, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment and a maximum of 5 repeats based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18743

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag)

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH; AND

Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; OR

Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment with dual combination therapy consisting of endothelin receptor antagonist with phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor where one drug was prescribed as a non-PBS benefit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18752

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 - combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; this combination therapy is treating a patient with at least WHO functional class III PAH; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18833

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial treatment 2 - Change of treatment

Patient must have had their most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

PAH agents are not PBS-subsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to re-qualify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted.

Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction.

If patients will be taking 62.5mg for the first month then 125 mg, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information and no repeats.

Prescribers should request the second authority prescription of therapy with the 125 mg tablet strengths, with a quantity for one month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information, and a maximum of 4 repeats.

If patients will be taking 62.5mg for longer than 1 month, prescribers should request the first authority prescription of therapy with the 62.5 mg tablet strength, with the quantity for one month of treatment and a maximum of 5 repeats based on the dosage recommendations in the TGA-approved Product Information.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Buprenorphine

C16009

 

Opioid dependence

The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment.

The prescriber must request a quantity sufficient for up to 28 days of supply per dispensing according to the patient's daily dose. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised. The maximum listed quantity or number of repeats must not be prescribed if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16009

 

C16015

 

Opioid dependence

Must be treated by a health care professional.

The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment; AND

Patient must be stabilised on one of the following prior to commencing treatment with this drug for this condition: (i) weekly prolonged release buprenorphine (Buvidal Weekly) (ii) sublingual buprenorphine (iii) buprenorphine/naloxone.

The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16015

 

C16050

 

Opioid dependence

Must be treated by a health care professional.

The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment; AND

Patient must be stabilised on sublingual buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone prior to commencing treatment with this drug for this condition.

The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16050

 

C16051

 

Opioid dependence

Must be treated by a health care professional.

The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment.

The prescriber must not request the maximum listed quantity or number of repeats if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16051

Buprenorphine with naloxone

C16009

 

Opioid dependence

The treatment must be within a framework of medical, social and psychological treatment.

The prescriber must request a quantity sufficient for up to 28 days of supply per dispensing according to the patient's daily dose. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised. The maximum listed quantity or number of repeats must not be prescribed if lesser quantity or repeats are sufficient for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16009

Burosumab

C13330

 

Xlinked hypophosphataemia
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have achieved normalisation in serum phosphate levels; AND
Patient must have radiographical evidence of stabilisation/improvement in rickets in patients without growth plate fusion.
Must be treated by a medical practitioner identifying as at least one of the following specialists: (i) paediatric endocrinologist, (ii) paediatric nephrologist, (iii) endocrinologist, (iv) nephrologist.
Where adequate response to treatment with this drug cannot be demonstrated, the treating physician must confirm that continuing therapy has been determined to be clinically required by a second specialist physician with expertise in the treatment of Xlinked hypophosphataemia.
At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials of appropriate strength(s) to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). A separate authority prescription form must be completed for each strength requested. Up to a maximum of 5 repeats will be authorised.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13377

 

Xlinked hypophosphataemia
Initial treatment New patient
Patient must have a documented confirmation of PHEX pathogenic variant; OR
Patient must have a confirmed diagnosis of Xlinked hypophosphataemia demonstrated by the presence of all of the following: (i) a serum phosphate concentration below the age adjusted lower limit of normal; (ii) current or historical (for those with growth plate fusion) radiographic Xray evidence of rickets; (iii) elevated (or inappropriately normal) serum or plasma FGF23 levels of above the mean of the assayspecific reference range; (iv) renal phosphate wasting demonstrated by a ratio of tubular maximum reabsorption rate of phosphate to glomerular filtration rate (TmP/GFR) according to age specific normal ranges using the second morning urine void and paired serum sample measuring phosphate and creatinine.
Must be treated by a medical practitioner identifying as at least one of the following specialists: (i) paediatric endocrinologist, (ii) paediatric nephrologist, (iii) endocrinologist, (iv) nephrologist.
At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials of appropriate strength(s) to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). A separate authority prescription form must be completed for each strength requested. Up to a maximum of 5 repeats will be authorised.
Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Cabotegravir

C12619

 

HIV infection
Patient must be virologically suppressed on a stable antiretroviral regimen for at least 6 months; AND
The treatment must be in combination with rilpivirine tablets; AND
Patient must intend to proceed to treatment with intramuscular administration of cabotegravir and rilpivirine.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12619

Cabotegravir and rilpivirine

C12636

 

HIV infection
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12636

Ciclosporin

C6628

 

Management of transplant rejection

The treatment must be used by organ or tissue transplant recipients.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6628

 

C6631

 

Nephrotic syndrome

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

Patient must have failed prior treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; OR
Patient must be intolerant to treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; OR
The condition must be considered inappropriate for treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; AND
Patient must not have renal impairment.
Must be treated by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6631

 

C6638

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

The condition must have been ineffective to prior treatment with classical slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate); OR
The condition must be considered inappropriate for treatment with slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate).
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6638

 

C6643

 

Management of transplant rejection

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

Patient must have had an organ or tissue transplantation; AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6643

 

C6660

 

Severe atopic dermatitis

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

Must be treated by a dermatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist.
The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR
The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6660

 

C9694

 

Nephrotic syndrome
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must have failed prior treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; OR
Patient must be intolerant to treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; OR
The condition must be considered inappropriate for treatment with steroids and cytostatic drugs; AND
Patient must not have renal impairment.
Must be treated by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9694

 

C9695

 

Severe atopic dermatitis
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Must be treated by a dermatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist.
The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR
The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9695

 

C9742

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
The condition must have been ineffective to prior treatment with classical slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate); OR
The condition must be considered inappropriate for treatment with slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate).
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9742

 

C9764

 

Management of transplant rejection
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must have had an organ or tissue transplantation; AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9764

 

C9831

 

Management of transplant rejection
The treatment must be used by organ or tissue transplant recipients.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9831

 

C15360

 

Severe psoriasis

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR

The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies; AND

The condition must have caused significant interference with quality of life.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either: (i) a dermatologist, (ii) a rheumatologist, (iii) general physician; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with one of the above specialist types who is either an accredited: (i) dermatology registrar, (ii) rheumatology registrar.

For patients who do not demonstrate an adequate response to ciclosporin, a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment must be completed, preferably while on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following the cessation of treatment. This assessment will be required for patients who transition to 'biological medicines' for the treatment of 'severe chronic plaque psoriasis'.

This assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15360

 

C15361

 

Severe psoriasis

Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)

The condition must be ineffective to other systemic therapies; OR

The condition must be inappropriate for other systemic therapies; AND

The condition must have caused significant interference with quality of life.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either: (i) a dermatologist, (ii) a rheumatologist, (iii) general physician; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with one of the above specialist types who is either an accredited: (i) dermatology registrar, (ii) rheumatology registrar.

For patients who do not demonstrate an adequate response to ciclosporin, a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment must be completed, preferably while on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following the cessation of treatment. This assessment will be required for patients who transition to 'biological medicines' for the treatment of 'severe chronic plaque psoriasis'.

This assessment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15361

Cinacalcet

C10063

 

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a nephrologist.
Patient must have chronic kidney disease; AND
Patient must be on dialysis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
During the maintenance phase, iPTH should be monitored quarterly (measured at least 12 hours post dose) and dose adjusted as necessary to maintain an appropriate iPTH concentration.
During the maintenance phase, prescribers should request approval to allow sufficient supply for 4 weeks treatment up to a maximum of 6 months supply, with doses between 30 and 180 mg per day according to the patient’s response and tolerability.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10063

 

C10067

 

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a nephrologist.
Patient must have chronic kidney disease; AND
Patient must be on dialysis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
During the maintenance phase, iPTH should be monitored quarterly (measured at least 12 hours post dose) and dose adjusted as necessary to maintain an appropriate iPTH concentration.
During the maintenance phase, prescribers should request approval to allow sufficient supply for 4 weeks treatment up to a maximum of 6 months supply, with doses between 30 and 180 mg per day according to the patient’s response and tolerability.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10067

 

C10073

 

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a nephrologist.
Patient must have chronic kidney disease; AND
Patient must be on dialysis; AND
Patient must have failed to respond to conventional therapy; AND
Patient must have sustained hyperparathyroidism with iPTH of at least 50 pmol per L; OR
Patient must have sustained hyperparathyroidism with iPTH of at least 15 pmol per L and less than 50 pmol per L and an (adjusted) serum calcium concentration at least 2.6 mmol per L.
During the titration phase, intact PTH (iPTH) should be monitored 4 weekly (measured at least 12 hours post dose) and dose titrated until an appropriate iPTH concentration is achieved.
During the titration phase, prescribers should request approval to allow sufficient supply for 4 weeks treatment at a time, with doses between 30 and 180 mg per day according to the patient’s response and tolerability.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Clozapine

C4998

 

Schizophrenia
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a psychiatrist; OR
Must be treated by an authorised medical practitioner, with the agreement of the treating psychiatrist.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must have completed at least 18 weeks therapy; AND
Patient must be on a clozapine dosage considered stable by a treating psychiatrist; AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a psychiatrist reviewing the patient at regular intervals.
A medical practitioner should request a quantity sufficient for up to one month’s supply. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4998

 

C5015

 

Schizophrenia
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a psychiatrist or in consultation with the psychiatrist affiliated with the hospital or specialised unit managing the patient.
Patient must be nonresponsive to other neuroleptic agents; OR
Patient must be intolerant of other neuroleptic agents.
Patients must complete at least 18 weeks of initial treatment under this restriction before being able to qualify for treatment under the continuing restriction.
The name of the consulting psychiatrist should be included in the patient’s medical records.
A medical practitioner should request a quantity sufficient for up to one month’s supply. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5015

 

C9490

 

Schizophrenia
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a psychiatrist or in consultation with the psychiatrist affiliated with the hospital or specialised unit managing the patient.
Patient must be nonresponsive to other neuroleptic agents; OR
Patient must be intolerant of other neuroleptic agents.
Patients must complete at least 18 weeks of initial treatment under this restriction before being able to qualify for treatment under the continuing restriction.
The name of the consulting psychiatrist should be included in the patient’s medical records.
A medical practitioner should request a quantity sufficient for up to one month’s supply. Up to 5 repeats will be authorised.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9490

Darbepoetin Alfa

C6294

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease

Patient must require transfusion; AND

Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND

Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6294

 

C9688

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease
Patient must require transfusion; AND
Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND
Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9688

Darunavir

C4313

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy, AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents, AND

The treatment must be coadministered with 100 mg ritonavir, AND

Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen, AND

Patient must not have demonstrated darunavir resistance associated mutations detected on resistance testing.

Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatmentlimiting toxicity.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4313

 

C5094

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy, AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents, AND

The treatment must be coadministered with 100 mg ritonavir twice daily, AND

Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen.

Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatmentlimiting toxicity.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5094

Darunavir with cobicistat

C6377

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy; AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND

The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir; AND

Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen.

Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatmentlimiting toxicity.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6377

 

C6413

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

Initial treatment

Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND

The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6413

 

C6428

 

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents; AND

The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6428

Darunavir with cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir alafenamide

C10317

 

HIV infection
Continuing treatment
Must be treated by a medical practitioner or an authorised nurse practitioner in consultation with a medical practitioner.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10317

 

C10324

 

HIV infection
Initial treatment
Must be treated by a medical practitioner or an authorised nurse practitioner in consultation with a medical practitioner.
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; OR
Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after at least one antiretroviral regimen; AND
The treatment must not be in combination with ritonavir.
Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatmentlimiting toxicity.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10324

Deferasirox

C7374

P7374

Chronic iron overload

Initial treatment

Patient must not be transfusion dependent; AND

The condition must be thalassaemia.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7375

P7375

Chronic iron overload

Initial treatment

Patient must be transfusion dependent; AND

Patient must not have a malignant disorder of erythropoiesis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7385

P7385

Chronic iron overload

Initial treatment

Patient must be red blood cell transfusion dependent; AND

Patient must have a serum ferritin level of greater than 1000 microgram/L; AND

Patient must have a malignant disorder of haemopoiesis; AND

Patient must have a median life expectancy exceeding five years.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C8326

P8326

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must be red blood cell transfusion dependent; AND
Patient must have a malignant disorder of haemopoieisis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8326

 

C8328

P8328

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must be transfusion dependent; AND
Patient must not have a malignant disorder of erythropoiesis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8328

 

C8329

P8329

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must not be transfusion dependent; AND
The condition must be thalassaemia; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8329

 

C9222

P9222

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must not be transfusion dependent; AND
The condition must be thalassaemia; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9222

 

C9258

P9258

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must be red blood cell transfusion dependent; AND
Patient must have a malignant disorder of haemopoieisis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9258

 

C9302

P9302

Chronic iron overload
Continuing treatment
Patient must be transfusion dependent; AND
Patient must not have a malignant disorder of erythropoiesis; AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with deferasirox for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9302

Deferiprone

C6403

 

Iron overload

Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND

Patient must be one in whom desferrioxamine therapy has proven ineffective.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6403

 

C6448

 

Iron overload

Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND

Patient must be unable to take desferrioxamine therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6448

 

C9228

 

Iron overload
Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND
Patient must be one in whom desferrioxamine therapy has proven ineffective.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9228

 

C9286

 

Iron overload
Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND
Patient must be unable to take desferrioxamine therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9286

 

C9590

 

Iron overload
Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND
Patient must be one in whom desferrioxamine therapy has proven ineffective.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9590

 

C9623

 

Iron overload
Patient must have thalassaemia major; AND
Patient must be unable to take desferrioxamine therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9623

Desferrioxamine

C6394

 

Disorders of erythropoiesis

The condition must be associated with treatmentrelated chronic iron overload.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6394

 

C9696

 

Disorders of erythropoiesis
The condition must be associated with treatmentrelated chronic iron overload.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9696

Difelikefalin

C15171

 

Moderate to severe pruritus (itching) associated with chronic kidney disease

Initial treatment

Patient must be on optimised haemodialysis; AND

Patient must be on haemodialysis for at least 3 months; AND

The condition must be confirmed based on both physical examination and patient history to exclude any factors that may be triggering the pruritus; AND

Patient must have experienced itch that persists for at least 6 weeks despite best supportive care; AND

Patient must have a 24-hour Worst Itching Intensity Numerical Rating Scale (WI-NRS) baseline score of more than 4; AND

Patient must not receive more than 12 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a nephrologist.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Prescriber must exclude any other causes of pruritus which include any of the following:

(i) drug/dialysis related (e.g., opioid-related pruritus);

(ii) drug hypersensitivity or adverse effect; contact dermatitis; allergy;

(iii) differential diagnoses (e.g., xerosis; infestations; iron deficiency; liver disease; polycythaemia vera/leukemia/lymphoma; hypothyroidism; uncontrolled diabetes).

