National Health Act 1953 - Declaration under subsections 85(2) and 85(2AA) - Determinations under subsection 85(2A) (No. PB 88 of 2007)

Administered by Department of Health, Disability and Ageing

Legislation au F2007L04360 Not in force Legislative Instrument

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Declaration and Determination  drugs and medicinal preparations (PB 88 of 2007)

as amended

made under subsections 85(2), 85(2A) and 85(2AA) of the

National Health Act 1953

This compilation was prepared on 1 July 2008
taking into account amendments up to PB 59 of 2008

Prepared by the Office of Legislative Drafting and Publishing,
AttorneyGenerals Department, Canberra

 

Declaration and determination  drugs and medicinal preparations
(PB 88 of 2007

Commencement [see Note 1]

1. This instrument commences on 1 December 2007.

Repeal

2. Instrument number PB 48 of 2007 is repealed.

Definitions

3. In this instrument:

“Act” means the National Health Act 1953;

“electronic communication” has the meaning given by subsection 5(1) of the Electronic Transactions Act 1999;

“extemporaneouslyprepared pharmaceutical benefit” means a pharmaceutical benefit other than a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit;

“Medicare Australia CEO” means the Chief Executive Officer of Medicare Australia;

“PBS” means Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme;

“palliative care patient”, in relation to a circumstance specified in Schedule 1A, means a patient with an active, progressive, faradvanced disease, and for whom the prognosis is limited and the focus of care is the quality of life;

“readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit” means a pharmaceutical item in respect of which there is in force a determination under subsection 85(6) of the Act;

“Regulations” means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) Regulations 1960.

Drugs and medicinal preparations to which Part VII applies

4. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 1 or 1A and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by a medical practitioner.

4A. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 2 and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 2 of Schedule 2 opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by a participating dental practitioner.

4B. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 2A and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 2 of Schedule 2A opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by an authorised optometrist.

5. A medicinal preparation composed of a compound that includes a drug or medicinal preparation the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 3, other than a compound the name of which is specified in column 2 of that Schedule opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation, is not a medicinal preparation to which Part VII of the Act applies, unless the name of that drug or medicinal preparation is also specified in Schedule 4, in which case the provisions of paragraphs 7 and 8 apply.

6. Part VII of the Act does not apply in relation to a drug or medicinal preparation composed of a compound that includes a readyprepared pharmaceutical benefit, other than Sodium Chloride injection or a pharmaceutical benefit, the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 3.

7. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to medicinal preparations composed of one or more of the drugs or medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 4.

8. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to medicinal preparations composed of one or more of the drugs or medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 4 with the addition of one or more of the substances the names of which are specified in Schedule 5.

9. The substances the names of which are specified in Schedule 5 are additives for the purposes of paragraph 85(2)(b) of the Act.

10. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in Schedule 6.

11. The drugs and medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 6 are additional pharmaceutical benefits made available under arrangements provided for by section 100 of the Act.

Circumstances

12. Where circumstances are specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 for a listed drug specified in column 1 of any of those Schedules, a pharmaceutical benefit that has the listed drug (in the form if any mentioned in column 3 or 2 respectively) is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.

13. Where circumstances are specified in column 2 of Schedule 4 for a drug or medicinal preparation specified in column 1 of that Schedule, an extemporaneously prepared pharmaceutical benefit that contains the drug or medicinal preparation as an ingredient is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.

14. Subject to paragraph 16, the following circumstances are determined in relation to each relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act:

(a) where a class of persons is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of a person included in that class of persons;

(b) where a disease or condition is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4

(i) if subsubparagraph (ii) does not apply — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of that disease or condition in relation to any person; or

(ii) if the disease or condition is specified in relation to a specified class of persons — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of that disease or condition in a person included in that class of persons;

(c) where a purpose is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for that purpose;

(d) where it is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A (in respect of medical practitioners), or in column 2 of Schedule 2A (in respect of authorised optometrists), that compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14(d) is required — that a medical practitioner or authorised optometrist has submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit:

(i) by delivering or posting to the Medicare Australia CEO the prescription prepared and signed by the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist:

(A) in a form approved by the Secretary and completed by the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist in ink in his or her own handwriting; or

(B) in a form, prepared by means of a computer, that is in accordance with the form approved by the Secretary under subsubsubparagraph (A); or

(C) in a form, prepared by means of a computer, approved in writing for the purpose by the Secretary and in the format approved in writing by the Secretary; or

(D) by a method approved in writing by the Secretary; or

(ii) by submitting the prescription by giving the Medicare Australia CEO, by telephone, details of the prescription which has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist in accordance with subsubparagraph (i); or

(iii) where the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist has attempted to obtain an authorisation by submitting details of the prescription to the Medicare Australia CEO in accordance with subsubparagraph (ii) but has been unable to do so because of a failure or other form of unavailability in the telephone system established by the Medicare Australia CEO for the provision of such authorisations, by submitting the prescription in accordance with the instructions stipulated in an emergency telephone message provided to the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist by the Medicare Australia CEO; or

(iv) by submitting the prescription by giving the Medicare Australia CEO, by means of an electronic communication of a kind approved in writing by the Medicare Australia CEO, details of the prescription which has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner in accordance with subsubparagraph (i).

14A. For the purposes of subsubparagraph 14(d)(i), a prescription that has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist in accordance with that subparagraph is taken to have been submitted by him or her if it is submitted by one of his or her employees.

15. Subject to paragraph 15B, the authorisation of a prescription submitted under subparagraph 14(d) may be made:

(a) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(i) — by the Medicare Australia CEO signing his or her authorisation of the prescription on it and:

(i) if the Medicare Australia CEO requires the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist to alter the prescription — by returning it to the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist for alteration before the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist gives it to the person in respect of whom it was prepared; or

(ii) in any other case:

(A) by returning it to the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist; or

(B) by sending it to the person in respect of whom it was prepared; or

(b) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(ii) — orally, at the time the Medicare Australia CEO is given details of the prescription; or

(c) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(iv) — by the Medicare Australia CEO sending his or her authorisation, by electronic communication, to the medical practitioner.

15A. If the Medicare Australia CEO authorises a prescription in accordance with subparagraph 15(b) or (c):

(a) the Medicare Australia CEO must tell the medical practitioner, orally or by electronic communication, the number that has been allotted to the authorised prescription; or in the case of an authorised optometrist, must tell the optometrist orally the number that has been allotted to the authorised prescription; and

(b) the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist must:

(i) mark that number on the prescription; and

(ii) retain a copy of the prescription for 1 year from the date on which the prescription was authorised.

15B. Notwithstanding paragraph 15, if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(iii), authorisation shall be deemed to have been granted upon completion by the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist of the prescription in accordance with the instructions stipulated in the emergency telephone message provided to the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist by the Medicare Australia CEO.

15C. If a medical practitioner has written on a prescription, that has been prepared and signed in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(i), the streamlined authority code mentioned in Schedule 1 for a pharmaceutical benefit and circumstances:

(a) subparagraph 14(d) is taken to have been complied with; and

(b) the Medicare Australia CEO is taken to have authorised the prescription.

15D. Paragraph 15C applies to a prescription only if there is a streamlined authority code for the pharmaceutical benefit and circumstances in Schedule 1.

16. Where the circumstances "For use in accordance with paragraph 16" are specified in column 3 of Schedule 1, the circumstances specified for the purpose of subparagraph 14(c) are:

(a) that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy, of a patient identified as being in one of the following very high risk categories:

(i) coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic;

(ii) cerebrovascular disease which has become symptomatic;

(iii) peripheral vascular disease which has become symptomatic;

(iv) diabetes mellitus with microalbuminuria (defined as urinary albumin excretion rate of greater than 20 micrograms per minute, or urinary albumin to creatinine ratio of greater than 2.5 for males or greater than 3.5 for females);

(v) diabetes mellitus in Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander patients;

(vi) diabetes mellitus in patients aged 60 years or more;

(vii) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 55 years in two or more first degree relatives;

(viii) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 45 years in one or more first degree relatives; or

(b) if subparagraph 16(a) does not apply — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy, of a patient who, after at least 6 weeks of dietary therapy, qualifies for the supply of the benefit in accordance with the following table:

Category of patient

Fasting lipid level

Patients with diabetes mellitus not otherwise included

total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander patients;

Patients with hypertension

total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L;

or

total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L and high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L

Patients with high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L

total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L

Patients with familial hypercholesterolaemia identified by:

 (1) DNA mutation; or

 (2) tendon xanthomas in the patient or their first or second degree relative

 

Patients with:

 (1) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 60 years in one or more first degree relatives; or

 (2) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 50 years in one or more second degree relatives

If aged 18 years or less at treatment initiation:

low density lipoprotein cholesterol greater than 4 mmol per L

 

If aged more than 18 years at treatment initiation:

low density lipoprotein cholesterol greater than 5 mmol per L;

or

total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L;

or

total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L and high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L

Patients not eligible under the above:

 (1) men over 34 but less than 76 years of age; or

 (2) postmenopausal women less than 76 years of age

total cholesterol greater than 7.5 mmol per L;

or

triglyceride greater than 4 mmol per L

Patients not otherwise included

total cholesterol greater than 9 mmol per L;

or

triglyceride greater than 8 mmol per L

Abciximab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1716

 Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary balloon angioplasty

 

1717

 Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary atherectomy

 

1718

 Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary stent placement

Acamprosate

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2665

 For use within a comprehensive treatment program for alcohol dependence with the goal of maintaining abstinence

Acarbose

 

Acetazolamide

 

Acetylcysteine

 

Bronchiectasis

 

 

Cystic fibrosis

Aciclovir

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Moderate to severe initial genital herpes

 

 

Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

In respect of the tablet 800 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash

 

 

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

 

 

Patients with advanced human immunodeficiency virus disease (CD4 cell counts of less than 150 million per L)

 

 

In respect of the eye ointment 30 mg per g, 4.5 g:

Herpes simplex keratitis

Acitretin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1366

 Severe intractable psoriasis

 

1363

 Severe forms of disorders of keratinisation

Adalimumab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) have not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly, have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate (at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly) in combination with 2 other non-biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) for a minimum of 3 months, and have failed to achieve an adequate response following a minimum of 3 months treatment with leflunomide alone or with leflunomide in combination with methotrexate or with cyclosporin alone, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 non-biological DMARD, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 months; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (c) above is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L, and either a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints, or at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

all tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (c) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (c) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the patients ESR and CRP measurements, and an assessment of the patients active joint count, conducted no earlier than 1 month prior to the date of application, and a signed patient acknowledgment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab during this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD Treatment Cycle with that therapy;

 

 

patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 bDMARDs within this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

patients who have previously commenced, and subsequently ceased, PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab within this bDMARD Treatment Cycle are eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle provided that:

 

 

(i) they have demonstrated an adequate response, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment; and

 

 

(ii) the response was assessed, and the assessment was provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the date that course ceased; and

 

 

(iii) the response was assessed following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment was a 16-week initial treatment course; and

 

 

(iv) response to treatment was determined using the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment;

 

 

patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with adalimumab are not eligible to commence treatment with adalimumab until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and, in the case of patients recommencing therapy with adalimumab in this Treatment Cycle, evidence of the patients response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab therapy;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment with adalimumab within an ongoing biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults:

 

 

(a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and

 

 

(c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment in this bDMARD Treatment Cycle was with adalimumab; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply

 

 

patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

an adequate response to treatment is defined as an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and either a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints, or a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment are used to determine response;

 

 

a patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course of treatment ceased; and

 

 

(b) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab, where response is assessed, and this assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course;

 

 

if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy was a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course;

 

 

the patient has not failed to demonstrate response to a course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab in this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) have not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(3) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months and to either sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with methotrexate or sulfasalazine or leflunomide, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 months; and

 

 

(4) have had the psoriatic component of their disease confirmed by a dermatologist or by biopsy at any time; and

 

 

(5) have signed a patient acknowledgement form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (3) above is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L, and either an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints, or at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (3) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (3) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the patients ESR and CRP measurements, and an assessment of the patients active joint count, conducted no earlier than 1 month prior to the date of application, and a copy of the signed patient acknowledgment form;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and who are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(3) have not failed treatment with adalimumab during the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents within this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

patients who have previously commenced, and subsequently ceased, PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab within this Treatment Cycle are eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle if:

 

 

(i) they have demonstrated an adequate response, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment; and

 

 

(ii) the response was assessed, and the assessment was provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the date that course ceased; and

 

 

(iii) the response was assessed following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment was a 16-week initial treatment course; and

 

 

(iv) response to treatment was determined using the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle, with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) were receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 16 March 2006; and

 

 

(3) have demonstrated a response to adalimumab treatment as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab; and

 

 

(4) have signed a patient acknowledgement form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a copy of the signed patient acknowledgment form;

 

 

the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight;

 

 

patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults:

 

 

(1) who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in the current Treatment Cycle was with adalimumab; and

 

 

(3) who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab is defined as an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and either a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints, or a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment are used to determine response;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab, where response is assessed, and this assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course;

 

 

if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy was a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and:

 

 

(a) who has not received any treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab subsidised under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS), or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with one of these drugs, has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for this condition for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last course of PBS-subsidised treatment was approved; and

 

 

(b) who has at least 2 of the following:

 

 

(i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; or

 

 

(ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); or

 

 

(iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; and

 

 

(c) who has failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of at least 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept and infliximab of at least 5 years duration, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 NSAID, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 consecutive months; and

 

 

(d) who has signed a patient acknowledgment form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept and infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by:

 

 

(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale, where the BASDAI score is determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment, and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; and

 

 

(b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L;

 

 

both ESR and CRP measurements are included in the authority application and are no more than 1 month old;

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reason why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

the authority application includes details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment;

 

 

if the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, the authority application includes the reason why a higher dose cannot be used;

 

 

if treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the nature and severity of this intolerance;

 

 

an appropriate minimum exercise program includes stretch and range of motion exercises at least 5 times per week, and either aerobic exercise of at least 20 minutes duration at least 3 times per week or a group exercise class at least once per week;

 

 

if a patient is unable to complete the minimum exercise program, the authority application includes the clinical reasons for this and details what, if any, exercise program has been followed;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes:

 

 

(a) a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

 

 

(ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and

 

 

(iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; and

 

 

(iv) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form detailing the program followed and the dates over which it was followed, and including confirmation by the prescribing doctor that, to the best of their knowledge, the patient has followed the exercise program detailed;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for this condition and has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

a patient who commenced PBS-subsidised treatment of ankylosing spondylitis with etanercept or infliximab prior to 1 March 2007 is deemed to have commenced their first treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed BASDAI Assessment Form with certification by the prescriber and the patient that the patient did not have access to their baseline BASDAI at the time of their assessment;

 

 

the application is accompanied by the results of the patients most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab therapy, where:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and

 

 

(b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16 week initial course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or

 

 

(ii) if the course of therapy is a 6 week initial course approved prior to 1 March 2007, the assessment of response is made following at least 4 weeks of treatment;

 

 

if the response assessment to the previous course of treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Commencement of a treatment cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, who was receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 November 2006; and

 

 

(a) who is receiving treatment with adalimumab at the time of application; and

 

 

(b) who has not received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with infliximab or etanercept; and

 

 

(c) whose current Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score is either less than or equal to 5 on a 0-10 scale or improved by at least 2 from baseline; and

 

 

(d) who has:

 

 

(i) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

 

 

(ii) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

 

 

(iii) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from pre-treatment baseline; and

 

 