Best supportive care for patients with chronic kidney disease-associated pruritus is not limited to but includes:

(i) optimisation of dialysis;

(ii) skin hydration and nutrition (with the use of moisturiser, emollients, barrier creams or oils);

(iii) patient education on the importance of avoiding or minimising scratching.

Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the dry body weight of the patient (in kg), adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised. No more than 4 doses per week will be authorised even if the number of haemodialysis treatments in a week exceeds 4.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C15211

 

Moderate to severe pruritus (itching) associated with chronic kidney disease

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug including at least a 3-point improvement from baseline in 24-hour Worst Itching Intensity Numerical Rating Scale (WI-NRS) score.

Must be treated by a nephrologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner in consultation with a nephrologist.

Confirmation of eligibility for treatment with diagnostic reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the dry body weight of the patient (in kg), adequate for 4 weeks, according to the specified dosage in the approved Product Information (PI). Up to a maximum of 5 repeats will be authorised. No more than 4 doses per week will be authorised even if the number of haemodialysis treatments in a week exceeds 4.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Dolutegravir

C4454

 

HIV infection

Continuing

Patient must have previously received PBS subsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND

The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents

Compliance with Authority Required procedures   Streamlined Authority Code 4454

 

C4512

 

HIV infection
Initial

Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naïve; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4512

Dolutegravir with abacavir and lamivudine

C9981

 

HIV infection
Initial treatment
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9981

 

C10116

 

HIV infection
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 10116

Dolutegravir with lamivudine

C9987

 

HIV infection
Initial treatment
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND
Patient must not have suspected resistance to either antiretroviral component.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9987

 

C11066

 

HIV infection
Continuing or change of treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 11066

Dolutegravir with rilpivirine

C8214

 

HIV infection
Initial treatment
Patient must be virologically suppressed on a stable antiretroviral regimen for at least 6 months; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8214

 

C8226

 

HIV infection
Continuing treatment
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy with this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised therapy for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8226

Dornase alfa

C5634

 

Cystic fibrosis
Patient must have a severe clinical course with frequent respiratory exacerbations or chronic respiratory symptoms (including chronic or recurrent cough, wheeze or tachypnoea) requiring hospital admissions more frequently than 3 times per year; OR
Patient must have significant bronchiectasis on chest high resolution computed tomography scan; OR
Patient must have severe cystic fibrosis bronchiolitis with persistent wheeze nonresponsive to conventional medicines; OR
Patient must have severe physiological deficit measure by forced oscillation technique or multiple breath nitrogen washout and failure to respond to conventional therapy.
Patient must be less than 5 years of age.
Patient must be assessed at a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis or by a specialist physician or paediatrician in consultation with such a unit.
Following an initial 6 months therapy, a comprehensive assessment must be undertaken and documented. Treatment with this drug should cease if there is not agreement of benefit, as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use. Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5634

 

C5635

 

Cystic fibrosis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have initiated treatment with dornase alfa at an age of less than 5 years,AND
Patient must have undergone a comprehensive assessment which documents agreement that dornase alfa treatment is continuing to produce worthwhile benefit.
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.
Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals. Treatment with this drug should cease if there is not agreement of benefit as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5635

 

C5740

 

Cystic fibrosis
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.
Patient must be assessed at a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis or by a specialist physician or paediatrician in consultation with such a unit.
Prior to therapy with this drug, a baseline measurement of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) must be undertaken during a stable period of the disease.
Initial therapy is limited to 3 months treatment with dornase alfa at a dose of 2.5 mg daily.
To be eligible for continued PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug following 3 months of initial treatment:
(1) the patient must demonstrate no deterioration in FEV1 compared to baseline; AND
(2) the patient or the patient’s family (in the case of paediatric patients) and the treating physician(s) must report a benefit in the clinical status of the patient.
Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals. Therapy with this drug should cease if there is not general agreement of benefit as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5740

 

C9591

 

Cystic fibrosis
Patient must have a severe clinical course with frequent respiratory exacerbations or chronic respiratory symptoms (including chronic or recurrent cough, wheeze or tachypnoea) requiring hospital admissions more frequently than 3 times per year; OR
Patient must have significant bronchiectasis on chest high resolution computed tomography scan; OR
Patient must have severe cystic fibrosis bronchiolitis with persistent wheeze nonresponsive to conventional medicines; OR
Patient must have severe physiological deficit measure by forced oscillation technique or multiple breath nitrogen washout and failure to respond to conventional therapy.
Patient must be less than 5 years of age.
Patient must be assessed at a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis or by a specialist physician or paediatrician in consultation with such a unit.
Following an initial 6 months therapy, a comprehensive assessment must be undertaken and documented. Treatment with this drug should cease if there is not agreement of benefit, as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use. Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9591

 

C9592

 

Cystic fibrosis
Continuing treatment
Patient must have initiated treatment with dornase alfa at an age of less than 5 years; AND
Patient must have undergone a comprehensive assessment which documents agreement that dornase alfa treatment is continuing to produce worthwhile benefit.
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.
Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals. Treatment with this drug should cease if there is not agreement of benefit as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9592

 

C9624

 

Cystic fibrosis
Patient must be 5 years of age or older.
Patient must be assessed at a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis or by a specialist physician or paediatrician in consultation with such a unit.
Prior to therapy with this drug, a baseline measurement of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) must be undertaken during a stable period of the disease.
Initial therapy is limited to 3 months treatment with dornase alfa at a dose of 2.5 mg daily.
To be eligible for continued PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug following 3 months of initial treatment:
(1) the patient must demonstrate no deterioration in FEV1 compared to baseline; AND
(2) the patient or the patient’s family (in the case of paediatric patients) and the treating physician(s) must report a benefit in the clinical status of the patient.
Further reassessments must be undertaken and documented at sixmonthly intervals. Therapy with this drug should cease if there is not general agreement of benefit as there is always the possibility of harm from unnecessary use.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9624

Doxorubicin
Pegylated Liposomal

C6234

 

Kaposi sarcoma
The condition must be AIDSrelated; AND
Patient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 200 per cubic millimetre; AND
The condition must include extensive mucocutaneous involvement.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6234

 

C6274

 

Kaposi sarcoma
The condition must be AIDSrelated; AND
Patient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 200 per cubic millimetre; AND
The condition must include extensive visceral involvement.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6274

 

C9223

 

Kaposi sarcoma
The condition must be AIDSrelated; AND
Patient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 200 per cubic millimetre; AND
The condition must include extensive visceral involvement.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9223

 

C9287

 

Kaposi sarcoma
The condition must be AIDSrelated; AND
Patient must have a CD4 cell count of less than 200 per cubic millimetre; AND
The condition must include extensive mucocutaneous involvement.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9287

Dupilumab

C15886

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma, that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine.

An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 400 mg as an initial dose, followed by 200 mg every 2 weeks thereafter.

A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts.

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and

(b) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior biological medicine treatment; and

(c) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and

(d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and

(e) if applicable, the IgE result and date; and

(f) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17009

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Continuing treatment

Patient must have a documented history of either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician.

Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years.

An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR

(b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score from baseline, OR

(c) a reduction in the time-adjusted exacerbation rates compared to the 12 months prior to baseline.

All applications for continuing treatment with this biological medicine must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment, the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate must be made at around 20 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed.

The first assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the date of assessment, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for this condition.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity and number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of dupilumab, sufficient for 24 weeks therapy.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and

(b) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or

(c) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score.

The most recent Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17016

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy)

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR

Patient must have had a break in treatment from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma in consultation with a respiratory physician, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility, (b) airway hyperresponsiveness, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability; AND

Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND

Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb in the last 12 months; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician.

Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years.

Optimised asthma therapy includes:

(i) Adherence to optimal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least six months. If LABA therapy is contraindicated, not tolerated or not effective, montelukast, cromoglycate or nedocromil may be used as an alternative;

AND

(ii) treatment with at least 2 courses of oral or IV corticosteroids (daily or alternate day maintenance treatment courses, or 3-5 day exacerbation treatment courses), in the previous 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.

If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications (including those specified in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information) and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application.

The initial IgE assessment, blood eosinophil count or fractional exhaled nitric oxide measurement must be no more than 12 months old at the time of application.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:

(a) An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month (for children aged 6 to 10 years it is recommended that the Interviewer Administered version - the ACQ-IA be used),

AND

(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the previous 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician.

The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of exacerbation rate should be made at around 28 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for this condition.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab of up to 32 weeks.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) details of prior optimised asthma drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

(b) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and

(c) the IgE, blood eosinophil or the fractional exhaled nitric oxide result and date; and

(d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or

(e) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17072

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment)

Patient must have had a total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; OR

Patient must have had a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; AND

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine in this treatment cycle for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma; AND

Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for either: (i) severe asthma, (ii) severe allergic asthma.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician.

Patient must be aged 6 to less than 12 years.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma or severe allergic asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-5-IA) assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made no more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine.

An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-5-IA) assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be submitted no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the IgE, blood eosinophil or fractional exhaled nitric oxide result and date; and

(b) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; or

(c) Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score.

(d) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment; and

(e) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17073

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy), Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment), Continuing treatment, or transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements - Balance of Supply in a patient aged 6 to 12 years

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment - Initial 1 (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy) restriction to complete 32 weeks of treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment) restriction to complete 32 weeks of treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 32 weeks treatment available under the Initial 1 and Initial 2 restriction; OR

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the Continuing and transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements restriction.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17113

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements

Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 September 2025; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist; (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma in consultation with a respiratory physician, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (i) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility, (ii) airway hyperresponsiveness, (iii) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability; AND

Patient must have had a duration of asthma of at least 1 year prior to commencement of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must have had a documented total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL measured no more than 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition, with past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE no more than 12 months prior to initiation of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre in the 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; OR

Patient must have had a fractional exhaled nitric oxide of at least 20 ppb in the 12 months prior to initiation of non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have documented a failure to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, prior to initiating non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with this drug if the patient has received at least 28 weeks of treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) paediatric respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) paediatrician or general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, in consultation with a respiratory physician.

Patient must have been aged 6 to less than 12 years prior to starting non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.

Optimised asthma therapy includes:

(i) Adherence to optimal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least six months. If LABA therapy is contraindicated, not tolerated or not effective, montelukast, cromoglycate or nedocromil may be used as an alternative;

AND

(ii) treatment with at least 2 courses of oral or IV corticosteroids (daily or alternate day maintenance treatment courses, or 3-5 day exacerbation treatment courses), in the previous 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.

If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications (including those specified in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information) and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application.

An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score of at least 0.5 from baseline, OR

(b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) score from baseline, OR

(c) a reduction in the time-adjusted exacerbation rates compared to the 12 months prior to baseline.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:(a) An Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed prior to non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition (for children aged 6 to 10 years it is recommended that the Interviewer Administered version - the ACQ-IA be used), AND(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the prior to non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician.

The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate to determine whether the patient has achieved or sustained an adequate response to non-PBS subsidised treatment, must be conducted immediately (no later than 4 weeks after the last dose of non-PBS-subsidised treatment) prior to this application if the treatment duration has been at least 28 weeks

All applications for continuing treatment with this biological medicine must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) or Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment, the assessment of systemic corticosteroid dose, and the assessment of time-adjusted exacerbation rate must be made at around 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for continuing therapy to be processed.

The first assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be submitted within 4 weeks of the date of assessment, and no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, to avoid an interruption to supply. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug for this condition.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this biological medicine will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with 2 biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date of the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity and number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of dupilumab, sufficient for 24 weeks of therapy.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) prior optimised asthma drug therapy (date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

(b) IgE, blood eosinophils or fractional exhaled nitric oxide results and date from prior to initiating non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug; and

(c) date of commencing non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

(d) If applicable, maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and

(e) If applicable, the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) scores, including the date of assessment of the patient's symptoms; or

(f) If applicable, the Asthma Control Questionnaire interviewer administered version (ACQ-IA) scores, including the date of assessment of the patient's symptoms.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18269

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

An adequate response to this biological medicine is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 0.5 from baseline,

OR

(b) maintenance oral corticosteroid dose reduced by at least 25% from baseline, and no deterioration in ACQ-5 score from baseline or an increase in ACQ-5 score from baseline less than or equal to 0.5.

All applications for second and subsequent continuing treatments with this drug must include a measurement of response to the prior course of therapy. The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of treatment or the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made from 20 weeks after the first dose of PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and, for the application for continuing therapy to be processed.

The assessment should, where possible, be completed by the same physician who initiated treatment with this drug. This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

Where treatment was ceased for clinical reasons despite the patient experiencing improvement, an assessment of the patient's response to treatment made at the time of treatment cessation or retrospectively will be considered to determine whether the patient demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment.

A patient who fails to respond to treatment with this biological medicine for uncontrolled severe asthma will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this biological medicine for severe asthma within the current treatment cycle.

A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of repeats to provide for a continuing course of this drug sufficient for up to 24 weeks of therapy.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following information must be provided at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) if applicable, details of maintenance oral corticosteroid dose; and

(b) a completed Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18464

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (Change of treatment)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for severe asthma during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have had a blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and that is no older than 12 months immediately prior to commencing PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have each of: (i) total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL measured no more than 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma, (ii) past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or an in vitro measure of specific IgE in the past 12 months or in the 12 months prior to initiating PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; AND

Patient must have received regular maintenance oral corticosteroids (OCS) in the last 6 months with a stable daily OCS dose of 5 to 35 mg/day of prednisolone or equivalent over the 4 weeks prior to treatment initiation; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for severe asthma who wishes to change therapy to this biological medicine, must be accompanied by the results of an ACQ-5 assessment of the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment. The assessment must have been made not more than 4 weeks after the last dose of biological medicine. Where a response assessment was not undertaken, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with that previous biological medicine.

An ACQ-5 assessment of the patient may be made at the time of application for treatment (to establish a new baseline score), but should be made again around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this biological medicine under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment at around 28 weeks, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and provided, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this biological medicine.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy at a dose of 600 mg as an initial dose, followed by 300 mg every 2 weeks thereafter.

A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts.

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5 item version) score (where a new baseline is being submitted or where the patient has responded to prior treatment); and

(b) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior biological medicine treatment; and

(c) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and

(d) if applicable, the dose of the maintenance oral corticosteroid (where the response criteria or baseline is based on corticosteroid dose); and

(e) if applicable, the IgE result and date; and

(f) the reason for switching therapy (e.g. failure of prior therapy, partial response to prior therapy, adverse event to prior therapy).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18858

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment 1 - (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND

Patient must have been receiving regular maintenance oral corticosteroids (OCS) in the last 6 months with a stable daily OCS dose of 5 to 35 mg/day of prednisolone or equivalent over the 4 weeks prior to treatment initiation; AND

Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured in the last 12 months that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

Optimised asthma therapy includes:

(i) Adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated;

AND

(ii) treatment with oral corticosteroids as outlined in the clinical criteria.

If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:

(a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND

(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician.

The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime.

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 600 mg as an initial dose, followed by 300 mg every 2 weeks thereafter.

A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and

(b) If applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and

(c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and

(d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; and

(e) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and

(f) if applicable, the IgE result and date.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18889

 

Uncontrolled severe asthma

Initial treatment 1 - (New patient; or Recommencement of treatment in a new treatment cycle following a break in PBS subsidised biological medicine therapy)

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who is either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma.

Patient must be under the care of the same physician for at least 6 months; OR

Patient must have been diagnosed by a multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for severe asthma; OR

Patient must have had a break in treatment of at least 12 months from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for severe asthma; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma confirmed and documented in the patient's medical records by either a: (i) respiratory physician, (ii) clinical immunologist, (iii) allergist, (iv) general physician experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma, defined by at least one of the following standard clinical features: (a) forced expiratory volume (FEV1) reversibility greater than or equal to 12% and greater than or equal to 200 mL at baseline within 30 minutes after administration of salbutamol (200 to 400 micrograms), (b) airway hyperresponsiveness defined as a greater than 20% decline in FEV1 during a direct bronchial provocation test or greater than 15% decline during an indirect bronchial provocation test, (c) peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability of greater than 15% between the two highest and two lowest peak expiratory flow rates during 14 days; OR

Patient must have a diagnosis of asthma from at least two physicians experienced in the management of patients with severe asthma with the details documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must have a duration of asthma of at least 1 year; AND

Patient must have a blood eosinophil count of at least 300 cells per microlitre in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have blood eosinophil count of at least 150 cells per microlitre while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have total serum human immunoglobulin E of at least 30 IU/mL, measured in the last 12 months that has past or current evidence of atopy, documented by either: (i) skin prick testing; (ii) an in vitro measure of specific IgE; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve adequate control with optimised asthma therapy, despite formal assessment of and adherence to correct inhaler technique, which has been documented in the patient's medical records; AND

Patient must not receive more than 32 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must not be used in combination with and within 4 weeks of another PBS-subsidised biological medicine prescribed for severe asthma.

Patient must be aged 12 years or older.

Optimised asthma therapy includes adherence to maximal inhaled therapy, including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) therapy for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated.

If the requirement for treatment with optimised asthma therapy cannot be met because of contraindications according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the contraindication and/or intolerance must be provided in the Authority application.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve adequate control and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the application:

(a) an Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score of at least 2.0, as assessed in the previous month, AND

(b) while receiving optimised asthma therapy in the past 12 months, experienced at least 1 admission to hospital for a severe asthma exacerbation, OR 1 severe asthma exacerbation, requiring documented use of systemic corticosteroids (oral corticosteroids initiated or increased for at least 3 days, or parenteral corticosteroids) prescribed/supervised by a physician.

The Asthma Control Questionnaire (5 item version) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment, and the assessment of oral corticosteroid dose, should be made at around 28 weeks after the first PBS-subsidised dose of this drug under this restriction so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated and for the application for the first continuing therapy to be processed.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, should be conducted within 4 weeks of the last dose of biological medicine. To avoid an interruption of supply for the first continuing treatment, the assessment should be provided no later than 2 weeks prior to the patient completing their current treatment course, unless the patient is currently on a treatment break.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle.

A treatment break in PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy of at least 12 months must be observed in a patient who has either failed to achieve or sustain a response to treatment with all eligible biological medicines within the same treatment cycle.

The length of the break in therapy is measured from the date the most recent treatment with a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was administered until the date of the first application for recommencement of treatment with a biological medicine under the new treatment cycle.

There is no limit to the number of treatment cycles that a patient may undertake in their lifetime.

A multidisciplinary severe asthma clinic team comprises of:

(i) A respiratory physician; and

(ii) A pharmacist, nurse or asthma educator.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request up to 8 repeats to provide for an initial course of dupilumab sufficient for up to 32 weeks of therapy, at a dose of 400 mg as an initial dose, followed by 200 mg every 2 weeks thereafter.

A swapping between 200 mg and 300 mg strengths is not permitted as the respective strengths are PBS approved for different patient cohorts.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) details (treatment, date of commencement, duration of therapy) of prior optimised asthma drug therapy; and

(b) If applicable, details of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to standard therapy according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information; and

(c) details of severe exacerbation/s experienced in the past 12 months while receiving optimised asthma therapy (date and treatment); and

(d) Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) score; and

(e) if applicable, the eosinophil count and date; and

(f) if applicable, the IgE result and date.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Eculizumab

C14750

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)
Recommencement - Balance of Supply
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the 'Recommencement of treatment' restriction for this condition; AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks supply under this restriction.
Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR
Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.
Serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment) must be provided with every subsequent application for treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14753

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)
Switch from PBS-subsidised ravulizumab (all phases) - loading dose
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Initial treatment' restriction for this condition; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Continuing treatment' restriction for this condition; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Extended continuing treatment' restriction for this condition; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Recommencement of treatment' restriction for this condition; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Continuing recommencement of treatment' restriction for this condition; OR
Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised ravulizumab under the 'Grandfather (transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised treatment)' restriction for this condition; AND
Patient must have/had ADAMTS-13 activity of greater than or equal to 10% on a blood sample; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of C5 inhibitor supply for this current treatment phase under this restriction.
Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR
Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.
The application must indicate the most recent treatment phase that the patient is switching from.
For patients who are switching C5 inhibitors, the next application should be sought under the next relevant treatment phase.
Serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment) must be provided with every subsequent application for treatment.
The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:
(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);
(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);
(3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;
(4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14754

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the initial treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the initial treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing treatment phase for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated on-going treatment response with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; AND

Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND

Patient must not receive more than 80 weeks of eculizumab treatment in total under this restriction; OR

Patient must not receive more than 104 weeks supply of a C5 inhibitor under the initial and continuing treatment restrictions if they had switched C5 inhibitors during the course of initial and continuing treatment; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND

Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.

A treatment response is defined as:

(1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and

(2) One of the following:

a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or

b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or

c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline.

PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought.

A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is:

(1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or

(2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented.

The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment).

The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:

(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);

(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);

(3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;

(4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted;

(5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable;

(6) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS);

(7) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease, if applicable;

(8) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 1 week old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 1 week old at the time of application;

(9) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved;

(10) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required.

This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14781

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)
Initial treatment
Patient must have active and progressing thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) caused by aHUS; AND
Patient must have ADAMTS-13 activity of greater than or equal to 10% on a blood sample taken prior to plasma exchange or infusion; or, if ADAMTS-13 activity was not collected prior to plasma exchange or infusion, patient must have platelet counts of greater than 30x10^9/L and a serum creatinine of greater than 150 mol/L; AND
Patient must have a confirmed negative STEC (Shiga toxin-producing E.Coli) result if the patient has had diarrhoea in the preceding 14 days; AND
Patient must have clinical features of active organ damage or impairment; AND
Patient must not receive more than 4 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR
Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.
Evidence of active and progressing TMA is defined by the following:
(1) a platelet count of less than 150x10^9/L; and evidence of two of the following:
(i) presence of schistocytes on blood film;
(ii) low or absent haptoglobin;
(iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) above normal range;
OR
(2) in recipients of a kidney transplant for end-stage kidney disease due to aHUS, a kidney biopsy confirming TMA;
AND
(3) evidence of at least one of the following clinical features of active TMA-related organ damage or impairment is defined as below:
(a) kidney impairment as demonstrated by one of the following:
(i) a decline in estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) of greater than 20% in a patient who has pre-existing kidney impairment; and/or
(ii) a serum creatinine (sCr) of greater than the upper limit of normal (ULN) in a patient who has no history of pre-existing kidney impairment; or
(iii) a sCr of greater than the age-appropriate ULN in paediatric patients; or
(iv) a renal biopsy consistent with aHUS;
(b) onset of TMA-related neurological impairment;
(c) onset of TMA-related cardiac impairment;
(d) onset of TMA-related gastrointestinal impairment;
(e) onset of TMA-related pulmonary impairment.
Claims of non-renal TMA-related organ damage should be made at the point of application for initial PBS-subsidised eculizumab (where possible), and should be supported by objective clinical measures. The prescriber's cover letter should establish that the observed organ damage is directly linked to active and progressing TMA, particularly when indirect causes such as severe thrombocytopenia, hypertension and acute renal failure are present at the time of the initial organ impairment.
Serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment) must be provided with every subsequent application for treatment.
The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:
(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);
(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);
(3) A detailed cover letter from the prescriber;
(4) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;
(5) The result of ADAMTS-13 activity on a blood sample taken prior to plasma exchange or infusion; the date and time that the sample for the ADAMTS-13 assay was collected, and the dates and times of any plasma exchanges or infusions that were undertaken in the 2 weeks prior to collection of the ADAMTS-13 assay;
(6) In the case that a sample for ADAMTS-13 assay was not collected prior to plasma exchange or infusion, measurement of ADAMTS-13 activity must be taken 7-10 days following the last plasma exchange or infusion. The ADAMTS-13 result must be submitted to Services Australia within 27 days of commencement of eculizumab treatment in order for the patient to be considered as eligible for further PBS-subsidised eculizumab treatment, under Initial treatment - Balance of Supply;
(7) A confirmed negative STEC result if the patient has had diarrhoea in the preceding 14 days;
(8) Evidence of active and progressing TMA, including pathology results where relevant. Evidence of the onset of TMA-related neurological, cardiac, gastrointestinal or pulmonary impairment requires a supporting statement with clinical evidence in patient records. All tests must have been performed within 4 weeks of application;
(9) For all patients, a recent measurement of eGFR, platelets and two of either LDH, haptoglobin or schistocytes of no more than 1 week old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14792

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)
Initial treatment - Balance of Supply
Patient must have received PBS-subsidised initial supply of eculizumab for this condition; AND
Patient must have ADAMTS-13 activity of greater than or equal to 10% on a blood sample; AND
Patient must not receive more than 20 weeks supply under this restriction.
Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR
Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND
Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.
ADAMTS-13 activity result must have been submitted to Services Australia. In the case that a sample for ADAMTS-13 activity taken prior to plasma exchange or infusion was not available at the time of application for Initial treatment, ADAMTS-13 activity must have been measured 7-10 days following the last plasma exchange or infusion, and must have been submitted to Services Australia within 27 days of commencement of eculizumab. The date and time that the sample for the ADAMTS-13 assay was collected, and the dates and times of the last, if any, plasma exchange or infusion that was undertaken in the 2 weeks prior to collection of the ADAMTS-13 assay must also have been provided to Services Australia.
Serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment) must be provided with every subsequent application for treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C14793

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)

Continuing recommencement of treatment

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the recommencement of treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the recommencement treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing recommencement of treatment phase for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated ongoing treatment response to 'Recommencement of treatment' with a C5 inhibitor for this condition; AND

Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment with eculizumab per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND

Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.

A treatment response is defined as:

(1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and

(2) One of the following:

a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or

b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or

c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline.

PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought.

A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is:

(1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or

(2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented.

The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment).

The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:

(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);

(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);

(3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;

(4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted;

(5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable;

(6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS before recommencing eculizumab treatment, if applicable;

(7) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS);

(8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease, if applicable;

(9) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 1 week old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 1 week old at the time of application;

(10) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved;

(11) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required.

This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14799

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)

Recommencement of treatment

Patient must have demonstrated treatment response to previous treatment with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the recommencement treatment phase for this condition; AND

Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND

Patient must have the following clinical conditions prior to recommencing C5 inhibitor treatment: (i) either significant haemolysis as measured by low/absent haptoglobin; or presence of schistocytes on the blood film; or lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) above normal; AND (ii) either platelet consumption as measured by either 25% decline from patient baseline or thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150 x 10^9/L); OR (iii) TMA-related organ impairment including on recent biopsy; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND

Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.

A treatment response is defined as:

(1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and

(2) One of the following:

a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or

b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or

c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline.

PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought.

A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is:

(1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or

(2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented.

The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment).

The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:

(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);

(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);

(3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;

(4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted;

(5) A family history of aHUS if applicable;

(6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS following the treatment break, if applicable;

(7) A history of kidney transplant if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS);

(8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease;

(9) A supporting statement with clinical evidence of TMA-related organ damage including current (within one week of application) haematological results (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH), eGFR level, and, if applicable, on recent biopsy;

(10) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response to their previous treatment with eculizumab;

(11) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved;

(12) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14805

 

Atypical haemolytic uraemic syndrome (aHUS)

Extended Continuing treatment

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the continuing treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the continuing treatment phase for this condition; OR

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised eculizumab under the switch from ravulizumab in the extended continuing treatment phase for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated on-going treatment response with PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition; AND

Patient must not have experienced treatment failure with eculizumab for this condition in the most recent treatment phase; AND

Patient must have a TMA-related cardiomyopathy as evidenced by left ventricular ejection fraction < 40% on current objective measurement; OR

Patient must have severe TMA-related neurological impairment; OR

Patient must have severe TMA-related gastrointestinal impairment; OR

Patient must have severe TMA-related pulmonary impairment on current objective measurement; OR

Patient must have grade 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease (eGFR of less than 30 mL/min); OR

Patient must have a high risk of aHUS recurrence in the short term in the absence of continued treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Must be treated by a prescriber who is either: (i) a haematologist, (ii) a nephrologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner who has consulted at least one of the above mentioned specialist types, with agreement reached that the patient should be treated with this pharmaceutical benefit on this occasion; AND

Patient must be undergoing treatment with one C5 inhibitor therapy only at any given time.

A treatment response is defined as:

(1) Normalisation of haematology as demonstrated by at least 2 of the following: (i) platelet count, (ii) haptoglobin, (iii) lactate dehydrogenase (LDH); and

(2) One of the following:

a) an increase in eGFR of > 25% from baseline, where the baseline is the eGFR measurement immediately prior to commencing treatment with a C5 inhibitor; or

b) an eGFR within +/- 25% from baseline; or

c) an avoidance of dialysis-dependence but worsening of kidney function with a reduction in eGFR > 25% from baseline.