(e) who has signed a patient acknowledgment form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept and infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

the BASDAI assessment and the ESR and CRP measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

 

 

(ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and

 

 

(iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form;

 

 

the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight;

 

 

patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who was receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 November 2006 and at the time of the initial application for PBS-subsidised therapy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has demonstrated a response to treatment with adalimumab, and whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle was with adalimumab; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

a patient who commenced PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept or infliximab prior to 1 March 2007 is deemed to have commenced their first treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 in the patients Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and 1 of the following:

 

 

(a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

 

 

(b) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

 

 

(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

 

 

if the patient commenced treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 November 2006, was subsequently commenced on PBS-subsidised treatment and is continuing to receive PBS-subsidised treatment in their first treatment cycle, and where pre-treatment baselines are not available, response to treatment is defined as a BASDAI score no more than 20% greater than the score included in the initial application for PBS-subsidised treatment, or no greater than 2, and 1 of the following:

 

 

(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

 

 

(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L;

 

 

all measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

the same acute phase reactant used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial treatment course is measured and supplied for all subsequent continuing treatment applications for the patient;

 

 

patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course of treatment ceased; and

 

 

(b) if the course of therapy is a 16 week initial course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed BASDAI Assessment Form with certification by the prescriber and the patient that the patient did not have access to their baseline BASDAI at the time of their continuing treatment assessment;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total, at a dose that does not exceed 40 mg per fortnight

Adrenaline

 

In respect of the injection 1 mg (as acid tartrate) in 1 mL (1 in 1,000):

 

 

In respect of the I.M. injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe autoinjector and I.M. injection 300 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe autoinjector:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis in a patient who has been assessed to be at significant risk of anaphylaxis by, or in consultation with, a clinical immunologist, allergist, paediatrician or respiratory physician, where the name of the specialist consulted is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis in a patient who has been discharged from hospital or an emergency department after treatment with adrenaline for acute allergic reaction with anaphylaxis

 

 

Continuing supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug

Albendazole

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2446

 Treatment of whipworm infestation in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

 

1525

 Treatment of tapeworm infestation

 

 

In respect of the tablet 400 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1496

 For the treatment of hydatid disease in conjunction with surgery or when a surgical cure cannot be achieved or where surgery cannot be used

Alendronic Acid

 

In respect of the tablet 70 mg (as alendronate sodium):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2645

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density Tscore of 3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2646

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

 

 

In respect of the tablet 40 mg (as alendronate sodium):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1392

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone

Alendronic Acid with Colecalciferol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2645

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density Tscore of 3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2646

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Alginic acid with calcium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate

 

Allopurinol

 

Alprazolam

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Panic disorder where other treatments have failed or are inappropriate

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide

 

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide

 

Amantadine

 

Parkinsons disease which is not drug induced

Amiloride

 

Amino acid formula without methionine, threonine and valine and low in isoleucine

 

Methylmalonic acidaemia

Propionic acidaemia

Amino acid formula without phenylalanine

 

Phenylketonuria

Amino acid formula without phenylalanine, and vitamins with minerals

 

Phenylketonuria

Amino acid formula without phenylalanine, tyrosine and methionine

 

Tyrosinaemia

Amino acid formula with vitamins, minerals and long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids without phenylalanine

 

Phenylketonuria

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without lysine and low in tryptophan

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (XLYS, LOW TRY Analog):

An infant or young child with proven glutaric aciduria type 1

 

 

 

In respect of the oral powder 500 g (XLYS, LOW TRY Maxamaid):

A child aged less than 7 years with proven glutaric aciduria type 1

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without methionine

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (XMET Analog):

For infants and very young children with pyridoxine nonresponsive homocystinuria

 

 

In respect of the sachets containing oral powder 20 g, 30 (HCU gel), sachets containing oral powder 25 g, 30 (HCU express), oral powder 500 g (XMET Maxamaid), oral powder 500 g (XMET Maxamum) and oral liquid 130 mL, 30 (HCU Cooler):

Pyridoxine nonresponsive homocystinuria

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without methionine, threonine and valine and low in isoleucine

 

Methylmalonic acidaemia

Propionic acidaemia

 

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without phenylalanine

 

Phenylketonuria

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without phenylalanine and tyrosine

 

Tyrosinaemia

Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without valine, leucine and isoleucine

 

Maple syrup urine disease

Amino acids — synthetic, formula

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (EleCare):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition

 

 

Initial treatment for up to 3 months, by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist in a patient 18 years of age or less with eosinophilic oesophagitis who requires an amino acid based formula as a component of a dietary elimination programme, and where:

 

 

 eosinophilic oesophagitis is demonstrated by the following criteria:

 

 

 (i) chronic symptoms of reflux that persisted despite a 2-month trial of a proton pump inhibitor or chronic dysphagia; and

 

 

 (ii) a lack of demonstrable anatomic abnormality with the exception of stricture, which can be attributable to eosinophilic oesophagitis; and

 

 

 (iii) eosinophilic infiltration of the oesophagus, demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy and where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy specimen had 20 or more eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies;

 

 

 the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application;

 

 

 treatment with oral steroids is not commenced during the period of initial treatment

 

 

Continuing treatment by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist in a patient 18 years of age or less with eosinophilic oesophagitis who has responded to an initial course of PBS-subsidised treatment, and where:

 response to initial treatment is demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy, where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy specimen has 5 or less eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies;

 the response criteria will be deemed to have been not met if the patient commenced oral steroids during initial treatment

 

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Neocate), oral powder 400 g (Neocate Advance) and oral powder 400 g (Neocate Advance Tropical Flavour):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the
patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition

Amino acid synthetic formula supplemented with long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition

Aminoglutethimide

 

Amiodarone

 

Severe cardiac arrhythmias

Amisulpride

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

Amitriptyline

 

Amlodipine

 

Amlodipine with Atorvastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and who are currently receiving treatment with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

 

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and whose blood pressure and/or angina is inadequately controlled with other classes of antihypertensive and/or antianginal agent, and in whom adjunctive therapy with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker would be appropriate

 

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and who are intolerant of the side effects of other classes of antihypertensive and/or antianginal agent, and in whom replacement therapy with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker would be appropriate

Amoxycillin

 

In respect of the tablet, chewable, 250 mg (as trihydrate), capsule 250 mg (as trihydrate), capsule 500 mg (as trihydrate), sachet containing oral powder 3 g (as trihydrate), powder for paediatric oral drops 100 mg (as trihydrate) per mL, 20 mL, powder for oral suspension 125 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL, powder for oral suspension 250 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral suspension 500 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL:

 

 

In respect of the tablet 1 g (as trihydrate):

Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid

 

Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is suspected

 

 

Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is proven

Amphotericin

 

Ampicillin

 

Anakinra

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

 (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

 (b) have not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition was approved; and

 

 

 (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly, have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate (at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly) in combination with 2 other non-biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) for a minimum of 3 months, and have failed to achieve an adequate response following a minimum of 3 months treatment with leflunomide alone or with leflunomide in combination with methotrexate or with cyclosporin alone, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 non-biological DMARD, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 months; and

 

 

 where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

 where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the patient receives concomitant treatment with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly;

 

 

 failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (c) above is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L, and either a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints, or at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

 

 

 — elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

 — shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

 all tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

 

 

 if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

 if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (c) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

 if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (c) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

 the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the patients ESR and CRP measurements, and an assessment of the patients active joint count, conducted no earlier than 1 month prior to the date of application, and a signed patient acknowledgment;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with anakinra within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

 (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

 (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra during this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

 where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the patient receives concomitant treatment with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly;

 

 

 patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD Treatment Cycle with that therapy;

 

 

 patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 bDMARDs within this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

 patients who have previously commenced, and subsequently ceased, PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra within this bDMARD Treatment Cycle are eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle provided that:

 

 

 (i) they have demonstrated an adequate response, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised anakinra treatment; and

 

 

 (ii) the response was assessed, and the assessment was provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the date that course ceased; and

 

 

 (iii) the response was assessed following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment was a 16-week initial treatment course; and

 

 

 (iv) response to treatment was determined using the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment;

 

 

 patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with anakinra are not eligible to commence treatment with anakinra until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion;

 

 

 the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and, in the case of patients recommencing therapy with anakinra in this Treatment Cycle, evidence of the patients response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised anakinra therapy;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with anakinra within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment with anakinra within an ongoing biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults:

 

 

 (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

 (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with anakinra; and

 

 

 (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment in this bDMARD Treatment Cycle was with anakinra; and

 

 

 where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

 where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the patient receives concomitant treatment with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly;

 

 

 patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

 an adequate response to treatment is defined as an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and either a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints, or a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

 — elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

 — shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

 the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment are used to determine response;

 

 

 a patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless:

 

 

 (a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course of treatment ceased; and

 

 

 (b) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment;

 

 

 the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with anakinra, where response is assessed, and this assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course;

 

 

 if the most recent course of anakinra therapy was a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course;

 

 

 the patient has not failed to demonstrate response to a course of PBS-subsidised anakinra in this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

 a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

Anastrozole

 

Treatment of hormonedependent breast cancer in postmenopausal women

Anecortave

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to agerelated macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with anecortave acetate in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii):

 Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to agerelated macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with anecortave acetate in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to agerelated macular degeneration, where the patient has previously been granted at least 1, but not more than 9, authority prescriptions for anecortave acetate for treatment of the same eye

Apraclonidine

 

Shortterm reduction of intraocular pressure in patients already on maximally tolerated antiglaucoma therapy

Aprepitant

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy, when aprepitant is used in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist and dexamethasone, where treatment with aprepitant is limited to an initial dose of 125 mg and 2 subsequent doses of 80 mg per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy, and where the cytotoxic chemotherapy to be administered to the patient includes any of the following agents:

 

 

 altretamine;

 

 

 carmustine;

 

 

 cisplatin, when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy;

 

 

 cyclophosphamide, at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater;

 

 

 dacarbazine;

 

 

 procarbazine, when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy;

 

 

 streptozocin

 

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer where cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline are to be coadministered, when aprepitant is used in combination with a 5hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist and dexamethasone, and where treatment with aprepitant is limited to an initial dose of 125 mg and 2 subsequent doses of 80 mg per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy

Aripiprazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

Aspirin

 

Atenolol

 

Atomoxetine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSMIV) criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate or methylphenidate hydrochloride poses an unacceptable medical risk due to the following contraindications as specified in the Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information:

 

 

 (1) the patient has a history of substance abuse or misuse (other than alcohol); and/or

 

 

 (2) the patient has comorbid motor tics or Tourettes Syndrome; and/or

 

 

 (3) the patient has comorbid severe anxiety diagnosed according to the DSMIV

 

 

Initial treatment of attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the DSMIV criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate or methylphenidate hydrochloride has resulted in the development or worsening of a comorbid mood disorder (that is, anxiety disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder or depressive disorder, diagnosed according to the DSMIV criteria) of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal, or where the combination of stimulant treatment with another agent would pose an unacceptable medical risk of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal

 

 

Initial treatment of attentiondeficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the DSMIV criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate and methylphenidate hydrochloride has resulted in the development of adverse reactions of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal:

 

 

 (1) Adverse effects on growth and weight; and/or

 

 

 (2) Adverse effects on sleep including insomnia; and/or

 

 

 (3) Adverse effects on appetite including anorexia

 

 

Continuing treatment where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug

Atorvastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Atovaquone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1433

 Treatment of mild to moderate Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in adult patients who are intolerant of trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole therapy

Atropine

 

Auranofin

 

Aurothiomalate

 

Azathioprine

 

Azithromycin

 

In respect of the tablet 500 mg (as dihydrate):

Uncomplicated urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis

 

 

Uncomplicated cervicitis due to Chlamydia trachomatis

 

 

Trachoma

 

 

In respect of the powder for oral suspension 200 mg (as dihydrate) per 5 mL, 15 mL:

Trachoma

Baclofen

 

Balsalazide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1708

 Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists

 

1709

 Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists

"BCG Immunotherapeutic" (Bacillus CalmetteGuérin/ Connaught strain)

 

Treatment of carcinoma in situ of the urinary bladder

"BCGTice" (Bacillus CalmetteGuérin/ Tice strain)

 

Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder

Beclomethasone

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing beclomethasone dipropionate 50 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation) and pressurised inhalation containing beclomethasone dipropionate 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation):

 

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device containing beclomethasone dipropionate 50 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation) and pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device containing beclomethasone dipropionate 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation):

Patients unable to achieve coordinated use of other metered dose inhalers containing this drug

Benzathine benzylpenicillin

 

Benzathine Penicillin

 

Benzhexol

 

Benztropine

 

Benzydamine

 

Radiation induced mucositis

Benzylpenicillin

 

Betamethasone

 

In respect of the injection containing betamethasone acetate 3 mg with betamethasone sodium phosphate 3.9 mg in 1 mL:

Alopecia areata

 

 

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

 

 

Granulomata, dermal

 

 

Keloid

 

 

Lichen planus hypertrophic

 

 

Lichen simplex chronicus

 

 

Lupus erythematosus, chronic discoid

 

 

Necrobiosis lipoidica

 

 

Uveitis

 

 

In respect of the cream 500 micrograms (as dipropionate) per g, 15 g, cream 200 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 100 g, ointment 500 micrograms (as dipropionate) per g, 15 g, cream 500 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 15 g, ointment 200 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 100 g and ointment 500 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 15 g:

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

Betaxolol

 

Bethanechol

 

Bicalutamide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophinreleasing hormone (luteinising hormonereleasing hormone) agonist therapy

Bifonazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2354

 Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Bimatoprost

 

Biperiden

 

Bisacodyl

 

Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function

 

 

Patients who are receiving longterm nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities

 

 

For use by a patient who is receiving longterm nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult

 

 

Patients receiving palliative care

 

 

Terminal malignant neoplasia

 

 

Anorectal congenital abnormalities

 

 

Megacolon

Bisoprolol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1734

 Moderate to severe heart failure in patients stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor if tolerated

Bivalirudin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2147

 Patients undergoing nonemergency percutaneous coronary intervention

Bleomycin

 

Germ cell neoplasms

 

 

Lymphoma

Bortezomib

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid, of multiple myeloma in a patient who has previously received 8 treatment cycles with bortezomib and who, at the time of application, has demonstrated at least a partial response to bortezomib but who has not received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein levels are measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as:

 

 

 (a)  at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or

 

 

 (b)  at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours;

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein levels are unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

 

 

 (c)  the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels, with at least a 50% reduction in this value;

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein levels and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

 

 

 (d)  at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

 

 

 (e)  normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L; or

 

 

 (f)  no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

 

 

 (g)  at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan);

 

 

 the same parameters provided for the diagnosis of progressive disease are used to demonstrate at least a partial response to treatment;

 

 

 a patient is eligible for continuing PBSsubsidised bortezomib treatment beyond 8 cycles if they have achieved at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 8, and the results of the response assessment are included in the application for authorisation of further treatment;

 

 

 a patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to 8 cycles of treatment with bortezomib, despite demonstrating a partial response, if the response assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO prior to cycle 9;

 

 

 the authority application is made not later than 10 months after the application for initial treatment and includes:

 

 

 (1)  a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (2)  diagnostic reports, which are no more than 1 month old at the time of application, demonstrating that the patient has achieved at least a partial response;

 

 

 a patient is eligible to receive no more than 2 cycles of treatment beyond the cycle at which a complete response, confirmed by 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart, was first achieved;

 

 