PBS-subsidised treatment with eculizumab will not be permitted if a patient has experienced treatment failure with eculizumab in the most recent treatment phase prior to the treatment phase where this application is sought.

A treatment failure is defined as a patient who is:

(1) Dialysis-dependent at the time of application and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented; or

(2) On dialysis and has been on dialysis for 4 months of the previous 6 months while receiving a PBS-subsidised C5 inhibitor, and has failed to demonstrate significant resolution of extra-renal complications if originally presented.

The authority application must include the following measures of response to the prior course of treatment, including serial haematological results (every 3 months while the patient is receiving treatment).

The authority application must be in writing and must include all of the following:

(1) A completed authority prescription form(s);

(2) A completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice);

(3) A measurement of body weight at the time of application;

(4) Results of genetic testing, if not previously submitted;

(5) A family history of aHUS, if applicable;

(6) A history of multiple episodes of aHUS before commencing eculizumab treatment, if applicable;

(7) A history of kidney transplant, if applicable (especially if required due to aHUS);

(8) An inclusion of the individual consequences of recurrent disease;

(9) A supporting statement with clinical evidence of severe TMA-related cardiomyopathy (including current LVEF result), neurological impairment, gastrointestinal impairment or pulmonary impairment;

(10) Evidence that the patient has had a treatment response including haematological results of no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application (platelet count, haptoglobin and LDH); and an eGFR level of no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application;

(11) Evidence that the patient has not experienced treatment failure, including a supporting statement with clinical evidence that the patient does not require dialysis, unless the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications that have significantly improved;

(12) If the indication for continuing eculizumab is severe extra-renal complications, then a supporting statement with clinical evidence that any initial extra-renal complications of TMA have significantly improved is required.

This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the prior treatment. Where a response assessment is not undertaken and submitted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with eculizumab.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17602

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Grandfather 2 (transition from LSDP-funded eculizumab)

Patient must have previously received eculizumab for the treatment of this condition funded under the Australian Government's Life Saving Drugs Program (LSDP); AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided:

(i) Haemoglobin (g/L)

(ii) Platelets (x109/L)

(iii) White Cell Count (x109/L)

(iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L)

(v) Neutrophils (x109/L)

(vi) Granulocyte clone size (%)

(vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

(viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory

(ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17626

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Grandfather 1 (transition from non-PBS-subsidised treatment) - maintenance phase

Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition prior to 1 March 2022; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided:

(i) Haemoglobin (g/L)

(ii) Platelets (x109/L)

(iii) White Cell Count (x109/L)

(iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L)

(v) Neutrophils (x109/L)

(vi) Granulocyte clone size (%)

(vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

(viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory

(ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17630

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Switching from PBS-subsidised pegcetacoplan or iptacopan - induction doses

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan for this condition; AND

Patient must have developed resistance or intolerance to either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, a 'Returning' patient must proceed under the'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17651

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (switching from PBS-subsidised ravulizumab for pregnancy)

Patient must be planning pregnancy; OR

Patient must be pregnant; AND

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with ravulizumab for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Patient may qualify under this treatment phase more than once. In the event of miscarriage, patient may continue on eculizumab if patient is stable, and/or is planning a subsequent pregnancy. For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, a 'Switching' patient must proceed under the 'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17673

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Initial treatment - (initial 3) switching from PBS-subsidised pegcetacoplan or iptacopan for pregnancy (induction doses)

Patient must be planning pregnancy; OR

Patient must be pregnant; AND

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with either: (i) pegcetacoplan, (ii) iptacopan for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Patient may qualify under this treatment phase more than once. In the event of miscarriage, patient may continue on eculizumab if patient is stable, and/or is planning a subsequent pregnancy. For continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, a 'Switching' patient must proceed under the 'Subsequent Continuing Treatment' criteria.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17675

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Balance of Supply (transition from non-PBS-subsidised treatment during induction phase)

Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised eculizumab for this condition prior to 1 March 2022; AND

Patient must have received insufficient quantity to complete the induction treatment phase; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10% prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; OR

Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded prior to commencing treatment with eculizumab; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials to complete the induction treatment phase, as per the Product Information.

At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided:

(i) Haemoglobin (g/L)

(ii) Platelets (x109/L)

(iii) White Cell Count (x109/L)

(iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L)

(v) Neutrophils (x109/L)

(vi) Granulocyte clone size (%)

(vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

(viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory

(ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place)

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17684

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Initial treatment - initial 1 (new patient) induction doses

Patient must not have received prior treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have a diagnosis of PNH established by flow cytometry; AND

Patient must have a PNH granulocyte clone size equal to or greater than 10%; AND

Patient must have a raised lactate dehydrogenase value at least 1.5 times the upper limit of normal; AND

Patient must have experienced a thrombotic/embolic event which required anticoagulant therapy; OR

Patient must have been transfused with at least 4 units of red blood cells in the last 12 months; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 70 g/L in the absence of anaemia symptoms; OR

Patient must have chronic/recurrent anaemia, where causes other than haemolysis have been excluded, together with multiple haemoglobin measurements not exceeding 100 g/L in addition to having anaemia symptoms; OR

Patient must have debilitating shortness of breath/chest pain resulting in limitation of normal activity (New York Heart Association Class III) and/or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; OR

Patient must have a history of renal insufficiency, demonstrated by an eGFR less than or equal to 60 mL/min/1.73m2, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; OR

Patient must have recurrent episodes of severe pain requiring hospitalisation and/or narcotic analgesia, where causes other than PNH have been excluded; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided:

(i) Haemoglobin (g/L)

(ii) Platelets (x109/L)

(iii) White Cell Count (x109/L)

(iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L)

(v) Neutrophils (x109/L)

(vi) Granulocyte clone size (%)

(vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

(viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory

(ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place) must be at least 1.5

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17693

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

Subsequent Continuing Treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the 'First Continuing Treatment' or 'Switch' criteria; AND

Patient must have experienced clinical improvement as a result of treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have experienced a stabilisation of the condition as a result of treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17697

 

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

First Continuing Treatment

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under an 'Initial', 'Balance of Supply', or 'Grandfather' treatment criteria; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised therapy for this condition.

Must be treated by a haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a non-specialist medical physician who has consulted a haematologist on the patient's drug treatment details.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, details (result and date of result) of the following monitoring requirements must be provided:

(i) Haemoglobin (g/L)

(ii) Platelets (x109/L)

(iii) White Cell Count (x109/L)

(iv) Reticulocytes (x109/L)

(v) Neutrophils (x109/L)

(vi) Granulocyte clone size (%)

(vii) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

(viii) the upper limit of normal (ULN) for LDH as quoted by the reporting laboratory

(ix) the LDH:ULN ratio (in figures, rounded to one decimal place)

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Edaravone

C16479

P16479

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have undergone a tracheostomy; AND

Patient must not have experienced respiratory failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18480

 

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Initial treatment

The condition must be/have been diagnosed by a neurologist; AND

Patient must not have had symptoms for more than 2 years prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND

Patient must have at least 80 percent of predicted forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (SVC) within the 2 months prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND

Patient must not require assistance with eating or ambulation prior to commencing treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must have at least two points on each individual item of the ALS Functional Rating Scale - Revised (ALSFRS-R) score prior to commencing therapy with this drug; AND

Patient must not have undergone a tracheostomy; AND

Patient must not have experienced respiratory failure.

The date of diagnosis, the date and results of spirometry (in terms of percent of predicted forced vital capacity or slow vital capacity) must be supplied with the initial authority application.

Prescribers must request a quantity sufficient to cover one month per dispensing, in accordance with the patient's treatment cycle. Prescribers must request a smaller number of units than the listed maximum quantity units if it is adequate for the patient's needs.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Eflornithine

C16841

 

High-risk neuroblastoma

Initial treatment

Patient must have high-risk neuroblastoma according to a validated risk classification system; AND

Patient must be in remission, with at least a partial response, at the end of multiagent, multimodality therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma; AND

The treatment must be initiated after completing previous therapy; AND

Patient must not have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist.

Prior to initiating treatment with this drug, a complete blood count, liver function tests and baseline hearing assessments should be performed and documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information.

The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription).

Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2.

Authority applications for initial treatment must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed PBS authority application form, relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following:

(i) details of prior multiagent, multimodality therapy for high-risk neuroblastoma [date of commencement and duration of therapy]; and

(ii) the patient's BSA measurement.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17735

 

High-risk neuroblastoma

Transitioning from non-PBS to PBS-subsidised supply - Grandfather arrangements

Patient must have received non-PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this PBS indication prior to 1 August 2025; AND

Patient must not have developed disease recurrence while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 27 cycles (based on 4 weeks per cycle) from the first dose of this drug, regardless of whether it was PBS/non-PBS-subsidised.

Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner under the direct supervision of either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist.

At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information.

The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription).

Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17753

 

High-risk neuroblastoma

Continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have developed disease recurrence while receiving treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 27 cycles (based on 4 weeks per cycle) from the first dose of this drug, regardless of whether it was PBS/non-PBS-subsidised.

Must be treated in a hospital/cancer centre by either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist; OR

Must be treated by a medical practitioner under the direct supervision of either a: (i) paediatric oncologist, (ii) haematologist.

At the time of the authority application, the prescriber should request an appropriate quantity and number of repeats based on the patient's Body Surface Area (BSA), according to the dosing schedule in the TGA approved Product Information.

The following maximum quantity units and repeats may be authorised under this restriction (providing 3 months of therapy for each prescription).

Up to a maximum quantity of 100 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.25 m2to less than 0.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 1 repeat for a BSA 0.5 m2to less than 0.75 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 200 units and 2 repeats for a BSA 0.75 m2to 1.5 m2;

Up to a maximum quantity of 300 units and 2 repeats for a BSA greater than 1.5 m2.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Elexacaftor with tezacaftor and with ivacaftor, and ivacaftor

C17770

 

Cystic fibrosis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be 2 to 5 years of age.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17772

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be 2 to 5 years of age.

For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17846

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged between 2 and 11 years inclusive.

For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17937

 

Cystic fibrosis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be at least 6 years of age.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17970

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is considered responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have either chronic sinopulmonary disease or gastrointestinal and nutritional abnormalities, prior to initiating treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be at least 6 years of age.

For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information (PI). Mutations that are not listed in the TGA approved PI but considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor can be accepted with a confirmation that these patients do not harbour two Class I mutations.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor as listed in the TGA approved PI - quote each of the: (i) specific mutation, and if the specific mutation is not listed in the TGA approved PI, confirmation that the patient does not harbour two Class I mutations, (ii) name of the pathology report provider, (iii) date of pathology report, (iv) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17971

 

Cystic fibrosis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a specialist respiratory physician with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation; AND

Must be treated in a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis or in consultation with a centre with expertise in cystic fibrosis if attendance is not possible due to geographic isolation.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) modulator therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged between 2 and 11 years inclusive.

This pharmaceutical benefit is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the strong CYP3A4 inducers outlined in the Product Information.

The authority application must be via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include: current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Eltrombopag

C13327

 

Severe thrombocytopenia
Second or Subsequent Continuing treatment
The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under first continuing or reinitiation of interrupted continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated a continuing response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.
The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14127

 

Severe thrombocytopenia
Balance of supply or change of therapy
The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition; AND
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the First Continuing treatment or Reinitiation of interrupted continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Second or Subsequent Continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must be changing therapy from romiplostim or avatrombopag to this drug for this condition; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment under this restriction.
Patients receiving treatment with romiplostim or avatrombopag may change to eltrombopag under this restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14129

 

Severe thrombocytopenia
First Continuing treatment or Reinitiation of interrupted continuing treatment
The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND
Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment restriction if the patient has not had a treatment break, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; OR
Patient must have changed treatment from either romiplostim or avatrombopag to this drug under the Balance of Supply/Change of therapy restriction and demonstrated a sustained response; OR
Patient must have demonstrated a sustained platelet response to the most recent PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition prior to interrupted treatment, confirmed through a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.
For the purposes of this restriction, a sustained response is defined as the patient having the ability to maintain a platelet count sufficient to prevent clinically significant bleeding based on clinical assessment.
The platelet count must be conducted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent PBSsubsidised course of treatment with this drug and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C15173

 

Severe aplastic anaemia

Continuing treatment - Second line treatment

The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the initial treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug.

Platelet, haemoglobin and neutrophil counts must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Once platelet count is greater than 50 x 109/L, haemoglobin is greater than 100 g/L in the absence of red blood cell (RBC) transfusion, and absolute neutrophil (ANC) is greater than 1 x 109/L for more than 8 weeks, the dose of eltrombopag should be reduced as per the Product Information.

For the purposes of this restriction, a response is defined as no longer meeting the criteria for severe aplastic anaemia.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16455

 

Severe aplastic anaemia

First line treatment

The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND

Patient must not have received treatment with immunosuppressive therapy for this condition; AND

The treatment must be administered in combination with standard immunosuppressive therapy, including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; AND

Patient must be considered ineligible for haemopoietic stem cell transplant; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction in a lifetime.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18209

 

Severe aplastic anaemia

Initial treatment - Second line treatment

The condition must be severe aplastic anaemia; AND

Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to prior immunosuppressive therapy including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; OR

Patient must have relapsed following prior immunosuppressive therapy including anti-thymocyte antibody and ciclosporin; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(a) prior immunosuppressive therapy, including dates of treatment.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18210

 

Severe thrombocytopenia

Initial treatment - New patient

The condition must be severe chronic immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, corticosteroid therapy; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to, or be intolerant to, immunoglobulin therapy; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised thrombopoietin receptor agonist (TRA) for this condition.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to corticosteroid and/or immunoglobulin therapy and must be demonstrated at the time of initial application;

(a) a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 million per L; OR

(b) a platelet count of 20,000 million to 30,000 million per L, where the patient is experiencing significant bleeding or has a history of significant bleeding in this platelet range.

The authority application must be made via the online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment), or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(a) details of a platelet count supporting the diagnosis of ITP.

All reports must be documented in the patient's medical records.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The platelet count must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

Emtricitabine with rilpivirine with tenofovir alafenamide

C4470

 

HIV infection
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4470

 

C4522

 

HIV infection
Initial
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4522

Emtricitabine with tenofovir alafenamide

C4454

 

HIV infection
Continuing
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised therapy for HIV infection; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4454

 

C4512

 

HIV infection
Initial
Patient must be antiretroviral treatment naive; AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4512

Entecavir

C4993

 

Chronic hepatitis B infection
Patient must not have cirrhosis, AND
Patient must have elevated HBV DNA levels greater than 20,000 IU/mL (100,000 copies/mL) if HBeAg positive, in conjunction with documented hepatitis B infection; OR
Patient must have elevated HBV DNA levels greater than 2,000 IU/mL (10,000 copies/mL) if HBeAg negative, in conjunction with documented hepatitis B infection, AND
Patient must have evidence of chronic liver injury determined by confirmed elevated serum ALT or liver biopsy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4993

 

C5036

 

Chronic hepatitis B infection
Patient must have cirrhosis, AND
Patient must have detectable HBV DNA.
Patients with Child’s class B or C cirrhosis (ascites, variceal bleeding, encephalopathy, albumin less than 30 g per L, bilirubin greater than 30 micromoles per L) should have their treatment discussed with a transplant unit prior to initiating therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5036

 

C5037

 

Chronic hepatitis B infection
Patient must have cirrhosis, AND
Patient must have failed lamivudine, AND
Patient must have detectable HBV DNA.
Patients with Child’s class B or C cirrhosis (ascites, variceal bleeding, encephalopathy, albumin less than 30 g per L, bilirubin greater than 30 micromoles per L) should have their treatment discussed with a transplant unit prior to initiating therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5037

 

C5044

 

Chronic hepatitis B infection
Patient must not have cirrhosis, AND
Patient must have failed lamivudine, AND
Patient must have repeatedly elevated serum ALT levels while on concurrent antihepadnaviral therapy of greater than or equal to 6 months duration, in conjunction with documented chronic hepatitis B infection; OR
Patient must have repeatedly elevated HBV DNA levels one log greater than the nadir value or failure to achieve a 1 log reduction in HBV DNA within 3 months whilst on previous antihepadnaviral therapy, except in patients with evidence of poor compliance.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5044

Epoetin Alfa

C6294

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease
Patient must require transfusion; AND
Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND
Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6294

 

C9688

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease
Patient must require transfusion; AND
Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND
Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9688

Epoetin lambda

C6294

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease

Patient must require transfusion; AND

Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND

Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6294

 

C9688

 

Anaemia associated with intrinsic renal disease
Patient must require transfusion; AND
Patient must have a haemoglobin level of less than 100 g per L; AND
Patient must have intrinsic renal disease, as assessed by a nephrologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9688

Epoprostenol

C13491

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Initial 2 (change)
Patient must have documented WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND
Patient must have had their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to requalify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted.
Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13506

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag)
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor; OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBSsubsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; AND
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13577

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with this PAH agent for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18208

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 (new patients)

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

Patient must have WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) approved Product Information.

A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18401

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18802

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 3 - changing the prostanoid agent in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy)

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.

Patient must be undergoing existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing; AND

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

 

C18859

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 2 - starting combination therapy that has a prostanoid in the combination (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of PAH is established through a prior PBS authority application

Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve/maintain WHO functional class II status with at least one of the following: (i) endothelin receptor antagonist monotherapy, (ii) phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor monotherapy, (iii) prostanoid monotherapy, (iv) dual combination therapy with an endothelin receptor antagonist plus a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Esketamine

C16419

P16419

Treatment resistant major depression

Non-induction treatment

The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND

The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND

Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records).

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The listed quantity of 12 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 84 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16422

P16422

Treatment resistant major depression

Induction treatment

The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies.

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The following must apply if reinitiating treatment:

(i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and

(ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and

(iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression.

The listed quantity of 16 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 56 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16454

P16454

Treatment resistant major depression

Induction treatment

The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies.

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The following must apply if reinitiating treatment:

(i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and

(ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and

(iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression.

The listed quantity of 24 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 84 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16460

P16460

Treatment resistant major depression

Non-induction treatment

The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND

The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND

Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records).

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The listed quantity of 4 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 28 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16470

P16470

Treatment resistant major depression

Non-induction treatment

The treatment must be to continue existing PBS-subsidised treatment for this indication; AND

The treatment must not exceed each of: (i) an administered dose beyond 84 mg, (ii) a quantity of drug, after accounting for repeat prescriptions plus different pack sizes where prescribed, that would exceed a quantity sufficient to treat the patient for 24 weeks; AND

Patient must have demonstrated adequate response to treatment with esketamine after the 4-week induction and every 6 months thereafter as evaluated by a structured clinical rating scale (evidence of scores and justification of demonstration of response must be retained in the patient's medical records).

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The listed quantity of 8 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 56 mg per treatment administration in the non-induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C16477

P16477

Treatment resistant major depression

Induction treatment

The condition must have been inadequately responsive to at least two oral anti-depressant drug therapies.

Must be treated by a psychiatrist, where prescribing must also be completed by the treating psychiatrist; AND

Patient must be undergoing supervision at an accredited treatment centre for the administration of esketamine.

The following must apply if reinitiating treatment:

(i) at least four-week gap from last treatment course to reinitiation of treatment; and

(ii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of significant clinical therapeutic benefit of the prior course of treatment with esketamine; and

(iii) evidence, documented in the patient's medical record using a structured rating scale, of a relapse in depression.

The listed quantity of 8 units of nasal spray is intended for a dosage of 28 mg per treatment administration in the induction treatment setting.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Etanercept

C12120

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) - balance of supply

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months) restriction to complete 16 weeks treatment; AND

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 16 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17706

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 12 months)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 2 active major joints; (c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; (d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; (e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Active major joints are defined as: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip.

All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of this application and must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 10 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of active major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of active major joints.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and

(b) the date of the last continuing prescription.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17707

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17707

 

C17713

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Determination of whether a response has been demonstrated to initial and subsequent courses of treatment will be based on the baseline measurement of joint count provided with the initial treatment application.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17713

 

C17724

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated severe intolerance of, or toxicity due to, methotrexate; OR

Patient must have demonstrated failure to achieve an adequate response to 1 or more of the following treatment regimens: (i) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg per square metre weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (ii) oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of 20 mg weekly, alone or in combination with oral or intra-articular corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; (iii) oral methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly together with at least 1 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD), alone or in combination with corticosteroids, for a minimum of 3 months; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be under 18 years of age.

Severe intolerance to methotrexate is defined as intractable nausea and vomiting and general malaise unresponsive to manoeuvres, including reducing or omitting concomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) on the day of methotrexate administration, use of folic acid supplementation, or administering the dose of methotrexate in 2 divided doses over 24 hours.

Toxicity due to methotrexate is defined as evidence of hepatotoxicity with repeated elevations of transaminases, bone marrow suppression temporally related to methotrexate use, pneumonitis, or serious sepsis.

If treatment with methotrexate alone or in combination with another DMARD is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

(a) an active joint count of at least 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) an active joint count of at least 2, affecting the following joints: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least 2 separate episodes of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use within 12 months to control flares of disease; or

(e) development/worsening of erosive disease due to active arthritis.

The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The joint count assessment must be performed preferably whilst still on DMARD treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) the date of assessment of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis; and

(b) details of prior treatment including dose and duration of treatment.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17725

 

Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 12 months)

Must be treated by a paediatric rheumatologist; OR

Patient must be undergoing treatment under the supervision of a paediatric rheumatology treatment centre.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not receive more than 16 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 10 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 2, by at least 50%: elbow, wrist, knee, ankle, shoulder, and hip; or

(c) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting the cervical spine or temporomandibular joint; or

(d) at least a 50% reduction from baseline on the frequency of oral or intra-articular corticosteroids use to control flares of disease associated with active arthritis; or

(e) an improvement from baseline by at least 50% in the signs and symptoms attributable to active arthritis affecting joint(s) with erosive disease.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of authority application, medical practitioners must request the appropriate number of injections to provide sufficient for four weeks of treatment. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

The assessment of the patient's response to the most recent course of biological medicine must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed that most recent course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction.

If a patient fails to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Etravirine

C5014

 

HIV infection
The treatment must be in addition to optimised background therapy, AND
The treatment must be in combination with other antiretroviral agents, AND
Patient must be antiretroviral experienced, AND
Patient must have experienced virological failure or clinical failure or genotypic resistance after each of at least 3 different antiretroviral regimens that have included one drug from at least 3 different antiretroviral classes.
Virological failure is defined as a viral load greater than 400 copies per mL on two consecutive occasions, while clinical failure is linked to emerging signs and symptoms of progressing HIV infection or treatmentlimiting toxicity.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5014

Everolimus

C5554

 

Management of cardiac allograft rejection
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must be receiving this drug for prophylaxis of cardiac allograft rejection, AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5554

 

C5795

 

Management of renal allograft rejection
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must be receiving this drug for prophylaxis of renal allograft rejection, AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5795

 

C9691

 

Management of renal allograft rejection
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must be receiving this drug for prophylaxis of renal allograft rejection; AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9691

 

C9693

 

Management of cardiac allograft rejection
Management (initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy)
Patient must be receiving this drug for prophylaxis of cardiac allograft rejection; AND
The treatment must be under the supervision and direction of a transplant unit.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9693

Filgrastim

C6621

 

Severe chronic neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; OR
Patient must have neutrophil dysfunction; AND
Patient must have experienced a lifethreatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics in the previous 12 months; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6621

 

C6640

 

Chronic cyclical neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 million cells per litre lasting for 3 days per cycle, measured over 3 separate cycles; AND
Patient must have experienced a lifethreatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6640

 

C6653

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a nonmyeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6653

 

C6654

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6654

 

C6655

 

Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation
The treatment must be following marrowablative chemotherapy for nonmyeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6655

 

C6679

 

Assisting bone marrow transplantation
Patient must be receiving marrowablative chemotherapy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6679

 

C6680

 

Severe congenital neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 100 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; AND
Patient must have had a bone marrow examination that has shown evidence of maturational arrest of the neutrophil lineage.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6680

 

C7822

 

Chemotherapyinduced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must be at greater than 20% risk of developing febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must be at substantial risk (greater than 20%) of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7822

 

C7843

 

Chemotherapyinduced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 7843

 

C8667

 

Chemotherapyinduced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must have had a prior episode of febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must have had a prior episode of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8667

 

C8668

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be in a normal volunteer for use in allogeneic transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8668

 

C8669

 

Severe congenital neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 100 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; AND
Patient must have had a bone marrow examination that has shown evidence of maturational arrest of the neutrophil lineage.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8669

 

C8670

 

Severe chronic neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 1,000 million cells per litre measured on 3 occasions, with readings at least 2 weeks apart; OR
Patient must have neutrophil dysfunction; AND
Patient must have experienced a lifethreatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics in the previous 12 months; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8670

 

C8671

 

Assisting bone marrow transplantation
Patient must be receiving marrowablative chemotherapy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8671

 

C8672

 

Mobilisation of peripheral blood progenitor cells
The treatment must be to facilitate harvest of peripheral blood progenitor cells for autologous transplantation into a patient with a nonmyeloid malignancy who has had myeloablative or myelosuppressive therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8672

 

C8673

 

Chronic cyclical neutropenia
Patient must have an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 million cells per litre lasting for 3 days per cycle, measured over 3 separate cycles; AND
Patient must have experienced a lifethreatening infectious episode requiring hospitalisation and treatment with intravenous antibiotics; OR
Patient must have had at least 3 recurrent clinically significant infections in the previous 12 months.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8673

 

C8674

 

Chemotherapyinduced neutropenia
Patient must be receiving chemotherapy with the intention of achieving a cure or a substantial remission; AND
Patient must be at greater than 20% risk of developing febrile neutropenia; OR
Patient must be at substantial risk (greater than 20%) of prolonged severe neutropenia for more than or equal to seven days.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8674

 

C8696

 

Assisting autologous peripheral blood progenitor cell transplantation
The treatment must be following marrowablative chemotherapy for nonmyeloid malignancy prior to the transplantation.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8696

Foslevodopa with foscarbidopa

C16812

P16812

Advanced Parkinson disease

Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR

Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease.

Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16812

 

C16853

P16853

Advanced Parkinson disease

Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR

Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease.

Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy; AND

Patient must require continuous administration of foslevodopa without an overnight break; OR

Patient must require a total daily dose of more than 2,400 mg of foslevodopa.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16853

 

C16883

P16883

Advanced Parkinson disease

Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR

Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease.

Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16883

 

C16972

P16972

Advanced Parkinson disease

Must be treated by a specialist physician; OR

Must be treated by a physician who has consulted a specialist physician with expertise in the management of Parkinson's disease.

Patient must have severe disabling motor fluctuations not adequately controlled by oral therapy; AND

Patient must require continuous administration of foslevodopa without an overnight break; OR

Patient must require a total daily dose of more than 2,400 mg of foslevodopa.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 16972

Ganciclovir

C5000

 

Cytomegalovirus retinitis
Patient must be severely immunocompromised, including due to HIV infection.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 5000

 

C15782

 

Cytomegalovirus infection and disease

Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15782

 

C15784

 

Cytomegalovirus infection and disease

Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15784

 

C15800

 

Cytomegalovirus infection and disease

Patient must be a bone marrow transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15800

 

C15814

 

Cytomegalovirus infection and disease

Patient must be a solid organ transplant recipient at risk of cytomegalovirus disease.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 15814

Glecaprevir with pibrentasvir

C7593

P7593

Chronic hepatitis C infection

Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 8 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C7615

P7615

Chronic hepatitis C infection

Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 12 weeks.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C10268

P10268

Chronic hepatitis C infection
Patient must meet the criteria set out in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C; AND
Patient must be taking this drug as part of a regimen set out in the matrix in the General Statement for Drugs for the Treatment of Hepatitis C, based on the hepatitis C virus genotype, patient treatment history and cirrhotic status; AND
The treatment must be limited to a maximum duration of 16 weeks.
The application must include details of the prior treatment regimen containing an NS5A inhibitor.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Iloprost

C13491

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Initial 2 (change)
Patient must have documented WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND
Patient must have had their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment for this condition with a PAH agent other than this agent; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
Swapping between PAH agents: Patients can access PAH agents through the PBS according to the relevant restrictions. Once these patients are approved initial treatment (monotherapy) with 1 of these 8 drugs, they may swap between PAH agents at any time without having to requalify for treatment with the alternate agent. This means that patients may commence treatment with the alternate agent, subject to that agent's restriction, irrespective of the severity of their disease at the time the application to swap therapy is submitted.
Applications to swap between the 8 PAH agents must be made under the relevant initial treatment (monotherapy) restriction.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13506

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment of combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag)
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor; OR
The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR
The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.
Patient must be undergoing continuing treatment of existing PBSsubsidised combination therapy (dual/triple therapy, excluding selexipag), where this drug in the combination remains unchanged from the previous authority application; AND
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C13577

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Continuing treatment
Patient must have received their most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with this PAH agent for this condition; AND
The treatment must be the sole PBSsubsidised PAH agent for this condition.
Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.
A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.
PAH agents are not PBSsubsidised for patients with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.
The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the TGAapproved Product Information.
A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18294

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 - starting combination therapy (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in an untreated patient

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient with class IV PAH.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18403

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 1 (new patients)

Patient must not have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) agent; AND

Patient must have WHO Functional Class III drug and toxins induced PAH, or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

The treatment must be the sole PBS-subsidised PAH agent for this condition.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

A prior PAH agent is any of: ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan, sildenafil, tadalafil, epoprostenol, iloprost, riociguat.