 PBSsubsidised treatment with bortezomib is limited to a maximum of 11 cycles

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial PBSsubsidised treatment of multiple myeloma in patients receiving treatment with bortezomib prior to 1 November 2007; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 patients who fail to demonstrate at least a partial response after 4 cycles are not eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with bortezomib;

 

 

 patients who qualify for PBSsubsidised treatment under this restriction may receive a maximum of 3 cycles, after which the patient must qualify under the continuing treatment criteria to receive further treatment;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (1)  a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (2)  a signed patient acknowledgment; and

 

 

 (3)  details including relevant reports of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and

 

 

 (4)  if relevant, details including relevant reports for patients who have demonstrated a partial response and who have received 4 or more cycles;

 

 

 diagnostic reports demonstrating at least a partial response are within 1 month of the date of application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial PBSsubsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid, of multiple myeloma in a patient with a World Health Organisation (WHO) performance status of 2 or less, who has progressive disease, who has received at least 1 prior therapy (other than thalidomide), who has undergone or is ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant and who has experienced treatment failure after a trial of at least 4 weeks of thalidomide at a dose of at least 100 mg daily; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 if the dosing requirement for thalidomide cannot be met, the authority application states the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

 thalidomide treatment failure is defined as:

 

 

 (1)  confirmed disease progression during or within 6 months of discontinuing thalidomide treatment; or

 

 

 (2)  severe intolerance or toxicity unresponsive to clinically appropriate dose adjustment;

 

 

 progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following:

 

 

 (a)  at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or

 

 

 (b)  at least a 25% increase in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or

 

 

 (c)  at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or

 

 

 (d)  an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

 

 

 (e)  at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing, or the development of a new, soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or

 

 

 (f)  development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause);

 

 

 severe intolerance due to thalidomide is defined as unacceptable somnolence or sedation interfering with activities of daily living;

 

 

 toxicity from thalidomide is defined as peripheral neuropathy (Grade 2 or greater, interfering with function), drugrelated seizures, serious Grade 3 or Grade 4 drugrelated dermatological reactions, such as StevensJohnson Syndrome, or other Grade 3 or 4 toxicity;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (1)  a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application Supporting Information Form, which includes details of prior treatments including names of drugs and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; the patients WHO performance status; details of thalidomide treatment failure; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease; nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and the results of current diagnostic reports as detailed below; and

 

 

 (2)  duration of thalidomide and daily dose prescribed; and

 

 

 (3)  a signed patient acknowledgment;

 

 

 to enable the Medicare Australia CEO to confirm response, current diagnostic reports of the following are required to establish baseline:

 

 

 (a)  the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); and

 

 

 (b)  if BenceJones proteinuria is present, the results of 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion;

 

 

 if neither serum M protein nor urine BenceJones protein is present in measurable quantities, additional diagnostic reports are required, including:

 

 

 (c)  bone marrow aspirate and trephine; and

 

 

 (d)  if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or

 

 

 (e)  if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination, i.e. magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan; or

 

 

 (f)  if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration; or

 

 

 (g)  if present, the serum free light chain levels;

 

 

 to enable assessment of response, baseline values for the above parameters must be provided with the authority application as follows:

 

 

 (i)  for all patients, results for (a) and (b) must be provided;

 

 

 (ii)  where the patient has oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma, results for (c) and if relevant (d), (e) or (f) must be provided;

 

 

 (iii)  where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligosecretory or nonsecretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, results for (g) must be provided;

 

 

 where baseline values for 1 or more of the specified parameters cannot be provided, the authority application states the reason or reasons these cannot be provided

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid, of multiple myeloma in a patient who has previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib and who, at the time of application, has demonstrated at least a partial response to bortezomib; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein levels are measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as:

 

 

 (a)  at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or

 

 

 (b)  at least a 90% reduction in 24hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours;

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein levels are unmeasurable as in nonsecretory/oligosecretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

 

 

 (c)  at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels;

 

 

 if serum M protein and urine BenceJones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as:

 

 

 (d)  at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or

 

 

 (e)  normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L; or

 

 

 (f)  no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or

 

 

 (g)  at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan);

 

 

 the same parameters provided for the diagnosis of progressive disease are used to demonstrate at least a partial response to treatment;

 

 

 a patient is eligible for continuing PBSsubsidised bortezomib treatment beyond 4 cycles if they have achieved at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4, and the results of the response assessment are included in the application for authorisation of further treatment;

 

 

 a patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to 4 cycles of treatment with bortezomib, despite demonstrating a partial response, if the response assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO prior to cycle 5;

 

 

 the authority application is made not later than 6 months after the application for initial treatment and includes:

 

 

 (1)  a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (2)  diagnostic reports, which are no more than 1 month old at the time of application, demonstrating that the patient has achieved at least a partial response;

 

 

 patients who fail to demonstrate at least a partial response after 8 cycles are not eligible to receive further PBSsubsidised treatment with bortezomib;

 

 

 a patient is eligible to receive no more than 2 cycles of treatment beyond the cycle at which a complete response, confirmed by 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart, was first achieved

Brimonidine

 

Brimonidine with Timolol

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with openangle glaucoma who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL

 

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with ocular hypertension who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL

Brinzolamide

 

Bromocriptine

 

In respect of the tablet 2.5 mg (as mesylate):

Prevention of the onset of lactation in the puerperium for medical reasons

 

 

Acromegaly

 

 

Parkinsons disease

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

 

In respect of the capsule 5 mg (as mesylate) and capsule 10 mg (as mesylate):

Acromegaly

 

 

Parkinsons disease

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated

 

 

Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution

Budesonide

 

In respect of the nebuliser suspension 500 micrograms in 2 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser suspension 1 mg in 2 mL single dose units, 30:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1351

 Severe chronic asthma in patients who require longterm steroid therapy and who are unable to use other forms of inhaled steroid therapy

 

 

In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses, powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 200 micrograms per dose, 200 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 400 micrograms per dose, 200 doses:

Budesonide with Eformoterol

 

In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 100 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 6 micrograms per dose, 120 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 200 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 6 micrograms per dose, 120 doses:

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide

 

 

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide

 

 

For single maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids

 

 

For single maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with inhaled corticosteroids

 

 

For maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with a combination of an inhaled corticosteroid and a longacting beta2 agonist

 

 

In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 400 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 12 micrograms per dose, 60 doses, 2:

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide

 

 

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide

Buprenorphine

 

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

Bupropion

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who has entered a comprehensive support and counselling program, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application

 

 

Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who is entering a comprehensive support and counselling program during the same consultation at which the authority application is made, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application

 

 

Completion of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who is enrolled in a comprehensive support and counselling program

Busulfan

 

Cabergoline

 

In respect of the tablet 500 micrograms:

Prevention of the onset of lactation in the puerperium for medical reasons

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2659

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated

 

2660

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

2661

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated

 

2662

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

 

In respect of the tablet 1 mg, tablet 2 mg and tablet 4 mg:

Parkinsons disease

Calcipotriol

 

In respect of the ointment 50 micrograms per g, 30g and cream 50 micrograms (as monohydrate) per g, 30 g

Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris

In respect of the scalp solution 50 micrograms (as monohydrate) per mL, 30 mL:

Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris of the scalp

Calcitriol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1165

 Hypocalcaemia due to renal disease

 

1166

 Hypoparathyroidism

 

1167

 Hypophosphataemic rickets

 

1467

 Vitamin Dresistant rickets

 

2636

 Treatment for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Calcium

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2212

 Hyperphosphataemia associated with chronic renal failure

Candesartan

 

Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with 16 mg candesartan cilexetil

Capecitabine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a taxane and an anthracycline

 

 

Advanced breast cancer where therapy with a taxane or an anthracycline is contraindicated

 

 

Advanced breast cancer in combination with docetaxel after failure of prior anthracyclinecontaining chemotherapy

 

 

Treatment of advanced or metastatic colorectal cancer

 

 

Adjuvant treatment of stage III (Dukes C) colon cancer, following complete resection of the primary tumour

Captopril

 

In respect of the tablet 12.5 mg, tablet 25 mg and tablet 50 mg:

 

 

In respect of the oral solution 5 mg per mL, 95 mL:

For patients unable to take a solid dose form of an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor

Carbamazepine

 

Carbimazole

 

Carbohydrate, fat, vitamins, minerals and trace elements

 

Patients with proven inborn errors of protein metabolism who are unable to meet their energy requirements with permitted food and formulae

Carbomer 974

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1359

 Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Carbomer 980

 

In respect of the ocular lubricating gel 2 mg per g, 10 g:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

 

In respect of the eye drops 2 mg per g, single dose units 0.6 mL, 30:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1359

 Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Carboplatin

 

Carmellose

 

In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, 15 mL and eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, 15 mL:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

 

In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 2.5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 24, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30 and ocular lubricating gel containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 28:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1359

 Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Carmustine

 

Glioblastoma multiforme, suspected or confirmed, at the time of initial surgery

Carvedilol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1734

 Moderate to severe heart failure in patients stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor if tolerated

 

1735

 Patients receiving this drug as a pharmaceutical benefit prior to 1 August 2002

Cefaclor

 

Cefepime

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of febrile neutropenia

Cefotaxime

 

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

Ceftriaxone

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium):

Gonorrhoea

 

 

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

 

 

In respect of the powder for injection 1 g (as sodium) and powder for injection 2 g (as sodium):

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

Cefuroxime

 

Celecoxib

 

Symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis

 

 

Symptomatic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Cephalexin

 

Cephalothin

 

Cephazolin

 

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

Cetuximab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx for the week prior to radiotherapy, where cisplatin is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information

 

 

Initial treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx, in combination with radiotherapy, where cisplatin is not tolerated

 

 

Continuing treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx, in combination with radiotherapy, where cisplatin is either contraindicated or not tolerated

Chlorambucil

 

Chloramphenicol

 

Chlorpromazine

 

Chlorthalidone

 

Cholestyramine

 

Chorionic Gonadotrophin

 

In respect of the injection set containing 3 ampoules powder for injection 500 units and 3 ampoules solvent 1 mL:

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

For the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

 

 

For the treatment of infertility in males associated with isolated luteinising hormone deficiency

 

 

For the treatment of males who have combined deficiency of human growth hormone and gonadotrophins and in whom the absence of secondary sexual characteristics indicates a lag in maturation

 

 

For the treatment, for a period not exceeding 6 months, of males over the age of 16 years who show clinical evidence of hypogonadism or delayed puberty

 

 

Cryptorchism not due to organic obstruction in boys over 12 months of age

 

 

In respect of the injection set containing 3 ampoules powder for injection 1,500 units and 3 ampoules solvent 1 mL:

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

For the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

 

 

For the treatment of infertility in males associated with isolated luteinising hormone deficiency

 

 

For the treatment of males who have combined deficiency of human growth hormone and gonadotrophins and in whom the absence of secondary sexual characteristics indicates a lag in maturation

 

 

For the treatment, for a period not exceeding 6 months, of males over the age of 16 years who show clinical evidence of hypogonadism or delayed puberty

Ciclesonide

 

Cimetidine

 

Cinacalcet

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cinacalcet, of a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis who has a decrease of at least 30% in intact parathyroid hormone (iPTH) concentrations after 6 months treatment

Ciprofloxacin

 

In respect of the tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride) and tablet 750 mg (as hydrochloride):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Respiratory tract infection proven or suspected to be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in severely immunocompromised patients

 

 

Bacterial gastroenteritis in severely immunocompromised patients

 

 

Treatment of infections proven to be due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa or other gramnegative bacteria resistant to all other oral antimicrobials

 

 

Treatment of joint and bone infections, epididymoorchitis, prostatitis or perichondritis of the pinna, suspected or proven to be caused by gramnegative bacteria or grampositive bacteria resistant to all other appropriate antimicrobials

 

 

In respect of the tablet 250 mg (as hydrochloride):

Gonorrhoea

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Respiratory tract infection proven or suspected to be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in severely immunocompromised patients

 

 

Bacterial gastroenteritis in severely immunocompromised patients

 

 

Treatment of infections proven to be due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa or other gramnegative bacteria resistant to all other oral antimicrobials

 

 

Treatment of joint and bone infections, epididymoorchitis, prostatitis or perichondritis of the pinna, suspected or proven to be caused by gramnegative bacteria or grampositive bacteria resistant to all other appropriate antimicrobials

 

 

In respect of the ear drops 3 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 5 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of chronic suppurative otitis media in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person aged 1 month or older

 

 

In respect of the eye drops 3 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 5 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Bacterial keratitis

Cisplatin

 

Citalopram

 

Major depressive disorders

Cladribine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

Clarithromycin

 

Clindamycin

 

Grampositive coccal infections where these cannot be safely and effectively treated with a penicillin

Clodronic Acid

 

Maintenance treatment of hypercalcaemia of malignancy refractory to antineoplastic therapy

 

 

Multiple myeloma

 

 

Bone metastases from breast cancer

Clomiphene

 

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

Patients undergoing invitro fertilisation

Clomipramine

 

Cataplexy associated with narcolepsy

 

 

Obsessivecompulsive disorder

 

 

Phobic disorders in adults

Clonazepam

 

In respect of the tablet 500 micrograms, tablet 2 mg and oral liquid 2.5 mg per mL, 10 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Neurologically proven epilepsy

 

 

In respect of the injection 1 mg in 2 mL (set containing solution 1 mg in 1 mL and 1 mL diluent):

Epilepsy

Clonidine

 

Clopidogrel

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1719

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular ischaemic episodes while on therapy with lowdose aspirin

 

1720

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where lowdose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

 

1721

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

 

1722

 Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients with a history of symptomatic cardiac ischaemic events while on therapy with lowdose aspirin

 

1723

 Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where lowdose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

 

1724

 Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Clotrimazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2354

 Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Coal Tar Prepared

 

Codeine

 

Codeine with Paracetamol

 

Colchicine

 

Colestipol

 

Copper Sulfate

 

Cortisone

 

Cromoglycic Acid

 

In respect of the capsule containing powder for oral inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 20 mg (for use in Intal Spinhaler or Intal Halermatic), pressurised inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 1 mg per dose, 200 doses, pressurised inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 1 mg per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation) and pressurised inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 5 mg per dose, 112 doses (CFCfree formulation):

 

 

In respect of the eye drops containing sodium cromoglycate 20 mg per mL, 10 mL:

Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Cyclophosphamide

 

Cyclosporin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with organ or tissue transplants, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe atopic dermatitis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a dermatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the dermatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe psoriasis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate and in whom the disease has caused significant interference with quality of life, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a dermatologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the dermatologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with nephrotic syndrome in whom steroids and cytostatic drugs have failed or are not tolerated or are considered inappropriate and in whom renal function is unimpaired, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a nephrologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the nephrologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe active rheumatoid arthritis for whom classical slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate) are ineffective or inappropriate, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a rheumatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the rheumatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application

 

 

Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by dermatologists or clinical immunologists of patients with severe atopic dermatitis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate

 

 

Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by dermatologists of patients with severe psoriasis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate and in whom the disease has caused significant interference with quality of life

 

 

Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by rheumatologists or clinical immunologists of patients with severe active rheumatoid arthritis for whom classical slowacting antirheumatic agents (including methotrexate) are ineffective or inappropriate

Cyproheptadine

 

Prevention of migraine

Cyproterone

 

In respect of the tablet containing cyproterone acetate 50 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1230

 Moderate to severe androgenisation, of which acne alone is not a sufficient indication, in nonpregnant women

 

1014

 Advanced carcinoma of the prostate

 

1404

 To reduce drive in sexual deviations in males

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing cyproterone acetate 100 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1014

 Advanced carcinoma of the prostate

 

1404

 To reduce drive in sexual deviations in males

Cystine with carbohydrate

 

Pyridoxine non-responsive homocystinuria

Cytarabine

 

Dalteparin

 

Danazol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1090

 Endometriosis, visually proven

 

1151

 Hereditary angiooedema

 

2639

 Treatment, for up to 6 months, of intractable primary menorrhagia

 

2640

 Treatment, for up to 6 months, of severe benign (fibrocystic) breast disease or mastalgia associated with severe symptomatic benign breast disease in patients refractory to other treatments

Dantrolene

 

Treatment of chronic spasticity

Dapsone

 

Dasatinib

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCRABL, who has failed treatment with chemotherapy and imatinib, and, where appropriate, allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and

 

 

 where failure of treatment is defined as either:

 

 

 (i)  failure to achieve a complete morphological and cytogenetic remission after a minimum of 2 months of treatment with intensive chemotherapy and imatinib;

 

 

 (ii)  morphological or cytogenetic relapse of leukaemia after achieving a complete remission induced by chemotherapy and imatinib;

 

 

 (iii)  morphological or cytogenetic relapse or persistence of leukaemia after allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the patient has active leukaemia, as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either morphological infiltration of the bone marrow (greater than 5% lymphoblasts) or cerebrospinal fluid or other sites; or the presence of cells bearing the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or FISH analysis in the bone marrow of patients in morphological remission;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Dasatinib PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and

 

 

 (c) a pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or morphological evidence of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia plus qualitative RTPCR evidence of BCRABL transcript, along with the date of the relevant report or reports

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCRABL, who has been treated prior to 1 December 2007 and has failed treatment with chemotherapy and, where appropriate, allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the patient has active leukaemia, as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either morphological infiltration of the bone marrow (greater than 5% lymphoblasts) or cerebrospinal fluid or other sites; or the presence of cells bearing the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or FISH analysis in the bone marrow of patients in morphological remission;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Dasatinib PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and

 

 

 (c) a pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or morphological evidence of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia plus qualitative RTPCR evidence of BCRABL transcript, along with the date of the relevant report or reports

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCRABL, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for dasatinib for ALL and does not have progressive disease

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of a patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia in any disease phase bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript BCRABL, and who:

 

 

 (a) has active leukaemia (as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) analysis, or the presence of the transcript BCRABL and morphological evidence of leukaemia); and

 

 

 (b) has failed an adequate trial of imatinib, where failure of an adequate trial of imatinib is defined as:

 

 

 (i) lack of response to initial imatinib therapy, defined as either:

 

 

   failure to achieve a haematological response after a minimum of 3 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase; or

 

 

   failure to achieve any cytogenetic response after a minimum of 6 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase as demonstrated on bone marrow biopsy by presence of greater than 95% Philadelphia chromosome positive cells; or

 

 

   failure to achieve a major cytogenetic response or a peripheral blood BCRABL level of less than 1% after a minimum of 12 months of therapy with imatinib; or

 

 

 (ii) loss of a previously documented major cytogenetic response (demonstrated by the presence of greater than 35% Philadelphia positive cells on bone marrow biopsy), during ongoing imatinib therapy; or

 

 

 (iii) development of accelerated phase or blast crisis in a patient previously prescribed imatinib for any phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia, where:

 

 

 (1) accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following:

 

 

   percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or

 

 

   percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or

 

 

   peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or

 

 

   progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin to be confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or

 

 

   karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome); and

 

 

 (2) blast crisis is defined as either:

 

 

   percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or

 

 

   extramedullary involvement other than spleen and liver; or

 

 

 (iv) disease progression (defined as a greater than or equal to 50% increase in peripheral white blood cell count, blast count, basophils or platelets) during firstline imatinib therapy in patients with accelerated phase or blast crisis chronic myeloid leukaemia; or

 

 

 (v) detection of a mutation in BCRABL (L248V, G250E, Q252H/R, Y253H/F, E255K/V, H396P/R, and D276G) that infers high level imatinib resistance; or

 

 

 (vi) grade 3 or 4 nonhaematological toxicity that is imatinib related; and

 

 

 where the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and

 

 

 (c) a bone marrow biopsy pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active chronic myeloid leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or morphological evidence of chronic myeloid leukaemia plus qualitative RTPCR evidence of BCRABL transcript, and the date of the relevant pathology report; and

 

 

 (e) a copy of the current confirming pathology report, or reports, from an Approved Pathology Authority or details of the dates of assessment in the case of progressive splenomegaly or extramedullary involvement or details of Grade 3 or 4 nonhaematological toxicity

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of a patient who has received initial treatment with dasatinib as a pharmaceutical benefit for chronic myeloid leukaemia, and who has demonstrated either a major cytogenetic response, or less than 1% BCRABL level in the blood, due to dasatinib therapy, in the preceding 12 months; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 a major cytogenetic response is defined as less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells;

 

 

 a bone marrow or peripheral blood BCRABL level of less than 1% on the international scale (Blood 108: 2837, 2006) indicates a response, at least the biological equivalent of a major cytogenetic response;

 

 

 response to PBSsubsidised treatment with dasatinib is assessed by:

 

 

 (1) cytogenetic analysis indicating the number of Philadelphia positive [t (9;22)] cells in the bone marrow measured by standard karyotyping, or, in the case where standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCRABL specific probe; or

 

 

 (2) quantitative PCR indicating the relative level of BCRABL transcript in the peripheral blood using the international scale;

 

 

 the cytogenetic or peripheral blood quantitative PCR analyses demonstrating response are submitted as follows:

 

 

 (i) between 10 and 12 months of the commencement of treatment with dasatinib, at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCRABL level of less than 1% has been demonstrated are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment; and

 

 

 (ii) at no greater than 12 month intervals thereafter, to demonstrate that the major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCRABL level of less than 1% has been sustained;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib Authority Application Form for continuing treatment; and

 

 

 (2) demonstration of continued response to treatment as evidenced by:

 

 

 (a) a copy of the cytogenetic analysis showing a major cytogenetic response, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; or

 

 

 (b) a copy of the quantitative PCR analysis showing a peripheral blood level of BCRABL of less than 1% on the international scale, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; and

 

 

 (3) if the cytogenetic analysis submitted with the application was conducted using FISH with BCRABL specific probe because standard karyotyping was not informative, a copy of the noninformative standard karyotype analysis;

 

 

 a patient who has previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with dasatinib and has at any time failed to meet the criteria for continuing treatment, is not eligible for PBSsubsidised retreatment

Desmopressin

 

In respect of the intranasal solution containing desmopressin acetate 100 micrograms per mL, 2.5 mL dropper bottle:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1678

 Cranial diabetes insipidus

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing desmopressin acetate 200 micrograms and nasal spray (pump pack) containing desmopressin acetate 10 micrograms per actuation, 60 actuations, 6 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2641

 Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older who are refractory to an enuresis alarm

 

2642

 Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older for whom an enuresis alarm is contraindicated, and where the reason for the contraindication is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

1678

 Cranial diabetes insipidus

Dexamethasone

 

Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin

 

Dexamphetamine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Use in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, in accordance with State/Territory law

 

 

Narcolepsy

Diazepam

 

Diclofenac

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 25 mg and tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 50 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

 

In respect of the suppository containing diclofenac sodium 100 mg:

Dicloxacillin

 

In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium) and capsule 500 mg (as sodium):

Serious staphylococcal infections

 

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium):

Digoxin

 

Dihydroergotamine

 

Diltiazem

 

Diphenoxylate with Atropine

 

Diphtheria and tetanus vaccine, adsorbed, diluted for adult use

 

Dipivefrine

 

Dipyridamole

 

Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events:

 

 

in patients receiving therapy with lowdose aspirin

 

 

in patients where lowdose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

 

 

in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Dipyridamole with Aspirin

 

Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events

Disopyramide

 

Docetaxel

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Adjuvant treatment of nodepositive breast cancer in combination with an anthracycline and cyclophosphamide

 

 

Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline

 

 

Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer

 

 

Treatment of HER2 positive early breast cancer in combination with trastuzumab

 

 

Treatment of androgen independent (hormone refractory) metastatic carcinoma of the prostate in a patient with a Karnofsky performancestatus score of at least 60%, where docetaxel is used as firstline chemotherapy and administered in three weekly cycles

Dolasetron

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy

Domperidone

 

Donepezil

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patients baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where:

 

 

(1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by:

 

 

(a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or

 

 

(b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and

 

 

(2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

Dorzolamide

 

Dorzolamide with Timolol

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with openangle glaucoma who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL

 

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with ocular hypertension who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL

Dothiepin

 

Doxepin

 

Doxorubicin

 

Doxorubicin Pegylated Liposomal

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer in women who have failed a firstline platinumbased chemotherapy regimen

 

 

Metastatic breast cancer, as monotherapy, after failure of prior therapy which includes capecitabine and a taxane

 

 

Metastatic breast cancer, as monotherapy, where therapy with capecitabine or a taxane is contraindicated

Doxycycline

 

In respect of the tablet 100 mg (as monohydrate), tablet 100 mg (as hydrochloride) and capsule 100 mg (as hydrochloride) (containing enteric coated pellets):

 

 

In respect of the tablet 50 mg (as monohydrate), tablet 50 mg (as hydrochloride) and capsule 50 mg (as hydrochloride) (containing enteric coated pellets):

Bronchiectasis in patients aged 8 years or older

 

 

Chronic bronchitis in patients aged 8 years or older

 

 

Severe acne

Drotrecogin Alfa (activated)

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Adult patients with severe sepsis who have a high risk of death as determined by acute dysfunction in at least 2 organs or modified Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II score of at least 25, where acute organ dysfunction is defined as follows:

 

 

 For cardiovascularsystem dysfunction, an arterial systolic blood pressure of less than or equal to 90 mmHg or mean arterial pressure of less than or equal to 70 mmHg for at least 1 hour despite adequate fluid resuscitation, adequate intravascular volume status or the use of vasopressors in an attempt to maintain a systolic blood pressure of greater than or equal to 90 mmHg or a mean arterial pressure of greater than or equal to 70 mmHg;

 

 

 For kidney dysfunction, urine output of less than 0.5 mL per kg of body weight per hour for 1 hour despite adequate fluid resuscitation;

 

 

 For respiratorysystem dysfunction, a ratio of partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (in mmHg) to the percentage of oxygen in the inspired air (expressed as a decimal) of less than or equal to 250;

 

 

 For haematologic dysfunction, a platelet count of less than 80,000 per cubic millimetre or which has decreased by 50 percent in the previous 3 days;

 

 

 In the case of unexplained metabolic acidosis, a pH of less than or equal to 7.30 or a base deficit of greater than or equal to 5.0 mmol per L in association with a plasma lactate level of greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of the normal value for the reporting laboratory

Duloxetine

 

Major depressive disorders

Dydrogesterone

 

Efalizumab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

 (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and

 

 

 (b) have not received any prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBSsubsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

 (c) have signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBSsubsidised treatment, as outlined in the relevant restriction for continuing PBSsubsidised treatment; and

 

 

 (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments:

 

 

 (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks;

 

 

 unless the patient has had a break in PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment, and is demonstrable in the patient at the time of the authority application;

 

 

 a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment;

 

 

 the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

 if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

 if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

 (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

 (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

 

 

 (iii) the signed patient acknowledgement;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with efalizumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

 (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and

 

 

 (b) have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 (c) have not failed PBSsubsidised therapy with efalizumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with efalizumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBSsubsidised efalizumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment;

 

 

 patients who demonstrate a response to a 12week course of PBSsubsidised treatment with etanercept and wish to transfer to treatment with efalizumab are not eligible to commence treatment with efalizumab until they have completed a period free from PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment of at least 12 weeks duration, immediately following cessation of the etanercept treatment course;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

 (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

 (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with efalizumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over:

 

 

 (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and

 

 

 (b) whose most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with efalizumab; and

 

 

 (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with efalizumab; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 an adequate response to efalizumab treatment is defined as a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this Treatment Cycle established prior to biological agent treatment;

 

 

 the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline pretreatment PASI score;

 

 

 the assessment of response is conducted following at least 12 weeks of therapy, in the case of a 16week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date the course of treatment ceased;

 

 

 patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBSsubsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless the response assessment is undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet along with the date of the assessment of the patients condition;

 

 

 a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

 (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and

 

 

 (b) have not received any prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBSsubsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

 (c) have signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBSsubsidised treatment, as outlined in the relevant restriction for continuing PBSsubsidised treatment; and

 

 

 (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments:

 

 

 (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

 (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks;

 

 

 unless the patient has had a break in PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrable in the patient at the time of the authority application and is indicated by chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where:

 

 

 (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or

 

 

 (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

 

 

 a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment;

 

 

 the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

 if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

 if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

 (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

 (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

 

 

 (iii) the signed patient acknowledgement;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with efalizumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

 (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and

 

 

 (b) have received prior PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 (c) have not failed PBSsubsidised therapy with efalizumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBSsubsidised treatment with efalizumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBSsubsidised efalizumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment;

 

 

 patients who demonstrate a response to a 12week course of PBSsubsidised treatment with etanercept and wish to transfer to treatment with efalizumab are not eligible to commence treatment with efalizumab until they have completed a period free from PBSsubsidised biological agent treatment of at least 12 weeks duration, immediately following cessation of the etanercept treatment course;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

 (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

 (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment;

 

 

 a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with efalizumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over:

 

 

 (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and

 

 

 (b) whose most recent course of PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with efalizumab; and

 

 

 (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with efalizumab; and

 

 

 where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

 where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBSsubsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBSsubsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBSsubsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 an adequate response to efalizumab treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological agent treatment showing:

 

 

 (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values established prior to biological agent treatment; or

 

 

 (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value established prior to biological agent treatment;

 

 

 the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline pretreatment PASI score;

 

 

 the assessment of response is conducted following at least 12 weeks of therapy, in the case of a 16week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date the course of treatment ceased;

 

 

 patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBSsubsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless the response assessment is undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams along with the date of the assessment of the patients condition;

 

 

 a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

Eformoterol

 

Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids

 

 

Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids

Electrolyte Replacement, Oral

 

Electrolyte Replacement, Solution

 

Enalapril

 

Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with 20 mg enalapril maleate

Enoxaparin

 

Entacapone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2067

 Parkinsons disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations who are experiencing fluctuations in motor function due to endofdose effect

Epirubicin

 

Eplerenone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2637

 Heart failure with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% or less occurring within 3 to 14 days following an acute myocardial infarction, where treatment with eplerenone commences within 14 days of the acute myocardial infarction, and where the date of the acute myocardial infarction and the date of initiation of eplerenone treatment are documented in the patients medical records when PBSsubsidised treatment is initiated

Eprosartan

 

Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or eprosartan mesylate monotherapy

Eptifibatide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1884

 Patients undergoing nonurgent percutaneous intervention with intracoronary stenting

Erythromycin

 

Escitalopram

 

In respect of the tablet 10 mg (as oxalate) and tablet 20 mg (as oxalate):

Major depressive disorders

 

 

In respect of the oral solution 10 mg (as oxalate) per mL, 28 mL:

Major depressive disorders

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Major depressive disorders, where adverse events have occurred with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Major depressive disorders, where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Major depressive disorders, where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Major depressive disorders, where transfer to another suitable drug available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance

 

 

Major depressive disorders, where transfer to another suitable drug available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences

Esomeprazole

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 20 mg (as magnesium trihydrate):

Initial treatment of gastric ulcer

 

 

Maintenance of healed gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 40 mg (as magnesium trihydrate):