Applications for authorisation of initial treatment must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System (real time assessment) or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

(1) Confirm that the patient has a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) in line with the following definition:

(a) mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) at least 25 mmHg at rest and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) no greater than 15 mmHg; or

(b) where right heart catheterisation (RHC) cannot be performed on clinical grounds, right ventricular systolic pressure assessed by echocardiography (ECHO) is greater than 40 mmHg, with normal left ventricular function.

(2) Confirm that in forming the diagnosis of PAH, the following tests have been conducted:

- RHC composite assessment; and

- ECHO composite assessment; and

- 6 Minute Walk Test (6MWT)

Where it is not possible to perform all 3 tests on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- RHC plus ECHO composite assessments;

- RHC composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- RHC composite assessment only.

In circumstances where RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds, the expected test combination, in descending order, is:

- ECHO composite assessment plus 6MWT;

- ECHO composite assessment only.

(3) Document the findings of these tests in the patient's medical records, including, where relevant only, the reason/s:

(i) for why fewer than 3 tests are able to be performed on clinical grounds;

(ii) why RHC cannot be performed on clinical grounds - confirm this by obtaining a second opinion from another PAH physician or cardiologist with expertise in the management of PAH; document that this has occurred in the patient's medical records.

(4) Confirm that the test results are of a recency that the PAH physician making this authority application is satisfied that the diagnosis of PAH is current.

(5) Confirm that this authority application is not seeking subsidy for a patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to interstitial lung disease associated with connective tissue disease, where the total lung capacity is less than 70% of predicted.

The test results must not be more than 6 months old at the time of application.

The maximum quantity authorised will be limited to provide sufficient supply for 1 month of treatment, based on the dosage recommendations in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) approved Product Information.

A maximum of 5 repeats may be requested.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18802

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 3 - changing the prostanoid agent in combination therapy (dual or triple therapy)

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid.

Patient must be undergoing existing PBS-subsidised combination therapy with at least this drug in the combination changing; combination therapy is not to commence through this Treatment phase listing; AND

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18859

 

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)

Initial 2 - starting combination therapy that has a prostanoid in the combination (dual or triple therapy, excluding selexipag) in a treated patient where a diagnosis of PAH is established through a prior PBS authority application

Patient must currently have WHO Functional Class III PAH or WHO Functional Class IV PAH; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve/maintain WHO functional class II status with at least one of the following: (i) endothelin receptor antagonist monotherapy, (ii) phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor monotherapy, (iii) prostanoid monotherapy, (iv) dual combination therapy with an endothelin receptor antagonist plus a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; AND

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one prostanoid, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor; OR

The treatment must form part of dual combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one prostanoid; OR

The treatment must form part of triple combination therapy consisting of: (i) one endothelin receptor antagonist, (ii) one phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, (iii) one prostanoid; triple combination therapy is treating a patient in whom monotherapy/dual combination therapy has been inadequate.

Must be treated by a physician with expertise in the management of PAH, with this authority application to be completed by the physician with expertise in PAH.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

Infliximab

C4524

 

Acute severe ulcerative colitis
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology, or general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].
Patient must have received an infusion of infliximab for the treatment of this condition as a hospital inpatient no more than two weeks prior to the date of the authority application; AND
Patient must be an adult aged 18 years or older, and prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital must have been experiencing six or more bloody stools per day, plus at least one of the following: (i) Temperature greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius; (ii) Pulse rate greater than 90 beats per minute; (iii) Haemoglobin less than 105 g/L; (iv) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate greater than 30 mm/h; OR
Patient must be a child aged 6 to 17 years inclusive, and prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital must have had a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) greater than or equal to 65, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist, or a consultant physician as specified below; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 72 hours treatment with intravenous corticosteroids prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital.
Patient must be 6 years of age or older.
For adults aged 18 years or older, failure to achieve an adequate response to intravenous corticosteroid treatment is defined by the Oxford criteria where:
(i) If assessed on day 3, patients pass 8 or more stools per day or 3 or more stools per day with a Creactive protein (CRP) greater than 45 mg/L
(ii) If assessed on day 7, patients pass 3 or more stools per day with visible blood.
For children aged 6 to 17 years, failure to achieve an adequate response to intravenous corticosteroids means a PUCAI score greater than 45 at 72 hours.
At the time of authority application, prescribers should request the appropriate number of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide sufficient for a single infusion at a dose of 5 mg per kg.
Before administering infliximab to a child aged 6 to 17 years, the treating clinician must have consulted with a paediatric gastroenterologist or with an institution experienced in performance of paediatric colectomy. The name of the specialist or institution must be included in the patient’s medical records.
Evidence that the patient meets the PBS restriction criteria must be recorded in the patient’s medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 4524

 

C7777

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease

Balance of supply

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial treatment (new patient or Recommencement of treatment after more than 5 years break in therapy Initial 1) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Change or Recommencement of treatment after a break in therapy of less than 5 years (Initial 2) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 3 doses (Initial 1 or Initial 2 treatment) or 2 repeats (first Continuing or Subsequent Continuing treatment).

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C8296

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Continuing treatment, Whole body or Continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the first continuing treatment, Whole body restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the first continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the subsequent continuing treatment Authority Required (in writing), Whole body restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the subsequent continuing treatment Authority Required (in writing), Face, hand, foot restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate).
Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C8844

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Subsequent continuing treatment, Whole body
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
Determination of response must be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8844

 

C8940

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Subsequent continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or
(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
Determination of response must be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 8940

 

C9068

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Continuing treatment balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the subsequent continuing Authority Required (in writing) treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9111

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 22 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9188

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a Creactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and must be documented in the patient’s medical records.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9188

 

C9472

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a Creactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and
either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and must be documented in the patient’s medical records.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9472

 

C9559

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment Initial 1 (new patient), Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 18 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 18 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 18 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 18 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9584

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Subsequent continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:
(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or
(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
Determination of response must be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9584

 

C9602

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Subsequent continuing treatment, Whole body
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.
Patient must be aged 18 years or older.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
Determination of response must be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9602

 

C9632

 

Acute severe ulcerative colitis
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology, or general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].
Patient must have received an infusion of infliximab for the treatment of this condition as a hospital inpatient no more than two weeks prior to the date of the authority application; AND
Patient must be an adult aged 18 years or older, and prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital must have been experiencing six or more bloody stools per day, plus at least one of the following: (i) Temperature greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius; (ii) Pulse rate greater than 90 beats per minute; (iii) Haemoglobin less than 105 g/L; (iv) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate greater than 30 mm/h; OR
Patient must be a child aged 6 to 17 years inclusive, and prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital must have had a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) greater than or equal to 65, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist, or a consultant physician as specified below; AND
Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 72 hours treatment with intravenous corticosteroids prior to initiation of infliximab treatment in hospital.
Patient must be 6 years of age or older.
For adults aged 18 years or older, failure to achieve an adequate response to intravenous corticosteroid treatment is defined by the Oxford criteria where:
(i) If assessed on day 3, patients pass 8 or more stools per day or 3 or more stools per day with a Creactive protein (CRP) greater than 45 mg/L
(ii) If assessed on day 7, patients pass 3 or more stools per day with visible blood.
For children aged 6 to 17 years, failure to achieve an adequate response to intravenous corticosteroids means a PUCAI score greater than 45 at 72 hours.
At the time of authority application, prescribers should request the appropriate number of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide sufficient for a single infusion at a dose of 5 mg per kg.
Before administering infliximab to a child aged 6 to 17 years, the treating clinician must have consulted with a paediatric gastroenterologist or with an institution experienced in performance of paediatric colectomy. The name of the specialist or institution must be included in the patient’s medical records.
Evidence that the patient meets the PBS restriction criteria must be recorded in the patient’s medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9632

 

C9732

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug.
An adequate response is defined as:
(a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or
(b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
Patients are eligible to receive subsequent continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9732

 

C9754

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis
Balance of supply
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR
Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR
Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 3 doses therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment; OR
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks therapy available under Continuing treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C9787

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR
Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug.
An adequate response is defined as:
(a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or
(b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient.
The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient’s medical notes.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
Patients are eligible to receive subsequent continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9787

 

C11158

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis
Initial treatment Initial 1, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (new patient) or Initial 2, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) or Initial 3, Whole body or Face, hand, foot (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, Whole body (new patient) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2, Whole body (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years ) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3, Whole body (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, Face, hand, foot (new patient) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2, Face, hand, foot (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 22 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.
Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12042

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR

Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years.

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12042

 

C12059

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR

Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years.

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBSsubsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C12074

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Continuing treatment

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR

Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1 while receiving treatment with this drug; OR

Patient must have demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment by having a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 while receiving treatment with this drug, if aged 6 to 17 years.

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Patients who have failed to maintain a partial Mayo clinic score of less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or, patients who have failed to maintain a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score of less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years) with continuing treatment with this drug, will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug.

Patients are only eligible to receive continuing PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 12074

 

C14502

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment Initial 1 (new patient)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must not have received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR
Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGAapproved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR
Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details of the contraindications/severe intolerances; AND
Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGAapproved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be provided at the time of the application, if applicable, and documented in the patient's medical records.
The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity.
The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months.
If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records.
The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:
an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a Creactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either
(a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or
(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to prior treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied must be documented in the patient's medical records. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.
Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.
The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the active joint count, ESR and/or CRP result and date of results;
(b) details of prior treatment, including dose and date/duration of treatment.
(c) If applicable, details of any contraindications/intolerances.
(d) If applicable, the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate.
An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14504

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14504

 

C14505

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14505

 

C14507

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14544

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND
Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND
The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR
The condition must have a Creactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND
The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND
Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.
If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied must be documented in the patient's medical records. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.
Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.
The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:
(a) the active joint count, ESR and/or CRP result and date of result;
(b) the most recent biological agent and the date of the last continuing prescription.
(c) If applicable, the new baseline scores.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14548

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial 1 (new patient) or Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) or Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) balance of supply
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months) restriction to complete 22 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months) to complete 22 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 22 weeks treatment available under the above restrictions.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14585

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14585

 

C14623

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
Initial treatment Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months)
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR
Patient must have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND
Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND
Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Patients who have received PBSsubsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores.
Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.
Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBSsubsidised biological therapy treatmentfree period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14638

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis
First continuing treatment
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR
Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND
The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
An adequate response to treatment is defined as:
an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;
AND either of the following:
(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or
(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:
(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or
(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.
If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBSsubsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.
The date of the most recent treatment course, methotrexate dose, joint count and CRP and/or ESR must be documented in the patient's medical records. These values will be used for patients who transition to subcutaneous form of infliximab.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.
If the requirement for concomitant treatment with methotrexate cannot be met because of a contraindication and/or severe intolerance, details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14638

 

C14667

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of at least 5 years from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND

Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND

Patient must have a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND

Patient must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR

Patient must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR

Patient must have a clinical reason as to why demonstration of an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met and the application must state the reason; AND

Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and

(iii) a baseline ESR and/or CRP level.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14683

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
First continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 010) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBSsubsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14683

 

C14689

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
First continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 010) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBSsubsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14689

 

C14701

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 010) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBSsubsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14701

 

C14705

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Continuing treatment balance of supply
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; OR
Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the subsequent continuing Authority Required (in writing) treatment restriction to complete 24 weeks treatment; AND
The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks treatment.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14707

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Initial treatment Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)
Patient must have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND
Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.
Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.
An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 5 years, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine within the timeframes specified below.
To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.
Where a patient is changing from PBSsubsidised treatment with a biosimilar medicine for this condition, the prescriber must submit baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 010) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBSsubsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.
Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14718

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND

Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

Details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment must be provided at the time of application.

If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the reason a higher dose cannot be used must be provided.

If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details of the contraindication must be provided.

If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the nature and severity of this intolerance must be provided.

All relevant details must be documented in the patient's medical records.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application:

(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and

(b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L.

The baseline BASDAI score and ESR or CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied must be provided at the time of application.

The following must be provided at the time of application:

(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and

(iii) details of the completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form (commencement and finish date); and

(iv) baseline ESR and/or CRP level.

All supporting evidence, including the completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form must be kept in the patient's medical records.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C14723

 

Ankylosing spondylitis
Subsequent continuing treatment
Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR
Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBSsubsidised biological medicine; AND
Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND
Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.
Patient must be at least 18 years of age.
Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR
Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.
An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 010) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:
(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or
(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or
(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.
Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBSsubsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.
The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records and must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of the authority application.
If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.
A patient may retrial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBSsubsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 14723

 

C17097

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Balance of supply for paediatric patient

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1 (new patient) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years) restriction to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR

Patient must have received insufficient therapy with this drug for this condition under the first continuing treatment or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions to complete 24 weeks of treatment; AND

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 14 weeks therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment; OR

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks therapy available under Continuing treatment.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C17111

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Patient must have confirmed diagnosis of Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features including histological evidence; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to 2 of the following 3 conventional prior therapies including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg or 40 mg (whichever is the lesser) prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; (ii) an 8 week course of enteral nutrition; or (iii) immunosuppressive therapy including azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months, or, 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months, or, methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg per square metre weekly for 3 or more months; OR

Patient must have a documented intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal or a contra-indication to each of prednisolone (or equivalent), azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine and methotrexate; AND

Patient must have a Paediatric Crohn Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 preferably whilst still on treatment; OR

Patient must have extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestine as evidenced by radiological imaging; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

For patients assessed as having extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestines, such evidence of intestinal inflammation includes:

(i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or

(ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or

(iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery.

The PCDAI score should preferably be obtained whilst on conventional treatment but must be obtained within one month of the last conventional treatment dose.