Healing of gastrooesophageal reflux disease

Esomeprazole and Clarithromycin and Amoxycillin

 

Eradication of Helicobacter pylori associated with peptic ulcer disease

Essential amino acids formula with minerals and vitamin C

 

Gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina

 

 

Urea cycle disorders

Etanercept

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

(a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and

 

 

(b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(c) have signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the relevant restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment; and

 

 

(d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments:

 

 

(i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks;

 

 

unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment, and is demonstrable in the patient at the time of the authority application;

 

 

a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment;

 

 

the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

 

 

(iii) the signed patient acknowledgement;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

(a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and

 

 

(b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent 12-week course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

(ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over:

 

 

(a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and

 

 

(b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and

 

 

(c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with etanercept; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

an adequate response to etanercept treatment is defined as a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the baseline value for this Treatment Cycle established prior to biological agent treatment;

 

 

the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline pre-treatment PASI score;

 

 

the assessment of response is conducted at the completion of the 12-week treatment course and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date the course of treatment ceased;

 

 

patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless the response assessment is undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above;

 

 

patients who demonstrate a response to a 12-week course of PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept are not eligible to commence further treatment with etanercept until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised biological agent therapy of at least 12 weeks duration, immediately following cessation of that course of treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet along with the date of the assessment of the patients condition;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

(a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and

 

 

(b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(c) have signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the relevant restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment; and

 

 

(d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments:

 

 

(i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or

 

 

(iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks;

 

 

unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrable in the patient at the time of the authority application and is indicated by chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where:

 

 

(i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or

 

 

(ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

 

 

a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment;

 

 

the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

(ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and

 

 

(iii) the signed patient acknowledgement;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who:

 

 

(a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and

 

 

(b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent 12-week course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patients condition; and

 

 

(ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over:

 

 

(a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and

 

 

(b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and

 

 

(c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with etanercept; and

 

 

where biological agent means efalizumab, etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with each of the 3 biological agents once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

an adequate response to etanercept treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological agent treatment showing:

 

 

(i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline values established prior to biological agent treatment; or

 

 

(ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the baseline value established prior to biological agent treatment;

 

 

the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline pre-treatment PASI score;

 

 

the assessment of response is conducted at the completion of the 12-week treatment course and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date the course of treatment ceased

 

 

patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless the response assessment is undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above;

 

 

patients who demonstrate a response to a 12-week course of PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept are not eligible to commence further treatment with etanercept until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised biological agent therapy of at least 12 weeks duration, immediately following cessation of that course of treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams along with the date of the assessment of the patients condition;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 12 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 12 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 12 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) have not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly, have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate (at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly) in combination with 2 other non-biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) for a minimum of 3 months, and have failed to achieve an adequate response following a minimum of 3 months treatment with leflunomide alone or with leflunomide in combination with methotrexate or with cyclosporin alone, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 non-biological DMARD, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 months; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (c) above is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L, and either a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints, or at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

all tests and assessments should be performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment;

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (c) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (c) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the patients ESR and CRP measurements, and an assessment of the patients active joint count, conducted no earlier than 1 month prior to the date of application, and a signed patient acknowledgment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept during this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD Treatment Cycle with that therapy;

 

 

patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 bDMARDs within this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

patients who have previously commenced, and subsequently ceased, PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this bDMARD Treatment Cycle are eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle provided that:

 

 

(i) they have demonstrated an adequate response, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment; and

 

 

(ii) the response was assessed, and the assessment was provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the date that course ceased; and

 

 

(iii) the response was assessed following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment was a 16-week initial treatment course; and

 

 

(iv) response to treatment was determined using the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment;

 

 

patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with etanercept are not eligible to commence treatment with etanercept until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and, in the case of patients recommencing therapy with etanercept in this Treatment Cycle, evidence of the patients response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept therapy;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, for up to 4 months, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of patients aged 18 years or older with a documented history of severe active polyarticular course juvenile chronic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years, and who have signed a patient agreement form indicating that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if their response to treatment as assessed against the predetermined response criteria does not support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment; and

 

 

where the patient has failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly, has failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate in combination with 2 other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs for a minimum of 3 months, and has subsequently failed to achieve an adequate response following a minimum of 3 months treatment with leflunomide alone or leflunomide in combination with methotrexate or cyclosporin alone, unless treatment with any of the above-mentioned drugs is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal develops during the relevant period of use, in which case the patient is exempted from demonstrating an inadequate response to the above treatment regimens; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg per L, and either an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints or at least 4 active joints from the following list:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender);

 

 

— shoulder, cervical spine or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein level cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

the authority application includes sufficient information to determine the patients eligibility according to the above criteria and the date of joint assessment;

 

 

where the patient is exempted from demonstrating an inadequate response to the treatment regimens specified above, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance, including the degree of toxicity

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Initial treatment, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of patients aged 18 years or older with a documented history of severe active polyarticular course juvenile chronic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years, who have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 4 months, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 4 months of uninterrupted therapy

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment with etanercept within an ongoing biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults:

 

 

(a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and

 

 

(b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with etanercept; and

 

 

(c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment in this bDMARD Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and

 

 

where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, etanercept, infliximab or rituximab; and

 

 

where a bDMARD Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive bDMARDs which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a bDMARD for rheumatoid arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 bDMARD, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with a maximum of 3 bDMARDs, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients who commenced PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment prior to 1 March 2008 are deemed to have commenced their first bDMARD treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

an adequate response to treatment is defined as an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and either a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints, or a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment are used to determine response;

 

 

a patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course of treatment ceased; and

 

 

(b) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept, where response is assessed, and this assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course;

 

 

if the most recent course of etanercept therapy was a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course;

 

 

the patient has not failed to demonstrate response to a course of PBS-subsidised etanercept in this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing bDMARD Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial PBS-subsidised supply for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of patients aged 18 years or older with a documented history of severe active polyarticular course juvenile chronic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years, who were receiving treatment with etanercept prior to 1 December 2002, who have signed a patient agreement form indicating that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if their response to treatment as assessed against predetermined response criteria does not support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment, and who have demonstrated a response as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept; and where the authority application includes sufficient information to determine the patients eligibility for treatment and the date of assessment of the patient

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of patients aged 18 years or older with a documented history of severe active polyarticular course juvenile chronic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years, who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with etanercept as manifested by an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and an active joint count of fewer than 10 active (swollen and tender) joints or a reduction in the active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline or a reduction in the number of the following active joints, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as swollen and tender);

 

 

— shoulder, cervical spine or hip (assessed as pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

the authority application includes sufficient information to determine the patients response to treatment with etanercept according to the above criteria and the date of assessment of the patient;

 

 

patients who have previously ceased treatment with etanercept due to failure to demonstrate an adequate response to treatment are not eligible to recommence treatment until a period of 12 months has elapsed since cessation of the previous treatment;

 

 

authority applications for re-treatment with etanercept following a break in PBS-subsidised treatment with the drug include the reason for and date of cessation of the previous treatment course

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and:

 

 

(a) who has not received any treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab subsidised under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS), or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with one of these drugs, has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for this condition for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last course of PBS-subsidised treatment was approved; and

 

 

(b) who has at least 2 of the following:

 

 

(i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; or

 

 

(ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); or

 

 

(iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; and

 

 

(c) who has failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of at least 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept and infliximab of at least 5 years duration, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 NSAID, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 consecutive months; and

 

 

(d) who has signed a patient acknowledgment form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept and infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by:

 

 

(a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale, where the BASDAI score is determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment, and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; and

 

 

(b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L;

 

 

both ESR and CRP measurements are included in the authority application and are no more than 1 month old;

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reason why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

the authority application includes details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment;

 

 

if the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, the authority application includes the reason why a higher dose cannot be used;

 

 

if treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the nature and severity of this intolerance;

 

 

an appropriate minimum exercise program includes stretch and range of motion exercises at least 5 times per week, and either aerobic exercise of at least 20 minutes duration at least 3 times per week or a group exercise class at least once per week;

 

 

if a patient is unable to complete the minimum exercise program, the authority application includes the clinical reasons for this and details what, if any, exercise program has been followed;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes:

 

 

(a) a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

(i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and

 

 

(ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and

 

 

(iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; and

 

 

(iv) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form detailing the program followed and the dates over which it was followed, and including confirmation by the prescribing doctor that, to the best of their knowledge, the patient has followed the exercise program detailed;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for this condition and has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

a patient who commenced PBS-subsidised treatment of ankylosing spondylitis with etanercept or infliximab prior to 1 March 2007 is deemed to have commenced their first treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed BASDAI Assessment Form with certification by the prescriber and the patient that the patient did not have access to their baseline BASDAI at the time of their assessment;

 

 

the application is accompanied by the results of the patients most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab therapy, where:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and

 

 

(b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16 week initial course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or

 

 

(ii) if the course of therapy is a 6 week initial course approved prior to 1 March 2007, the assessment of response is made following at least 4 weeks of treatment;

 

 

if the response assessment to the previous course of treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has demonstrated a response to treatment with etanercept, and whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle was with etanercept; and

 

 

where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with each of the 3 drugs once, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment with adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab for ankylosing spondylitis and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

a patient who commenced PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept or infliximab prior to 1 March 2007 is deemed to have commenced their first treatment cycle with that therapy;

 

 

response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 in the patients Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and 1 of the following:

 

 

(a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

 

 

(b) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or

 

 

(c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline;

 

 

if the patient commenced treatment with etanercept prior to 1 July 2004, was commenced on PBS-subsidised treatment prior to 1 March 2007 and is continuing to receive PBS-subsidised treatment in their first treatment cycle, and where pre-treatment baselines are not available, response to treatment is defined as a BASDAI score no more than 20% greater than the score included in the initial application for PBS-subsidised treatment, or no greater than 2, and 1 of the following:

 

 

(a) an ESR measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or

 

 

(b) a CRP measurement no greater than 10 mg per L;

 

 

all measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application;

 

 

the same acute phase reactant used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial treatment course is measured and supplied for all subsequent continuing treatment applications for the patient;

 

 

patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with a course of PBS-subsidised therapy, despite demonstrating a response as defined above, unless:

 

 

(a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course of treatment ceased; and

 

 

(b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16 week initial course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or

 

 

(ii) if the course of therapy is a 6 week initial course approved prior to 1 March 2007, the assessment of response is made following at least 4 weeks of treatment;

 

 

the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a completed BASDAI Assessment Form with certification by the prescriber and the patient that the patient did not have access to their baseline BASDAI at the time of their continuing treatment assessment;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) have not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and

 

 

(3) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months and to either sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to achieve an adequate response to treatment with methotrexate or sulfasalazine or leflunomide, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 months; and

 

 

(4) have had the psoriatic component of their disease confirmed by a dermatologist or by biopsy at any time; and

 

 

(5) have signed a patient acknowledgement form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (3) above is demonstrated by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L, and either an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints, or at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied;

 

 

if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (3) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication;

 

 

if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (3) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes details of the patients ESR and CRP measurements, and an assessment of the patients active joint count, conducted no earlier than 1 month prior to the date of application, and a copy of the signed patient acknowledgment form;

 

 

a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and who are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

(3) have not failed treatment with etanercept during the current Treatment Cycle; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

patients are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents within this Treatment Cycle;

 

 

patients who have previously commenced, and subsequently ceased, PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle are eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle if:

 

 

(i) they have demonstrated an adequate response, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept, to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment; and

 

 

(ii) the response was assessed, and the assessment was provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the date that course ceased; and

 

 

(iii) the response was assessed following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment was a 16-week initial treatment course; and

 

 

(iv) response to treatment was determined using the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form;

 

 

a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle, with an initial PBS-subsidised course of etanercept for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist or by an immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who:

 

 

(1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) were receiving treatment with etanercept prior to 17 March 2005; and

 

 

(3) have demonstrated a response to etanercept treatment as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept; and

 

 

(4) have signed a patient acknowledgement form declaring that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not demonstrate the response to treatment required to support continuation of PBS-subsidised treatment at any assessment where a response must be demonstrated; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes a copy of the signed patient acknowledgement form;

 

 

the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment;

 

 

patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment within an ongoing Biological Treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults:

 

 

(1) who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and

 

 

(2) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in the current Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and

 

 

(3) who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with etanercept; and

 

 

where biological agent means adalimumab or etanercept or infliximab; and

 

 

where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and

 

 

where the following conditions apply:

 

 

an adequate response to treatment with etanercept is defined as an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a
C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline, and either a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints, or a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%:

 

 

— elbow, wrist, knee or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or

 

 

— shoulder or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth);

 

 

the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of treatment are used to determine response;

 

 

the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept, where response is assessed, and this assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO, no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of that treatment course;

 

 

if the most recent course of etanercept therapy was a 16 week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course;

 

 

a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total

Ethacrynic Acid

 

Patients hypersensitive to other oral diuretics

Ethosuximide

 

Etidronic Acid

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1849

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone when salcatonin has been found to be unsatisfactory due to lack of efficacy

 

1850

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone when salcatonin has been found to be unsatisfactory due to unacceptable side effects

 

1153

 Heterotopic ossification

Etidronic Acid and Calcium

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2646

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Etonogestrel

 

Etoposide

 

Everolimus

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with everolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with cardiac transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with everolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

Exemestane

 

Treatment of hormonedependent advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women with disease progression following treatment with tamoxifen citrate

 

 

Treatment of hormonedependent early breast cancer in postmenopausal women following a minimum of 2 years treatment with tamoxifen citrate

Ezetimibe

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2649

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2650

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with diabetes mellitus whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2651

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with peripheral vascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2652

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2653

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2667

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with family history of coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

2668

 Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when coadministered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with hypertension whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated

 

1989

 For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients where treatment with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) is contraindicated

 

2669

 For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients where treatment with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) must be discontinued or reduced to a dose of 20 mg or less per day because the patient developed a clinically important productrelated adverse event during treatment with a statin, and where a clinically important productrelated adverse event is defined as follows:

 

 

 Severe myalgia (muscle symptoms without creatine kinase elevation) which is proven to be temporally associated with statin treatment; or

 

 

 Myositis (clinically important creatine kinase elevation, with or without muscle symptoms) demonstrated by results twice the upper limit of normal on a single reading or a rising pattern on consecutive measurements and which is unexplained by other causes; or

 

 

 Unexplained, persistent elevations of serum transaminases (greater than 3 times the upper limit of normal) during treatment with a statin

 

1991

 Homozygous sitosterolaemia

 

2438

 For use in accordance with paragraph 16, in combination with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia

Ezetimibe with Simvastatin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2654

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2655

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with diabetes mellitus whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2656

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with peripheral vascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2657

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2658

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2678

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with family history of coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2679

 Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with hypertension whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where:

 

 

 (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as:

 

 

 (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or

 

 

 (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and

 

 

 (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patients medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and

 

 

 (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated

 

2431

 For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia

Famciclovir

 

In respect of the tablet 125 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

In respect of the tablet 250 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash

 

 

Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

In respect of the tablet 500 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of immunocompromised patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash

 

 

Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes in immunocompromised patients, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and a CD4 cell count of less than 500 million per L, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and a CD4 cell count of less than 150 million per L, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and other opportunistic infections or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome defining tumours, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

Famotidine

 

Felodipine

 

Fenofibrate

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Fentanyl

 

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid

 

Ferrous Sulfate

 

Flecainide

 

Serious supraventricular cardiac arrhythmias

 

 

Serious ventricular cardiac arrhythmias where treatment is initiated in a hospital (inpatient or outpatient)

Flucloxacillin

 

In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium), capsule 500 mg (as sodium), powder for oral liquid 125 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL, powder for oral suspension 250 mg (as magnesium) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral liquid 250 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL:

Serious staphylococcal infections

 

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium):

Fluconazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis in patients unable to take or tolerate amphotericin

 

 

Maintenance therapy in patients with cryptococcal meningitis and immunosuppression

 

 

Treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients

 

 

Treatment of oesophageal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients

 

 

Secondary prophylaxis of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients

 

 

Treatment of serious and lifethreatening candida infections in patients unable to tolerate amphotericin

Fludrocortisone

 

Fluorometholone

 

Fluorouracil

 

Fluoxetine

 

Major depressive disorders

 

 

Obsessivecompulsive disorder

Flupenthixol Decanoate

 

Fluphenazine Decanoate

 

Flurbiprofen

 

Flutamide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophinreleasing hormone (luteinising hormonereleasing hormone) agonist therapy

Fluticasone

 

Fluticasone with Salmeterol

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 50 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFCfree formulation), pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 125 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFCfree formulation), powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 100 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 250 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses:

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate

 

 

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate

 

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 250 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFCfree formulation) and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 500 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses:

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate

 

 

Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate

 

 

Symptomatic treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), where the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is less than 50% predicted normal and there is a history of repeated exacerbations with significant symptoms despite regular beta2 agonist bronchodilator therapy

Fluvastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Fluvoxamine

 

Major depressive disorders

 

 

Obsessivecompulsive disorder

Folic Acid

 

Folinic acid

 

In respect of the tablet containing calcium folinate equivalent to 15 mg folinic acid:

Antidote to folic acid antagonists

 

 

In respect of the injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 50 mg folinic acid in 5 mL, injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 100 mg folinic acid in 10 mL and injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 300 mg folinic acid in 30 mL:

Follitropin Alfa

 

In respect of the injection set containing 1 vial powder for injection 75 I.U. and 1 prefilled syringe solvent 1 mL and injection set containing 1 vial powder for injection 1,050 I.U. and 1 prefilled syringe solvent 2 mL:

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

In respect of the injection set containing 10 vials powder for injection 75 I.U. and 10 prefilled syringes solvent 1 mL, injection 300 I.U. in 0.5 mL multidose cartridge, injection set containing 1 vial powder for injection 450 I.U. and 1 prefilled syringe solvent 1 mL, injection 450 I.U. in 0.75 mL multidose cartridge and injection 900 I.U. in 1.5 mL multidose cartridge:

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

In combination with chorionic gonadotrophin, for the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, following failure of 6 months treatment with chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis

Follitropin Beta

 

Anovulatory infertility

 

 

In combination with chorionic gonadotrophin, for the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, following failure of 6 months treatment with chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis

Fondaparinux

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2005

 Prevention of venous thromboembolic events in patients undergoing major hip surgery

 

2006

 Prevention of venous thromboembolic events in patients undergoing total knee replacement

Fosinopril

 

Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or fosinopril sodium monotherapy

Fotemustine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic malignant melanoma

Framycetin

 

Frusemide

 

Fusidic Acid

 

For use in combination with another antibiotic in the treatment of proven serious staphylococcal infections

Gabapentin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2664

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

Galantamine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patients baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patients baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where:

 

 

(1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by:

 

 

(a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or

 

 

(b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and

 

 

(2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

Gefitinib

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy, of locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation (WHO) performance status of 2 or less, where:

 

 

(1) disease progression has occurred following treatment with at least 1 chemotherapy agent; and

 

 

(2) there is evidence that the patient has an activating mutation, or mutations, of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene in tumour material, and the mutation(s) are demonstrated by analysis of the DNA sequence of the EGFR gene; and

 

 

(3) the authority application includes the following:

 

 

(i) a completed copy of the appropriate Gefitinib (Iressa) PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

(ii) details of the prior chemotherapy including the name(s) of drug(s) and date of the most recent treatment cycle; and

 

 

(iii) details of the patients WHO performance status; and

 

 

(iv) a copy of the pathology report providing evidence of the presence of activating mutation(s) of the EGFR gene from an Approved Pathology Authority

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment, as monotherapy, of locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for gefitinib

Gelatin Succinylated

 

Gemcitabine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Advanced breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline

 

 

Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer, in combination with carboplatin, in patients who relapse more than 6 months after platinumbased therapy

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic bladder cancer, when used in combination with cisplatin

Gemfibrozil

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Gentamicin

 

In respect of the injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL:

 

 

In respect of the eye drops 3 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 5 mL:

Invasive ocular infection

 

 

Perioperative use in ophthalmic surgery

 

 

Suspected pseudomonal eye infection

Gestrinone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of visually proven endometriosis where the duration of treatment provided for by this prescription, in combination with any previous prescriptions, does not exceed 6 months uninterrupted therapy

Glatiramer

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient

 

 

Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy

Glibenclamide

 

Gliclazide

 

Glimepiride

 

Glipizide

 

Glucagon

 

Glucose

 

Glucose and Ketone Indicator—Urine

 

Glucose Indicator—Blood

 

In respect of the electrode strips, 50 (AccuChek Performa), electrode strips, 50 (Advantage II), electrode strips, 50 (Freestyle Papillon), electrode strips, 50 (Glucoboy), electrode strips, 50 (Glucocard 01 Sensor), electrode strips, 50 (GlucoCare Super Sensor), electrode strips, 50 (GlucoOz), electrode strips, 50 (MWD Pen Sensor Strips), electrode strips, 50 (Omnitest EZ), electrode strips, 50 (Omnitest Plus), electrode strips, 50 (Optium Omega), electrode strips, 50 (TouchIn Plus), electrode strips, 50 (TrueTrack), electrode strips, 100 (FreeStyle Lite), electrode strips, 100 (Optium glucose), electrode strips, 100 (SofTact), electrode strips, 100 (TrueSense), reagent strips, 50 (AccuChek Active), reagent strips, 50 (AccuChek Go), reagent strips, 51 (AccuChek Integra), reagent strips, 50 (Betachek), reagent strips, 50 (Betachek G5), reagent strips, 50 (CareSens), reagent strips, 50 (GlucoflexR), reagent strips, 50 (Glucostix) and reagent strips, 50 (SensoCard):

 

 

In respect of the  electrode strips, 100 (Precision Plus):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1769

 Patients who have previously received this product as a pharmaceutical benefit

 

1770

 Patients who have purchased a meter to be used with this product prior to 1 August 2003

Glucose Indicator—Urine

 

Glycerol

 

Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function

 

 

Patients who are receiving longterm nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities

 

 

For use by a patient who is receiving longterm nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult

 

 

Patients receiving palliative care

 

 

Terminal malignant neoplasia

 

 

Anorectal congenital abnormalities

 

 

Megacolon

Glyceryl Trinitrate

 

Goserelin

 

In respect of the subcutaneous implant 3.6 mg (as acetate) in prefilled injection syringe:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate

 

 

Hormonedependent locally advanced (equivalent to stage III) or metastatic (equivalent to stage IV) breast cancer in premenopausal women

 

 

Treatment of visually proven endometriosis where the duration of treatment provided for by this prescription, in combination with any previous prescriptions, does not exceed 6 months uninterrupted therapy

 

 

In respect of the subcutaneous implant (long acting) 10.8 mg (as acetate) in prefilled injection syringe:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate

Goserelin and Bicalutamide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma in patients for whom a combination of an antiandrogen and a gonadotrophinreleasing hormone (luteinising hormonereleasing hormone) agonist is required

Granisetron

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy

Griseofulvin

 

Haloperidol

 

Haloperidol Decanoate

 

Heparin

 

Hexamine

 

Homatropine

 

Hydralazine

 

Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride

 

Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene

 

Hydrocortisone

 

In respect of the tablet 4 mg, tablet 20 mg, injection 100 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent, injection 250 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent, eye ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 5 mg per g, 5 g and eye ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 5 g:

 

 

In respect of the cream 10 mg per g, 50 g, cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g, cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g, ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g and ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g:

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

 

 

In respect of the rectal foam containing hydrocortisone acetate 90 mg per applicatorful, 14 applications, aerosol 21.1 g:

Proctitis

 

 

Ulcerative colitis

Hydromorphone

 

In respect of the tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg and oral liquid containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 1 mg per mL, 473 mL:

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

 

In respect of the injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg in 1 mL, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 10 mg in 1 mL, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 50 mg in 5 mL and injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 500 mg in 50 mL:

Hydroxocobalamin

 

Pernicious anaemia

 

 

Other proven vitamin B12 deficiencies

 

 

Prophylaxis after gastrectomy

Hydroxychloroquine

 

Hydroxyurea

 

Hypromellose

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Hypromellose with Carbomer 980

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Hypromellose with Dextran

 

In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 4500 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, 15 mL:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

 

In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 2900 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 28:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1359

 Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Ibuprofen

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

 

In respect of the tablet 400 mg:

Idarubicin

 

Acute myelogenous leukaemia

Ifosfamide

 

Relapsed or refractory germ cell tumours following firstline chemotherapy

 

 

Relapsed or refractory sarcomas following firstline chemotherapy

Imatinib

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial PBSsubsidised treatment, for up to 3 months, of adult patients with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour which has been histologically confirmed by the detection of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 patients who have not previously been treated with imatinib mesylate for a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour commence treatment at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day for at least 3 months;

 

 

 patients who have previously been treated with nonPBSsubsidised imatinib mesylate for a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour are eligible to receive up to 3 months treatment at a dose of up to 600 mg per day;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour Supporting Information Form which includes the following:

 

 

 (i) a copy of a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority supporting the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and confirming the presence of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; and

 

 

 (ii) a copy of the most recent (within 2 months of the application) computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound assessment of the tumour or tumours, including whether or not there is evidence of metastatic disease; and

 

 

 (iii) where the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of an unresectable tumour, written evidence in support of that claim; and

 

 

 (iv) for patients who commenced treatment with imatinib mesylate for a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour prior to 1 December 2004, the date on which therapy with imatinib mesylate was commenced

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing PBSsubsidised treatment, at a dose of up to 600 mg per day, of adult patients with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour who have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment of patients in the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcrabl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 treatment under this restriction is limited to a maximum of 18 months of therapy from the date the first application for initial treatment is approved;

 

 

 the application for authorisation includes:

 

 

 (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Supporting Information form; and

 

 

 (2) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the bcrabl transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow; and

 

 

 (3) a copy of a signed patient acknowledgement form indicating that the patient understands and acknowledges that PBSsubsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate for the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia will cease if subsequent testing demonstrates that:

 

 

 (i) the patient has failed to achieve a major cytogenetic response within the initial 18 months of treatment; or

 

 

 (ii) the patient has failed to sustain a major cytogenetic response for 12 months from the date of the last pathology report that indicated that a major cytogenetic response had been achieved;

 

 

 the patient is not receiving concomitant PBSsubsidised interferon alfa therapy

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment of patients who have received initial treatment with imatinib mesylate as a pharmaceutical benefit for the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia and who have demonstrated either a major cytogenetic response or less than 1% bcrabl level in the blood in the preceding 12 months; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 a major cytogenetic response is defined as less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells;

 

 

 a peripheral blood bcrabl level of less than 1% on the international scale (Blood 108: 2837, 2006) indicates a response, at least the biological equivalent of a major cytogenetic response;

 

 

 response to PBSsubsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate is assessed by:

 

 

 (1) cytogenetic analysis indicating the number of Philadelphia positive [t (9;22)] cells in the bone marrow measured by standard karyotyping, or, in the case where standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with bcrabl specific probe; or

 

 

 (2) quantitative PCR indicating the relative level of bcrabl transcript in the peripheral blood using the international scale;

 

 

 the cytogenetic or peripheral blood quantitative PCR analyses demonstrating response are submitted as follows:

 

 

 (i) between 10 and 12 months of the commencement of treatment with imatinib mesylate, at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcrabl level of less than 1% has been demonstrated are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment; and

 

 

 (ii) within 18 months of the commencement of treatment with imatinib mesylate, in patients who have failed to demonstrate a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcrabl level of less than 1% at between 10 and 12 months (at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcrabl level of less than 1% is demonstrable by 18 months are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment); and

 

 

 (iii) at no greater than 12 month intervals thereafter, to demonstrate that the major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcrabl level of less than 1% has been sustained;

 

 

 the authority application includes:

 

 

 (1) demonstration of continued response to treatment as evidenced by:

 

 

 (a) a copy of the cytogenetic analysis showing a major cytogenetic response, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; or

 

 

 (b) a copy of the quantitative PCR analysis showing a peripheral blood level of bcrabl of less than 1% on the international scale, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; and

 

 

 (2) if the cytogenetic analysis submitted with the application was conducted using FISH with bcrabl specific probe because standard karyotyping was not informative, a copy of the noninformative standard karyotype analysis;

 

 

 a patient who has previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate and has at any time failed to meet the criteria for continuing treatment of chronic myeloid leukaemia in the chronic phase, is not eligible for PBSsubsidised retreatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Treatment of patients in the accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcrabl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and

 

 

 where progress to the accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following:

 

 

 (1) percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or

 

 

 (2) percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or

 

 

 (3) peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or

 

 

 (4) progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or

 

 

 (5) karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome); and

 

 

 where the application for authorisation includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Supporting Information form, stating which of the above criteria are satisfied by the patient; and

 

 

 (b) a copy of the confirming pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority in the case of criteria (1), (2), (3) and (5) above, or details of the dates of assessments in the case of progressive splenomegaly

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Treatment of patients in the blast phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcrabl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and

 

 

 where progress to myeloid blast crisis is defined as either:

 

 

 (1) percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or

 

 

 (2) extramedullary involvement other than spleen and liver; and

 

 

 where the application for authorisation includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Supporting Information form, stating which of the above criteria are satisfied by the patient; and

 

 

 (b) a copy of the confirming pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority in the case of criterion (1) above, or details of the date of assessment in the case of extramedullary involvement

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcrabl tyrosine kinase, where the patient has previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate of the accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcrabl tyrosine kinase, where the patient has previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate of the blast phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment in combination with chemotherapy as induction or consolidation of a newly diagnosed patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCRABL; and

 

 

 where the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Imatinib PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, with either cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCRABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow, along with the date of the relevant report; and

 

 

 (c) a signed patient acknowledgement

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript BCRABL who was previously treated with imatinib mesylate under the Imatinib Compassionate Program and who meets all the PBS criteria; and

 

 

 where the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Imatinib PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, with either cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCRABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow, along with the date of the relevant report; and

 

 

 (c) a signed patient acknowledgement

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment in combination with chemotherapy as maintenance of first complete remission of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCRABL;

 where PBSsubsidised imatinib mesylate is available with a lifetime maximum of 24 months of therapy for patients with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

Imipramine

 

Imiquimod

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of biopsy confirmed primary (previously untreated) superficial basal cell carcinoma (sBCC) in patients with normal immune function for whom surgical excision, cryotherapy, or curettage with diathermy are inappropriate and topical drug therapy is required, and where the date of the pathology report and name of the Approved Pathology Authority are included in the authority application

Indapamide

 

Indomethacin

 

In respect of the capsule 25 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

 

In respect of the suppository 100 mg:

Influenza Vaccine

 

In respect of the injection containing inactivated, split virion influenza vaccine, 0.25 mL of which contains antigens representative of the following types: A/Solomon Islands/3/2006 (H1N1)like strain 7.5 micrograms haemagglutinin; A/Brisbane/10/2007 (H3N2)like strain 7.5 micrograms haemagglutinin; B/Florida/4/2006like strain 7.5 micrograms haemagglutinin; 0.25 mL prefilled syringe:

Children up to 35 months of age at increased risk of adverse consequences from infections of the lower respiratory tract

 

 

In respect of the injection containing inactivated, split virion influenza vaccine, 0.5 mL of which contains antigens representative of the following types: A/Solomon Islands/3/2006 (H1N1)like strain 15 micrograms haemagglutinin; A/Brisbane/10/2007 (H3N2)like strain 15 micrograms haemagglutinin; B/Florida/4/2006like strain 15 micrograms haemagglutinin; 0.5 mL prefilled syringe:

Persons at special risk of adverse consequences from infections of the lower respiratory tract

Insect Allergen Extract—Honey Bee Venom

 

Insect Allergen Extract—Paper Wasp Venom

 

Insect Allergen Extract—Yellow Jacket Venom

 

Insulin Aspart

 

Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension

 

Insulin Detemir

 

Type 1 diabetes

Insulin Glargine

 

Insulin Glulisine

 

Insulin Isophane

 

Insulin Lispro

 

Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension

 

Insulin Neutral

 

Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane

 

Interferon Alfa2a

 

In respect of the injection 3,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

 

 

Myeloproliferative disease with excessive thrombocytosis

 

 

Low grade nonHodgkins lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracyclinebased chemotherapy

 

 

In respect of the injection 4,500,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe, injection 6,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe and injection 9,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose prefilled syringe:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Myeloproliferative disease with excessive thrombocytosis

 

 

Low grade nonHodgkins lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracyclinebased chemotherapy

Interferon Alfa2b

 

In respect of the solution for injection 18,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multidose injection pen:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Hairy cell leukaemia

 

 

Maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma once remission has been achieved with chemotherapy

 

 

Low grade nonHodgkins lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracyclinebased chemotherapy

 

 

In respect of the solution for injection 30,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multidose injection pen:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma once remission has been achieved with chemotherapy

 

 

Low grade nonHodgkins lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracyclinebased chemotherapy

Interferon Beta1a

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient

 

 

Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy

Interferon Beta1b

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient

 

 

Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsingremitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy

Ipratropium

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing ipratropium bromide 21 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation):

 

 

In respect of the nebuliser solution containing ipratropium bromide 250 micrograms (anhydrous) in 1 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser solution containing ipratropium bromide 500 micrograms (anhydrous) in 1 mL single dose units, 30

Asthma in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer

Irbesartan

 

Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or irbesartan monotherapy

Irinotecan

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic colorectal cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less

Iron Polymaltose Complex

 

Iron Sucrose

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2070

 Iron deficiency anaemia, when used in combination with either epoetin alfa or darbepoetin alfa, in patients undergoing chronic haemodialysis who have had a documented hypersensitivity reaction to iron polymaltose and in whom continued intravenous iron therapy is appropriate

Isoleucine with carbohydrate

 

Maple syrup urine disease

Isoniazid

 

Isosorbide Dinitrate

 

Isosorbide Mononitrate

 

Isotretinoin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1354

 Severe cystic acne not responsive to other therapy

Itraconazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Systemic aspergillosis

 

 

Systemic sporotrichosis

 

 

Systemic histoplasmosis

 

 

Treatment and maintenance therapy in patients with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome who have disseminated pulmonary histoplasmosis infection

 

 

Treatment and maintenance therapy in patients with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome who have chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis infection

 

 

Treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients

 

 

Treatment of oesophageal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients

Ivermectin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1242

 Onchocerciasis

 

1388

 Strongyloidiasis

Ketoconazole

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Symptomatic genital candidiasis recurring after treatment of at least 2 episodes with topical therapy

 

 

Oral candidiasis in severely immunocompromised persons where topical therapy has failed

 

 

Systemic or deep mycoses where other forms of therapy have failed

 

 

In respect of the cream 20 mg per g, 30 g, shampoo 10 mg per g, 100 mL and shampoo 20 mg per g, 60 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2354

 Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Ketoprofen

 

In respect of the capsule 200 mg (sustained release):

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

In respect of the suppository 100 mg:

Labetalol

 

Lactulose

 

Hepatic coma or precoma (chronic portosystemic encephalopathy)

 

 

Constipation in patients with malignant neoplasia

Lamotrigine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1426

 Treatment of epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

Lansoprazole

 

In respect of the capsule 30 mg:

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer

 

 

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

 

 

In respect of the sachet containing granules for oral suspension, 30 mg per sachet:

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

Scleroderma oesophagus

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer, in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a proton pump inhibitor

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease, in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a proton pump inhibitor

Scleroderma oesophagus, in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a proton pump inhibitor

 

 

In respect of the capsule 15 mg:

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

Lapatinib

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, in combination with capecitabine, of a patient with HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer (equivalent to Stage IIIC or Stage IV) who has received prior therapy with an anthracycline and a taxane, each for at least 3 cycles, and whose disease has progressed despite treatment with trastuzumab for metastatic disease, and where the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a pathology report demonstrating HER2 positivity has been demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and

 

 

 (b) date of last treatment with a taxane and total number of cycles; and

 

 

 (c) date of last treatment with an anthracycline and total number of cycles; and

 

 

 (d) a signed patient acknowledgment; and

 

 

 (e) dates of treatment with trastuzumab; and

 

 

 (f) date of demonstration of disease progression whilst on treatment with trastuzumab

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, in combination with capecitabine, of a patient with HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer who was receiving treatment with lapatinib prior to 1 May 2008, and where the authority application includes:

 

 

 (a) a pathology report demonstrating that HER2 positivity has been demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and

 

 

 (b) a signed patient acknowledgment; and

 

 

 (c) the date the patient commenced non-PBS-subsidised treatment with lapatinib

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, in combination with capecitabine, of a patient with HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer who has previously received treatment with PBS-subsidised lapatinib and who does not have progressive disease, and where the authority application includes a statement from the prescribing doctor that the disease has not progressed

Latanoprost

 

Latanoprost with Timolol

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with openangle glaucoma who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL or latanoprost eye drops

 

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with ocular hypertension who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL or latanoprost eye drops

Leflunomide

 

In respect of the pack containing 3 tablets leflunomide 100 mg and 30 tablets leflunomide 20 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2643

 Initial treatment of severe active rheumatoid arthritis where other disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician

 

2681

 Initial treatment of severe active psoriatic arthritis where other disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician

 

 

In respect of the tablet 10 mg and tablet 20 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2644

 Treatment of severe active rheumatoid arthritis where other disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician

 

2682

 Treatment of severe active psoriatic arthritis where other disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician

Lercanidipine

 

Lercanidipine with enalapril

 

Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either lercanidipine hydrochloride or enalapril maleate monotherapy

Letrozole

 

Treatment of hormonedependent advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women

 

 

Treatment of hormonedependent early breast cancer in postmenopausal women

 

 

Extended adjuvant treatment of hormonedependent early breast cancer in postmenopausal women commencing within 6 months of ceasing treatment with tamoxifen citrate

Leuprorelin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate

Levetiracetam

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs, and where adverse events have occurred with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs, and where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs, and where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable drugs available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs, and where transfer to another suitable drug available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance

 

 

Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs, and where transfer to another suitable drug available under the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences

Levobunolol

 

Levodopa with Benserazide

 

Levodopa with Carbidopa

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg50 mg (anhydrous) (modified release):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1257

 Parkinsons disease where fluctuations in motor function are not adequately controlled by frequent dosing with conventional formulations of levodopa with decarboxylase inhibitor

 

 

In respect of the tablet 100 mg25 mg (anhydrous) and tablet 250 mg25 mg (anhydrous):

Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2059

 Parkinsons disease in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations who are experiencing fluctuations in motor function due to endofdose effect

 

2060

 Parkinsons disease in patients stabilised on concomitant treatment with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations and entacapone

Levonorgestrel

 

In respect of the tablets 30 micrograms, 28:

 

 

In respect of the intrauterine drug delivery system 52 mg:

Contraception

 

 

Idiopathic menorrhagia where oral treatments are ineffective

 

 

Idiopathic menorrhagia where oral treatments are contraindicated

Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol

 

Lignocaine

 

Lincomycin

 

Liothyronine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1219

 Management of patients with thyroid cancer

 

1858

 Replacement therapy for hypothyroid patients who have documented intolerance to thyroxine sodium

 

1859

 Replacement therapy for hypothyroid patients who have documented resistance to thyroxine sodium

 

1182

 Initiation of thyroid therapy in severely hypothyroid patients

Lisinopril

 

Lithium

 

Loperamide

 

Macrogol 3350

 

Constipation in patients with malignant neoplasia

Chronic constipation or faecal impaction not adequately controlled with first line interventions such as bulk-forming agents

 

 

Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function not responding to other oral therapies

Medroxyprogesterone

 

In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 500 mg:

Hormonedependent advanced breast cancer

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 100 mg, tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 200 mg and tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 250 mg:

Hormonedependent breast cancer

 

 

Endometrial cancer

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 5 mg, tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 10 mg, injection containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 50 mg in 1 mL and injection containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 150 mg in 1 mL:

Mefenamic Acid

 

Dysmenorrhoea

 

 

Menorrhagia

Megestrol

 

Hormonedependent advanced breast cancer

Meloxicam

 

Symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis

Melphalan

 

Memantine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14 who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, and where the relevant result from the MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14 and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change (CIBIC) scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of a patient commenced on memantine prior to 1 March 2008

Mercaptopurine

 

Mesalazine

 

In respect of the tablet 250 mg (enteric coated), tablet 500 mg (enteric coated), tablet 500 mg (prolonged release), sachet containing prolonged release granules, 1 g per sachet and sachet containing prolonged release granules, 2 g per sachet:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1708

 Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists

 

1709

 Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists

 

2268

 Crohns disease where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists

 

2269

 Crohns disease where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists

 

 

In respect of the sachet containing granules, 500 mg per sachet and sachet containing granules, 1 g per sachet:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1708

 Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists

 

1709

 Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists

 

 

In respect of the suppositories 1 g, 28:

Acute episode of mild to moderate ulcerative proctitis

 

 

In respect of the enemas 1 g in 100 mL, 7, enemas 2 g in 60 mL, 7, enemas 4 g in 60 mL, 7 and rectal foam 1 g per applicatorful, 14 applications, aerosol 80 g:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1707

 Acute episode of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis

Mesna

 

Adjunctive therapy for use with ifosfamide or high dose cyclophosphamide

Metformin

 

Metformin with Glibenclamide

 

Methadone

 

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

Methotrexate

 

Methyldopa

 

Methylphenidate

 

In respect of the tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 10 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Use in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, in accordance with State/Territory law

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 18 mg (extended release), tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 27 mg (extended release), tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 36 mg (extended release) and tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 54 mg (extended release):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in a patient aged 6 to 18 years inclusive, who has demonstrated a response to immediate release methylphenidate hydrochloride with no emergence of serious adverse events, and who requires continuous coverage over 12 hours

 

 

In respect of the capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 20 mg (modified release), capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 30 mg (modified release) and capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 40 mg (modified release):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in a patient aged 6 to 18 years inclusive, who has demonstrated a response to immediate release methylphenidate hydrochloride with no emergence of serious adverse events, and who requires continuous coverage over 8 hours

Methylprednisolone

 

In respect of the injection containing methylprednisolone acetate 40 mg in 1 mL:

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

 

 

In respect of the powder for injection 40 mg (as sodium succinate) with diluent and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium succinate) with diluent:

 

 

In respect of the cream containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g, ointment containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g and fatty ointment containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g:

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

 

 

In respect of the lotion containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 20 g:

Eczema

Methysergide

 

Metoclopramide

 

Metoprolol

 

Metoprolol succinate

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1734

 Moderate to severe heart failure in patients stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensinconverting enzyme inhibitor if tolerated

Metronidazole

 

In respect of the tablet 200 mg, tablet 400 mg, oral suspension containing metronidazole benzoate 320 mg per 5 mL, 100 mL and suppositories 500 mg, 10:

 

 

In respect of the I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL:

Prophylaxis in large bowel surgery

 

 

Treatment, in a hospital, of acute anaerobic sepsis

Mexiletine

 

Mianserin

 

Severe depression

Miconazole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2354

 Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Milk powder — lactose free formula

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Acute lactose intolerance in infants up to the age of 12 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application and where the patient has not previously been issued with an authority prescription for this medicinal preparation for this purpose

 

 

Proven chronic lactose intolerance in infants up to the age of 12 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application, and where lactose intolerance has been proven by:

 

 

 (a) relief of symptoms on supervised withdrawal of lactose from the diet for 3 or 4 days and subsequent reemergence of symptoms on rechallenge with lactose containing formulae or milk or food; or

 

 

 (b) not less than 0.5% reducing substance in stool exudate tested with copper sulfate diagnostic compound tablet; or

 

 

 (c) hydrogen breath test

Milk powder — lactose modified

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Acute lactose intolerance in children aged 1 year and over, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application and where the patient has not previously been issued with an authority prescription for this medicinal preparation for this purpose

 

 

Proven chronic lactose intolerance in children aged 1 year and over who are significantly malnourished, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application, and where lactose intolerance has been proven by:

 

 

 (a) relief of symptoms on supervised withdrawal of lactose from the diet for 3 or 4 days and subsequent reemergence of symptoms on rechallenge with lactose containing formulae or milk or food; or

 

 

 (b) not less than 0.5% reducing substance in stool exudate tested with copper sulfate diagnostic compound tablet; or

 

 

 (c) hydrogen breath test

Milk powder — synthetic

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Hypercalcaemia in children under the age of 4 years

Milk protein and fat formula with vitamins and minerals — carbohydrate free

 

Patients with intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet

 

 

Glucose transport protein defects

 

 

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

 

 

Infants and young children with glucosegalactose intolerance and multiple monosaccharide intolerance

Mineral mixture

 

Metabolic disorders

Minocycline

 

In respect of the tablet 50 mg (as hydrochloride):

Severe acne not responding to other tetracyclines

 

 

In respect of the capsule 100 mg (as hydrochloride):

Minoxidil

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2759

 Severe refractory hypertension where treatment is initiated by a consultant physician

Mirtazapine

 

Major depressive disorders

Misoprostol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2630

 Reduction in the incidence of gastrointestinal complications in patients who have a history of peptic ulcer disease and where nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug therapy is essential

 

2631

 Duodenal ulcer (including pyloric and stomal ulcers), proven by current or prior xray, endoscopy or surgery, where the date on which, and the method by which, the ulcer was proven are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2632

 Gastric ulcer, proven by xray, endoscopy or surgery within the previous 2 years, where the date on which, and the method by which, the ulcer was proven are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

Mitozantrone

 

Moclobemide

 

Major depressive disorders

Modafinil

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment, by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or neurologist, of patients with narcolepsy where:

 

 

 (i) intolerance to dexamphetamine sulfate of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal develops; or

 

 

 (ii) therapy with dexamphetamine sulfate poses an unacceptable medical risk, as indicated by the presence of any 1 of the following:

 

 

 (a) a psychiatric disorder;

 

 

 (b) a cardiac disorder;

 

 

 (c) a history of substance abuse;

 

 

 (d) glaucoma;

 

 

 (e) any other absolute contraindication to dexamphetamine sulfate as specified in the Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information; and

 

 

 where the patient meets the following definition of narcolepsy:

 

 

 excessive daytime sleepiness, recurrent naps or lapses into sleep occurring almost daily for at least 3 months, and:

 

 