If treatment with any of the specified prior conventional drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, please provide details at the time of application.

If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.

Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17112

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

First continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

The application for first continuing treatment with this drug must be accompanied with the assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment. The assessment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete 24 weeks treatment may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for continuing authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the continuing treatment period.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17115

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under an initial treatment restriction, the patient must have been assessed for response to that course following a minimum of 12 weeks therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for infliximab and this assessment must be submitted to Services Australia no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased.

If the response assessment to the previous course of biological medicine treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient will be deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of biological medicine.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17116

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have confirmed diagnosis of Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features including histological evidence; AND

Patient must have a Paediatric Crohn Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) Score greater than or equal to 30; OR

Patient must have a documented history and radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation if the patient has extensive small intestinal disease that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

For patients assessed as having extensive intestinal inflammation of the small intestines, such evidence of intestinal inflammation includes:

(i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or

(ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or

(iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested by telephone and authorised through the Balance of Supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will telephone approvals be granted for initial authority applications, or for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C17117

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Subsequent continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of prescribing.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17117

 

C17120

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Subsequent continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of prescribing.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 17120

 

C17122

 

Moderate to severe Crohn disease

Subsequent continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have both: (i) a total PCDAI score of 30 points or less, and (ii) a reduction in PCDAI score by at least 15 points from baseline value; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must be aged 6 to 17 years inclusive.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The assessment of response must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Each application for subsequent continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of therapy. If the response assessment is not provided at the time of application the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment, unless the patient has experienced serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Patients are only eligible to receive subsequent continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks at a dose of 5 mg per kg per dose providing they continue to sustain the response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

Authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug may be requested through the balance of supply restriction for patients who:

(i) received fewer than 2 repeats at the time of application; and/or

(ii) required changes to their dosing regimen during this treatment phase.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18158

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Subsequent continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; OR

Patient must have received this drug under this treatment phase as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:

(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.

Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18162

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 5 years, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine within the timeframes specified below.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a patient is changing from PBS-subsidised treatment with a biosimilar medicine for this condition, the prescriber must submit baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.

An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:

(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.

Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18164

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis

Subsequent continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and

either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly.

Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug was approved under the first continuing treatment restriction, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18165

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) which must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly plus one of the following: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 6 months of intensive treatment with DMARDs which, if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, must include at least 3 months continuous treatment with at least 2 of the following DMARDs: (i) hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; (ii) leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; (iii) sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; OR

Patient must have failed, in the 24 months immediately prior to the date of the application, to achieve an adequate response to a trial of at least 3 months of continuous treatment with a DMARD where 2 of: (i) hydroxychloroquine, (ii) leflunomide, (iii) sulfasalazine, are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information/cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above in addition to having a contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate: the remaining tolerated DMARD must be trialled at a minimum dose as mentioned above; OR

Patient must have a contraindication/severe intolerance to each of: (i) methotrexate, (ii) hydroxychloroquine, (iii) leflunomide, (iv) sulfasalazine; in such cases, provide details for each of the contraindications/severe intolerances claimed in the authority application; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

If methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved product information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the application must include details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity to methotrexate. The maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate must be documented in the application, if applicable.

The application must include details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances including severity.

The requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs, however the time on treatment must be at least 6 months.

If the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, details of the contraindication or intolerance including severity and dose for each DMARD must be provided in the authority application.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response to DMARD treatment and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour and/or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND either

(a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

The joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy. All measures must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18191

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months; OR

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Where treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application.

Where intolerance to treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine or leflunomide developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.

The following initiation criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated in all patients at the time of the initial application:

an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and

either

(a) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or

(b) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.

An assessment of a patient's response to an initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy. An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18192

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and

either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, first or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18194

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR

The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND

The condition must have either (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than one month old at the time of initial application.

If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response will be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be demonstrated on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker will be used to determine response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, first or subsequent continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18196

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; OR

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine (adalimumab or infliximab) for this condition in this treatment cycle if aged 6 to 17 years; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; OR

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle more than once if aged 6 to 17 years.

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition if relevant; and

(ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly.

Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to change or recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3, or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient who fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug in this treatment cycle. A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the initial 3 treatment restriction.

If patients aged 6 to 17 years fail to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment 3 times (twice with one agent) they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised biological medicine therapy in this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18263

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of at least 5 years from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND

Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND

Patient must have a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; AND

Patient must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR

Patient must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L that is no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application; OR

Patient must have a clinical reason as to why demonstration of an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met and the application must state the reason; AND

Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and

(iii) a baseline ESR and/or CRP level.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18267

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 24 months)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 24 months or more from the most recent PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND

The condition must have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour; OR

The condition must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; AND

The condition must have either: (a) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; (b) at least 4 active major joints; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Major joints are defined as (i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or (ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

All measures of joint count and ESR and/or CRP must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied. Treatment with prednisolone dosed at 7.5 mg or higher daily (or equivalent) or a parenteral steroid within the past month (intramuscular or intravenous methylprednisolone or equivalent) is an acceptable reason.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18285

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease

First continuing treatment

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug.

An adequate response is defined as:

(a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or

(b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient.

Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed Fistula Assessment form including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

The application for first continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment. The assessment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated. This assessment must be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course.

Where a response assessment is not provided within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

A maximum of 24 weeks of treatment with this drug will be authorised under this restriction.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate number of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly.

Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18287

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 2, Face, hand, foot (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:

(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or

(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following:

(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18340

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

The condition must be either radiologically (plain X-ray) confirmed: (i) Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis; (ii) Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of 3 months; AND

Patient must not receive more than 18 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The application must include details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment.

If the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must include the reason a higher dose cannot be used.

If treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the application must provide details of the contraindication.

If intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use which is of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, the application must provide details of the nature and severity of this intolerance.

The following criteria indicate failure to achieve an adequate response and must be demonstrated at the time of the initial application:

(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale; and

(b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L.

The baseline BASDAI score and ESR or CRP level must be determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. All measurements must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of initial application.

If the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application must state the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

The following must be provided at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(i) details (name of the radiology report provider, date of the radiology report and unique identifying number/code that links report to the individual patient) of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

(ii) a baseline BASDAI score; and

(iii) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form included in the supporting information form; and

(iv) baseline ESR and/or CRP level.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18343

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

First continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; OR

Patient must have received this drug in the subcutaneous form as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition under the infliximab subcutaneous form continuing restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

AND either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient has either failed or ceased to respond to a PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition 5 times, they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18345

 

Severe active rheumatoid arthritis

Initial treatment - Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 24 months)

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; OR

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine under the paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis/Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis indication; AND

Patient must not have failed to respond to previous PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must not have already failed/ceased to respond to PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition 5 times; AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Patients who have received PBS-subsided treatment for paediatric Severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis or Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis where the condition has progressed to Rheumatoid arthritis may receive treatment through this restriction using existing baseline scores.

Where a patient is changing from a biosimilar medicine for the treatment of this condition, the prescriber must provide baseline disease severity indicators with this application, in addition to the response assessment outlined below.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

AND either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

An application for a patient who is either changing treatment from another biological medicine to this drug or recommencing therapy with this drug after a treatment break of less than 24 months, must be accompanied with details of the evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine, within the timeframes specified below.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Where the baseline active joint count is based on total active joints (i.e. more than 20 active joints), response must be determined according to the reduction in the total number of active joints. Where the baseline is determined on total number of major joints, the response must be determined on the total number of major joints. If only an ESR or CRP level is provided with the initial application, the same marker must be used to determine response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials to provide sufficient drug, based on the weight of the patient, for a single infusion at a dose of 3 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

A patient who has demonstrated a response to a course of rituximab must have a PBS-subsidised biological therapy treatment-free period of at least 22 weeks, immediately following the second infusion, before swapping to an alternate biological medicine.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18352

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 3, Face, hand, foot (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must be classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18355

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Initial treatment - Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have had a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6 if an adult patient; OR

Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score); OR

Patient must have a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 if aged 6 to 17 years; OR

Patient must have previously received induction therapy with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or a PUCAI score less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years).

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed Ulcerative Colitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) the details of prior biological medicine treatment including the details of date and duration of treatment.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, or to be administered at 8-weekly intervals for patients who have received prior treatment for an acute severe episode, will be authorised.

All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment.

The most recent Mayo clinic, partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Where treatment for an acute severe episode has occurred, an adequate response to induction therapy needs to be demonstrated by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic score less than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, or a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score less than 10 (if aged 6 to 17 years), within the first 12 weeks of receiving this drug for acute severe ulcerative colitis.

A partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment, within the timeframes specified below.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, Initial 3 or continuing treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

The assessment of the patient's response to the initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment and no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course. If the response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment in this treatment cycle.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18389

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease

Subsequent continuing treatment

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].

An adequate response is defined as:

(a) a decrease from baseline in the number of open draining fistulae of greater than or equal to 50%; and/or

(b) a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline, together with less pain and induration as reported by the patient.

Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription; and

(b) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed Fistula Assessment form including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Each application for subsequent continuing treatment with this drug must include an assessment of the patient's response to the prior course of therapy. If the response assessment is not provided at the time of application the patient will be deemed to have failed this course of treatment, unless the patient has experienced serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18391

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Subsequent continuing treatment, Whole body

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18431

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Subsequent continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition under the First continuing treatment restriction; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment per subsequent continuing treatment course authorised under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:

(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or

(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.

The PASI assessment for continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18434

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease

Initial treatment (new patient or Recommencement of treatment after more than 5 years break in therapy - Initial 1)

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].

Patient must have confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND

Patient must have an externally draining enterocutaneous or rectovaginal fistula.

Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

a completed current Fistula Assessment Form including the date of assessment of the patient's condition.

The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

An assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (up to 6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of this initial course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18436

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 1, Whole body (new patient)

Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application.

Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.

Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met.

The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application:

(a) A current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

(b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment.

(c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following:

(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy].

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18437

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

First continuing treatment, Face, hand, foot

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological treatment showing:

(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values; or

(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.

The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area assessed at baseline.

It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18439

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 1, Face, hand, foot (new patient)

Patient must have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; AND

Patient must not have received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 2 of the following 6 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; (iii) ciclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; (v) apremilast at a dose of 30 mg twice a day for at least 6 weeks; (vi) deucravacitinib at a dose of 6 mg once daily for at least 6 weeks; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

Where treatment with methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, or where phototherapy is contraindicated, details must be provided at the time of application.

Where intolerance to treatment with phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib or acitretin developed during the relevant period of use, which was of a severity to necessitate permanent treatment withdrawal, details of the degree of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.

Regardless of if a patient has a contraindication to treatment with either methotrexate, ciclosporin, apremilast, deucravacitinib, acitretin or phototherapy, the patient is still required to trial 2 of these prior therapies until a failure to achieve an adequate response is met.

The following criterion indicates failure to achieve an adequate response to prior treatment and must be demonstrated in the patient at the time of the application:

(a) Chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot where:

(i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or

(ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

(b) A PASI assessment must be completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of each course of treatment.

(c) The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following:

(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets, and the face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy [dosage (where applicable), date of commencement and duration of therapy].

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

The PASI assessment for first continuing or subsequent continuing treatment must be performed on the same affected area as assessed at baseline.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18441

 

Severe psoriatic arthritis

First continuing treatment

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis.

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and

either of the following:

(a) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or

(b) a reduction in the number of the following major active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

(i) elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender); and/or

(ii) shoulder and/or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth).

The same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment with each initial treatment application must be used to determine response for all subsequent continuing treatments.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly.

Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed Severe Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug was approved under either Initial 1, Initial 2, or Initial 3 treatment restrictions, an assessment of a patient's response must have been conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with this drug and submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where the response assessment is not submitted within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18462

 

Ankylosing spondylitis

First continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a rheumatologist; OR

Must be treated by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of ankylosing spondylitis.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

An adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 units (on a scale of 0-10) in the BASDAI score combined with at least 1 of the following:

(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline.

Where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker must be measured and used to assess all future responses to treatment.

The assessment of response to treatment must be documented in the patient's medical records.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg.

Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

An application for the continuing treatment must be accompanied with the assessment of response conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of treatment. This will enable ongoing treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within these timeframes, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18466

 

Complex refractory Fistulising Crohn disease

Change or Recommencement of treatment after a break in therapy of less than 5 years (Initial 2)

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)].

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have failed PBS-subsidised therapy with this drug for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle.

Applications for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed Fistulising Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

a completed current Fistula Assessment Form including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and

details of prior biological medicine treatment including details of date and duration of treatment.

The most recent fistula assessment must be no more than 1 month old at the time of application.

Where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment was approved under an initial treatment restriction, the patient must have been assessed for response to that course following a minimum of 12 weeks therapy for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for infliximab and this assessment must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied by the results of the most recent course of biological medicine therapy within the timeframes specified in the relevant restriction.

If the response assessment to the previous course of biological medicine treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient will be deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of biological medicine.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

An assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (up to 6 weeks following the third dose) so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

This assessment, which will be used to determine eligibility for the first continuing treatment, must be submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of this initial course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not provided within this timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18468

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 2, Whole body (change or re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of less than 5 years)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological medicines for this condition within this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must not have already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition during the current treatment cycle; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

An application for a patient who has received PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug and who wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, must be accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug, within the timeframes specified below.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the following:

(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) details of prior biological treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18469

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

Initial treatment - Initial 3, Whole body (re-commencement of treatment after a break in biological medicine of more than 5 years)

Patient must have previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological medicine for this condition; AND

Patient must have a break in treatment of 5 years or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised biological medicine for this condition; AND

The condition must have a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 22 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg. Up to a maximum of 3 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice) which includes the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient's condition.

To demonstrate a response to treatment the application must be accompanied with the assessment of response, conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks from cessation of the most recent course of biological medicine. It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment be submitted no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure treatment continuity for those who meet the continuing restriction.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18470

 

Severe chronic plaque psoriasis

First continuing treatment, Whole body

Patient must have received this drug as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological medicine treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with this drug; AND

The treatment must be as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate); AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction.

Patient must be aged 18 years or older.

Must be treated by a dermatologist.

An adequate response to treatment is defined as:

A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this treatment cycle.

At the time of the authority application, medical practitioners should request the appropriate quantity of vials, based on the weight of the patient, to provide for infusions at a dose of 5 mg per kg eight weekly. Up to a maximum of 2 repeats will be authorised.

The authority application must be made in writing and must include:

(a) details of the proposed prescription(s); and

(b) a completed Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient's condition.

The most recent PASI assessment must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

Approval will be based on the PASI assessment of response to the most recent course of treatment with this drug.

It is recommended that an application for the continuing treatment is submitted to the Department of Human Services no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the most recent course of treatment. This is to ensure continuity of treatment for those who meet the continuing restriction for PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug under this restriction they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised biological medicine was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18502

 

Moderate to severe ulcerative colitis

Initial treatment - Initial 1 (new patient)

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist (code 87); OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 81)]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology (code 82)]; OR

Must be treated by a paediatrician; OR

Must be treated by a specialist paediatric gastroenterologist.

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation in a standard dose for induction of remission for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; AND

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more consecutive months or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal; OR

Patient must have failed to achieve an adequate response to a tapered course of oral steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg (for a child, 1 to 2 mg/kg up to 40 mg) prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period or have intolerance necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, and followed by a failure to achieve an adequate response to 3 or more consecutive months of treatment of an appropriately dosed thiopurine agent; AND

Patient must have a Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6 if an adult patient; OR

Patient must have a partial Mayo clinic score greater than or equal to 6, provided the rectal bleeding and stool frequency subscores are both greater than or equal to 2 (endoscopy subscore is not required for a partial Mayo clinic score); OR

Patient must have a Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) Score greater than or equal to 30 if aged 6 to 17 years.

Patient must be 6 years of age or older.

Application for authorisation must be made in writing and must include:

(1) details of the proposed prescription; and

(2) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice), which includes the following:

(i) the completed current Mayo clinic or partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient's condition; and

(ii) details of prior systemic drug therapy [dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy].

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, or to be administered at 8-weekly intervals for patients who have received prior treatment for an acute severe episode, will be authorised.

All tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 4 weeks following cessation of the most recent prior conventional treatment.

The most recent Mayo clinic, partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score must be no more than 4 weeks old at the time of application.

An adult patient who has previously received induction therapy with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months, and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a partial Mayo clinic scoreless than or equal to 2, with no subscore greater than 1, will not be required to demonstrate failure to prior treatment with a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation and one of azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine or oral steroids.

A patient, aged 6 to 17 years, who has previously received induction therapy with PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for an acute severe episode of ulcerative colitis in the last 4 months, and demonstrated an adequate response to induction therapy by achieving and maintaining a PUCAI score of less than 10 will not be required to demonstrate failure to prior treatment with a 5-aminosalicylate oral preparation and one of azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine or oral steroids.

A partial Mayo clinic or Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) assessment of the patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment for adalimumab and up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose) for golimumab, infliximab and vedolizumab so that there is adequate time for a response to be demonstrated.

If treatment with any of the above-mentioned drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, details must be provided at the time of application.

An assessment of a patient's response to this initial course of treatment must be conducted following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy and no later than 4 weeks prior the completion of this course of treatment.

Where a response assessment is not conducted within the required timeframe, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with this drug, unless the patient has experienced a serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment.

If a patient fails to demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

Details of the accepted toxicities including severity can be found on the Services Australia website.

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C18774

 

Severe Crohn disease

Initial 1 (new patient)

Patient must have confirmed severe Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND

Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; AND

Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to prior treatment with a thiopurine at a clinically optimised dose for 3 or more consecutive months; OR

Patient must not have achieved an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more consecutive months; AND

Patient must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 300 as evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy; OR

Patient must have short gut syndrome with diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence, or have had an ileostomy or colostomy; and must have evidence of intestinal inflammation; and must have evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy as specified below; OR

Patient must have extensive intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine as evidenced by radiological imaging; and must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and must have evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior systemic therapy as specified below; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) details of prior systemic drug therapy [dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy]; and

(b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criteria; and

(c) if applicable, details of intestinal inflammation marker/s; and

(d) if applicable, the CDAI score and the date of assessment; and

(e) the date of the most recent clinical assessment.

Evidence of not achieving an adequate response to prior therapy must include at least one of the following:

(a) patient must have evidence of intestinal inflammation;

(b) patient must be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state;

(c) patient must be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of this drug, if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or is an ostomy patient.

Evidence of intestinal inflammation includes:

(i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or

(ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or

(iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery.

If treatment with any of the specified prior conventional drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant contraindications or precautions in the TGA-approved Product Information, please provide details at the time of application. Patients must attempt to trial alternate conventional therapies that are not contraindicated.

If intolerance to treatment develops during the relevant period of use, which is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, details of this toxicity must be provided at the time of application.

A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure.

Any one of the baseline criteria may be used to determine response to an initial course of treatment and eligibility for continued therapy, according to the criteria included in the continuing treatment restriction. However, the same criterion must be used for any subsequent determination of response to treatment, for the purpose of eligibility for continuing PBS-subsidised therapy.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18775

 

Severe Crohn disease

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) if applicable, current CDAI score and the date of assessment; and

(b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) or details of intestinal inflammation marker/s used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and

(c) the date of the most recent clinical assessment.

A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure.

Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered every 8 weeks will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete 24 weeks treatment may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the continuing treatment period.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

 

C18776

 

Severe Crohn disease

Balance of supply

Patient must have received insufficient treatment with this drug for this condition under the Initial 1, 2 or 3 restrictions to complete the 3 doses (the initial infusion regimen at 0, 2 and 6 weeks); OR

Patient must have received insufficient treatment with this drug for this condition under the Continuing restriction to complete 24 weeks of treatment (8-weekly infusion regimen); AND

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 14 weeks therapy available under Initial 1, 2 or 3 treatment; OR

The treatment must provide no more than the balance of up to 24 weeks therapy available under Continuing treatment.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18819

 

Severe Crohn disease

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

A maximum quantity to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose will be authorised.

Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.

If a patient does not demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 18819

 

C18849

 

Severe Crohn disease

Initial 3 (recommencement of treatment after a break in targeted therapy of more than 12 months)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have had a break in treatment of 12 months or more from the most recently approved PBS-subsidised targeted therapy for this condition; AND

Patient must have confirmed severe Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician; AND

Patient must have a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score of greater than or equal to 300 while off treatment with targeted therapy; OR

Patient must have a documented history of intestinal inflammation and have diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence of short gut syndrome if affected by the syndrome or has an ileostomy or colostomy; and evidence of flared disease while off treatment with targeted therapy; OR

Patient must have a documented history and radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation if the patient has extensive small intestinal disease affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine, together with a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and evidence of flared disease while off treatment with targeted therapy; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) if applicable, current CDAI score and the date of assessment; and

(b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) or details of intestinal inflammation marker/s used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and

(c) the date of the most recent clinical assessment.

Evidence of flared disease must include at least one of the following:

(a) patient must have evidence of intestinal inflammation;

(b) patient must be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state;

(c) patient must be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of this drug, if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or is an ostomy patient.

Evidence of intestinal inflammation includes:

(i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; or

(ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or

(iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

Any one of the baseline criteria may be used to determine response to an initial course of treatment and eligibility for continued therapy, according to the criteria included in the continuing treatment restriction. However, the same criterion must be used for any subsequent determination of response to treatment, for the purpose of eligibility for continuing PBS-subsidised therapy.

A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18866

 

Severe Crohn disease

Initial 2 (change or recommencement of treatment after a break in targeted therapy of less than 12 months)

Patient must have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition in this treatment cycle; OR

Patient must have been eligible for prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition in this treatment cycle; AND

Patient must have either: (i) not previously received this drug for this condition in the current treatment cycle, (ii) previously received this drug and demonstrated/maintained an adequate clinical response; AND

The treatment must not exceed a total of 3 doses to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6 under this restriction.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The following information must be provided by the prescriber at the time of application and documented in the patient's medical records:

(a) if applicable, the CDAI score and the date of assessment; and

(b) if applicable, details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy; and

(c) if applicable, the date of the most recent clinical assessment; and

(d) details of the most recent targeted therapy in the current treatment cycle, including the date and duration of treatment.

If a patient was eligible for prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a targeted therapy for this condition but did not receive PBS-subsidised treatment at the time, the application must provide a declaration that the patient met all 'Initial 1' eligibility requirements when targeted therapy treatment commenced. The following information must also be provided at the time of application:

(a) the baseline CDAI score and the date of assessment; and/or

(b) details (date, unique identifying number/code or provider number) of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy for patients with short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine disease or an ostomy.

A patient who does not demonstrate a response to treatment will not be eligible for further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within the same treatment cycle. The patient will be considered not to have responded to treatment if a response assessment is not completed. A serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

A maximum quantity and number of repeats to provide for an initial course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose to be administered at weeks 0, 2 and 6, will be authorised.

If fewer than 2 repeats are requested at the time of the application, authority approvals for sufficient repeats to complete the 3 doses of this drug may be requested through the Balance of supply treatment phase PBS restriction. Under no circumstances will approvals be granted for treatment that would otherwise extend the initial treatment period.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures

 

C18868

 

Severe Crohn disease

Continuing treatment

Patient must have received this drug (in any form) as their most recent course of PBS-subsidised targeted therapy treatment for this condition; AND

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150 if assessed by CDAI or if affected by extensive small intestine disease; OR

Patient must have an adequate response to this drug defined as (a) an improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) level no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN), if affected by short gut syndrome, extensive small intestine or is an ostomy patient; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application.

Must be treated by a gastroenterologist; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [internal medicine specialising in gastroenterology]; OR

Must be treated by a consultant physician [general medicine specialising in gastroenterology].

Patient must be at least 18 years of age.

The measurement of response to the prior course of therapy must be documented in the patient's medical notes.

A maximum quantity to provide for each continuing course of this drug consisting of 3 doses at 5 mg per kg body weight per dose will be authorised.

Patients are eligible to receive continuing treatment with this drug in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain a response.

If a patient does not demonstrate a response to treatment with this drug they will not be eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for this condition within this treatment cycle. Serious adverse reaction of a severity resulting in the necessity for permanent withdrawal of treatment is not considered as a treatment failure.

A patient may re-trial this drug after a minimum of 12 months have elapsed between the date the last prescription for a PBS-subsidised targeted therapy was approved in this cycle and the date of the first application under a new cycle under the Initial 3 treatment restriction.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures - Streamlined Authority Code 18868

Interferon Gamma1b

C6222

 

Chronic granulomatous disease
Patient must have frequent and severe infections despite adequate prophylaxis with antimicrobial agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 6222

 

C9639

 

Chronic granulomatous disease
Patient must have frequent and severe infections despite adequate prophylaxis with antimicrobial agents.

Compliance with Authority Required procedures Streamlined Authority Code 9639

Ivacaftor

C16844

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment - New patient (non-gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is responsive to ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND

Patient must not have either: (i) G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene; (ii) other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 4 months or older.

For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to ivacaftor as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information. Quote each of the: (a) the specific mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C16845

 

Cystic fibrosis

Continuing treatment (non-gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised initial therapy with ivacaftor, given concomitantly with standard therapy, for this condition; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 4 months or older.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C16876

 

Cystic fibrosis

Continuing treatment (gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have received PBS-subsidised initial therapy with ivacaftor, given concomitantly with standard therapy, for this condition; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction per authority application; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 4 months or older.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C16878

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment - New patient (gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on at least 1 allele; OR

Patient must have other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene on at least 1 allele; AND

Patient must not receive more than 24 weeks of treatment under this restriction; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 4 months or older.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating G551D mutation or other gating (Class III) mutation on the CFTR gene - quote each of the: (a) the specific CFTR mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C16928

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment - New patient (gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on at least 1 allele; OR

Patient must have other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene on at least 1 allele; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 1 month or older.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating G551D mutation or other gating (Class III) mutation on the CFTR gene - quote each of the: (a) the specific CFTR mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

C16971

 

Cystic fibrosis

Initial treatment - New patient (non-gating mutations)

Patient must be assessed through a cystic fibrosis clinic/centre which is under the control of specialist respiratory physicians with experience and expertise in the management of cystic fibrosis. If attendance at such a unit is not possible because of geographical isolation, management (including prescribing) may be in consultation with such a unit; AND

Patient must have at least one mutation in the CFTR gene that is responsive to ivacaftor potentiation based on clinical and/or in vitro assay data; AND

Patient must not have either: (i) G551D mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene; (ii) other gating (class III) mutation in the CFTR gene; AND

The treatment must be given concomitantly with standard therapy for this condition.

Patient must be aged 1 month or older.

For the purposes of this restriction, the list of mutations considered to be responsive to ivacaftor is defined in the TGA approved Product Information.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet twice a week, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following strong CYP3A4 drugs inhibitors: boceprevir, clarithromycin, conivaptan, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lopinavir/ritonavir, mibefradil, nefazodone, nelfinavir, posaconazole, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, telithromycin, voriconazole. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 28 weeks.

Dosage of ivacaftor must not exceed the dose of one tablet (150 mg) or one sachet once daily, if the patient is concomitantly receiving one of the following moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors: amprenavir, aprepitant, atazanavir, darunavir/ritonavir, diltiazem, erythromycin, fluconazole, fosamprenavir, imatinib, verapamil. Where a patient is concomitantly receiving a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor, a single supply of 56 tablets or sachets of ivacaftor will last for 8 weeks.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition as a sole therapy.

Ivacaftor is not PBS-subsidised for this condition in a patient who is currently receiving one of the following CYP3A4 inducers:

Strong CYP3A4 inducers: avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifabutin, rifampicin, St. John's wort

Moderate CYP3A4 inducers: bosentan, efavirenz, etravirine, modafinil, nafcillin

Weak CYP3A4 inducers: armodafinil, echinacea, pioglitazone, rufinamide.

The authority application must be made via the Online PBS Authorities System, or in writing via HPOS form upload or mail and must include:

(1) details of the pathology report substantiating the specific mutation considered to be responsive to ivacaftor as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information. Quote each of the: (a) the specific mutation listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, (b) name of the pathology report provider, (c) date of pathology report, (d) unique identifying number/code that links the pathology result to the individual patient; and

(2) current CYP3A4 inhibitors, CYP3A4 inducers and IV antibiotics.

If the application is submitted through HPOS form upload or mail, it must include:

(i) details of the proposed prescription; and

(ii) a completed authority application form relevant to the indication and treatment phase (the latest version is located on the website specified in the Administrative Advice).

Compliance with Written Authority Required procedures

 

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Sourced from the Federal Register of Legislation at 26 August 2026. For the latest information on Australian Government law please go to https://www.legislation.gov.au.