 (i) a definite history of cataplexy and a Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT), conducted following at least 6 hours of sleep, with a mean sleep latency less than or equal to 8 minutes; or

 

 

 (ii) a MSLT, conducted following at least 6 hours of sleep, with a mean sleep latency less than or equal to 8 minutes and 2 or more sleep onset rapid eye movement (REM) periods; or

 

 

 (iii) an electroencephalographic (EEG) recording showing the pathologically rapid development of REM sleep; and

 

 

 where the following conditions apply:

 

 

 the MSLT is preceded by nocturnal polysomnography;

 

 

 the polysomnography test and the MSLT are conducted by, or under the supervision of, a qualified sleep medicine practitioner;

 

 

 the EEG is conducted by, or under the supervision of, a neurologist;

 

 

 the authority application includes the following:

 

 

 (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Modafinil (Modavigil) PBS Authority Application Supporting Information Form; and

 

 

 (b) details of the contraindication or intolerance to dexamphetamine sulfate; and

 

 

 (c) either the result and date of the polysomnography test and the MSLT, or the result and date of the EEG;

 

 

 the polysomnography and MSLT, or the EEG, test reports are provided with the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment of narcolepsy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug

Mometasone

 

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

Montelukast

 

In respect of the tablet, chewable, 4 mg (as sodium):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2617

 Firstline preventer medication, as the single preventer agent for children aged from 2 to less than 6 years with frequent intermittent or mild persistent asthma, as an alternative to sodium cromoglycate or nedocromil sodium

 

 

In respect of the tablet, chewable, 5 mg (as sodium):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2618

 Firstline preventer medication, as the single preventer agent for children aged from 6 to less than 15 years with frequent intermittent or mild persistent asthma, as an alternative to sodium cromoglycate or nedocromil sodium

Morphine

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg and tablet containing morphine sulfate 20 mg:

Severe disabling pain due to cancer not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 2 mg per mL, 200 mL, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 5 mg per mL, 200 mL and oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 10 mg per mL, 200 mL:

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 20 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 50 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 90 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 120 mg (controlled release), sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 20 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 30 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 60 mg per sachet and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 100 mg per sachet:

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 200 mg (controlled release) and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 200 mg per sachet:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Chronic severe disabling pain due to cancer

 

 

In respect of the injection containing morphine sulfate 10 mg in 1 mL, injection containing morphine tartrate 120 mg in 1.5 mL, injection containing morphine sulfate 15 mg in 1 mL and injection containing morphine sulfate 30 mg in 1 mL:

Moxonidine

 

Hypertension in patients receiving concurrent antihypertensive therapy

Mycophenolic Acid

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 180 mg mycophenolic acid and tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 360 mg mycophenolic acid:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate sodium, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

In respect of the capsule containing mycophenolate mofetil 250 mg, tablet containing mycophenolate mofetil 500 mg and powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1 g per 5 mL, 165 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate mofetil, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with cardiac transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate mofetil, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

Nafarelin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, of visually proven endometriosis

 

 

Subsequent treatment, for up to 6 months, of visually proven endometriosis, where 2 years or more have elapsed since the end of the previous course and where a recent bone density assessment has been made and where the date of the assessment is included in the authority application

Naloxone

 

Naltrexone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

For use within a comprehensive treatment program for alcohol dependence with the goal of maintaining abstinence

Nandrolone Decanoate

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment has failed, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient

 

 

Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment is not tolerated, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient

 

 

Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment is contraindicated, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient

 

 

Patients receiving PBSsubsidised therapy with this drug for osteoporosis prior to 1 February 2004

 

 

Patients on longterm treatment with corticosteroids

Naproxen

 

In respect of the tablet 250 mg, tablet containing naproxen sodium 550 mg, tablet 500 mg, tablet 750 mg (sustained release) and tablet 1 g (sustained release):

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

 

In respect of the oral suspension 125 mg per 5 mL, 474 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2270

 Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent

 

2271

 Bone pain due to malignant disease in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent

Naratriptan

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where adverse events have occurred with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where transfer to another suitable PBSlisted drug would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where transfer to another suitable PBSlisted drug is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences

Nedocromil

 

Neomycin

 

Neomycin with Bacitracin

 

Nicorandil

 

Nifedipine

 

 

 

 

Nilutamide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophinreleasing hormone (luteinising hormonereleasing hormone) agonist therapy

 

 

Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in conjunction with surgical orchidectomy

Nitrazepam

 

Nitrofurantoin

 

Nizatidine

 

Norethisterone

 

Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol

 

Norethisterone with Mestranol

 

Norfloxacin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Acute bacterial enterocolitis

 

 

Complicated urinary tract infection

Nortriptyline

 

Major depression where other antidepressant therapy has failed

 

 

Major depression where other antidepressant therapy is contraindicated

Nystatin

 

In respect of the tablet 500,000 units, capsule 500,000 units and oral suspension 100,000 units per mL, 24 mL:

 

 

In respect of the cream 100,000 units per g, 15 g:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2354

 Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Oestradiol

 

In respect of the tablet 2 mg, tablet containing oestradiol valerate 1 mg, tablet containing oestradiol valerate 2 mg and vaginal tablets 25 micrograms, 15:

 

 

In respect of the transdermal gel 1 mg (as hemihydrate) in 1 g sachet, 28, transdermal patches 390 micrograms, 8, transdermal patches 750 micrograms (as hemihydrate), 8, transdermal patches 2 mg, 4, transdermal patches 2 mg, 8, transdermal patches 585 micrograms, 8, transdermal patches 1.5 mg (as hemihydrate), 8, transdermal patches 3.8 mg, 4, transdermal patches 4 mg, 8, transdermal patches 780 micrograms, 8, transdermal patches 5.7 mg, 4, transdermal patches 1.17 mg, 8, transdermal patches 3 mg (as hemihydrate), 8, transdermal patches 7.6 mg, 4, transdermal patches 8 mg, 8 and transdermal patches 1.56 mg, 8:

For use for postmenopausal symptoms where a trial of peri or postmenopausal lowdose oestrogen therapy has demonstrated intolerance to oral oestrogens

Oestradiol and Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone

 

Oestradiol and Oestradiol with Norethisterone

 

In respect of the pack containing 12 tablets oestradiol 2 mg, 10 tablets oestradiol 2 mg with norethisterone acetate 1 mg and 6 tablets oestradiol 1 mg:

 

 

In respect of the pack containing 4 transdermal patches 780 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) and 4 transdermal patches 620 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 2.7 mg norethisterone acetate, pack containing 4 transdermal patches 780 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) and 4 transdermal patches 510 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 4.8 mg norethisterone acetate and pack containing 4 transdermal patches oestradiol 4 mg and 4 transdermal patches oestradiol 10 mg with norethisterone acetate 30 mg:

For use for postmenopausal symptoms where a trial of peri or postmenopausal lowdose oestrogen therapy has demonstrated intolerance to oral oestrogens

Oestradiol with Norethisterone

 

In respect of the tablets containing 1 mg oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 500 micrograms norethisterone acetate, 28 and tablets containing 2 mg oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 1 mg norethisterone acetate, 28:

 

 

In respect of the transdermal patches containing 620 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 2.7 mg norethisterone acetate, 8 and transdermal patches containing 510 micrograms oestradiol (as hemihydrate) with 4.8 mg norethisterone acetate, 8:

For use for postmenopausal symptoms where a trial of peri or postmenopausal lowdose oestrogen therapy has demonstrated intolerance to oral oestrogens

Oestriol

 

Oestrogens—Conjugated

 

Oestrogens—Conjugated with Medroxyprogesterone

 

Ofloxacin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Bacterial keratitis

Olanzapine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

2044

 Maintenance treatment of bipolar I disorder

Olmesartan

 

Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or olmesartan medoxomil monotherapy

Olsalazine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1708

 Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists

 

1709

 Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists

Omeprazole

 

In respect of the tablet 20 mg (as magnesium), tablet 20 mg and capsule 20 mg:

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer

 

 

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

 

 

ZollingerEllison syndrome

 

 

In respect of the tablet 10 mg (as magnesium):

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

 

 

ZollingerEllison syndrome

Omeprazole and Clarithromycin and Amoxycillin

 

Eradication of Helicobacter pylori associated with peptic ulcer disease

Ondansetron

 

In respect of the tablet 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate), tablet 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate), wafer 4 mg, wafer 8 mg, I.V. injection 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) in 2 mL and I.V. injection 8 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) in 4 mL:

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy

 

 

In respect of the syrup 4 mg (as hydrochloride dihydrate) per 5 mL, 50 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy

Oxaliplatin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Metastatic colorectal cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less, when used in combination with fluorouracil and calcium folinate

 

 

Adjuvant treatment of stage III (Dukes C) colon cancer, in combination with fluorouracil and calcium folinate, following complete resection of the primary tumour

Oxazepam

 

Oxcarbazepine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1587

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures and primary generalised tonicclonic seizures, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

Oxprenolol

 

Oxybutynin

 

Detrusor overactivity

Oxycodone

 

In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg, oral solution containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg per 5 mL, 250 mL and suppository 30 mg (as pectinate):

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 40 mg (controlled release) and tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 80 mg (controlled release):

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

Paclitaxel

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Adjuvant treatment of nodepositive breast cancer administered sequentially to an anthracycline and cyclophosphamide

 

 

Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline

 

 

Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound

 

 

Primary treatment of ovarian cancer in combination with a platinum compound

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer

 

 

Treatment of HER2 positive early breast cancer in combination with trastuzumab

Paliperidone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

Schizophrenia

Pamidronic Acid

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1392

Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone

Pancreatic Extract

 

Pancrelipase

 

Pantoprazole

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 40 mg (as sodium sesquihydrate):

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer

 

 

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

 

 

ZollingerEllison syndrome

 

 

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 20 mg (as sodium sesquihydrate):

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

Paracetamol

 

In respect of the tablet 500 mg, oral liquid 120 mg per 5 mL, 100 mL and oral liquid 240 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL:

 

 

In respect of the tablet 665 mg (modified release):

Relief of persistent pain associated with osteoarthritis

Paraffin

 

Paroxetine

 

Major depressive disorders

 

 

Obsessivecompulsive disorder

 

 

Panic disorder

Pemetrexed

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, after prior platinum-based chemotherapy, where the dose per treatment cycle does not exceed 500 mg per metre squared body surface area (BSA) and where the patients BSA is included in the authority application

 

 

Mesothelioma, in combination with cisplatin, where the dose per treatment cycle does not exceed 500 mg per metre squared body surface area (BSA) and where the patients BSA is included in the authority application

Penicillamine

 

Pergolide

 

Parkinsons disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations

Perhexiline

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1023

 Angina not responding to other therapy

Pericyazine

 

Perindopril

 

Perindopril with Indapamide

 

In respect of the tablet containing perindopril arginine 2.5 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 0.625 mg:

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing perindopril erbumine 4 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 1.25 mg and tablet containing perindopril arginine 5 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 1.25 mg:

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with indapamide and/or perindopril

Permethrin

 

Phenelzine

 

Depression where all other antidepressant therapy has failed or is inappropriate

Phenobarbitone

 

Epilepsy

Phenoxybenzamine

 

Phaeochromocytoma

 

 

Neurogenic urinary retention

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

 

Phenytoin

 

Pilocarpine

 

Pimecrolimus

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of facial or eyelid atopic dermatitis in patients aged at least 3 months who have 1 or more of the following contraindications to topical corticosteroids:

 

 

 perioral dermatitis;

 

 

 periorbital dermatitis;

 

 

 rosacea;

 

 

 epidermal atrophy;

 

 

 dermal atrophy;

 

 

 allergy to topical corticosteroids;

 

 

 cataracts;

 

 

 glaucoma;

 

 

 raised intraocular pressure; and

 

 

 where a period of 6 months or more has elapsed since an application was last approved for the issue of an authority prescription to the patient for this purpose

 

 

Shortterm (up to 3 weeks) intermittent treatment of atopic dermatitis of the face or eyelids in patients aged at least 3 months who fail to achieve satisfactory disease control with intermittent topical corticosteroid therapy and where more than 3 months have passed since the initial diagnosis of atopic dermatitis; and

 

 

 where failure to achieve satisfactory disease control with intermittent topical corticosteroid therapy is manifest by:

 

 

 failure of the facial skin to clear despite at least 2 weeks of topical hydrocortisone 1% applied every day; or

 

 

 failure of the facial skin to clear despite at least 1 week of a moderate or potent topical corticosteroid applied every day; or

 

 

 clearing of the facial skin with at least 2 weeks of topical hydrocortisone 1% applied every day, but almost immediate and significant flare in facial disease (within 48 hours) upon stopping topical corticosteroids, occurring on at least 2 consecutive occasions; or

 

 

 clearing of the facial skin with at least 1 week of a moderate or potent topical corticosteroid applied every day, but almost immediate and significant flare in facial disease (within 48 hours) upon stopping topical corticosteroids, occurring on at least 2 consecutive occasions; and

 

 

 where a period of 6 months or more has elapsed since an application was last approved for the issue of an authority prescription to the patient for this purpose

Pindolol

 

Pioglitazone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2635

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

 

2638

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with insulin, in a patient:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or with insulin alone where metformin hydrochloride is contraindicated; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with insulin and oral antidiabetic agents, or with insulin alone where metformin hydrochloride is contraindicated; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

 

2648

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea, in a patient:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; and

 

 

where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

Piperazine Oestrone

 

Piroxicam

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

Pizotifen

 

Pneumococcal Vaccine Polyvalent

 

Splenectomised persons over 2 years of age

 

 

Persons with Hodgkins disease

 

 

Persons at high risk of pneumococcal infections

Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Polygeline

 

Polyvinyl Alcohol

 

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Potassium Chloride

 

Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate

 

Pramipexole

 

Parkinsons disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations

Pravastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Prazosin

 

Prednisolone

 

In respect of the tablet 1 mg, tablet 5 mg, tablet 25 mg, oral solution 5 mg (as sodium phosphate) per mL, 30 mL and enema, retention, 20 mg (as sodium phosphate) in 100 mL:

 

 

In respect of the suppositories 5 mg (as sodium phosphate), 10:

Proctitis

 

 

Ulcerative colitis

Prednisolone with Phenylephrine

 

Corneal grafts

 

 

Uveitis

Prednisone

 

Primidone

 

Probenecid

 

Procaine Penicillin

 

Prochlorperazine

 

Promethazine

 

Propantheline

 

Detrusor overactivity

Propranolol

 

Propylthiouracil

 

Protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides

 

 

Protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Alfaré):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows milk protein free diet with a soy protein as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides and soy protein is not tolerated or is likely not to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Biliary atresia

 

 

Chronic liver failure with fat malabsorption

 

 

Chylous ascites

 

 

Chylothorax

 

 

Cystic fibrosis

 

 

Enterokinase deficiency

 

 

Proven fat malabsorption

 

 

Severe diarrhoea of greater than 2 weeks duration in an infant aged less than 4 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome

 

 

In respect of the oral powder 450 g (Pepti-Junior):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows milk protein free diet with a soy protein as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows milk protein and soy protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides and soy protein is not tolerated or is likely not to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Biliary atresia

 

 

Chronic liver failure with fat malabsorption

 

 

Chylous ascites

 

 

Cystic fibrosis

 

 

Enterokinase deficiency

 

 

Proven fat malabsorption

 

 

Severe diarrhoea of greater than 2 weeks duration in an infant aged less than 4 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application

 

 

Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome

Pyrantel

 

Pyridostigmine

 

Pyrimethamine

 

Quetiapine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

2765

 Monotherapy, for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder

 

 

 

Quinagolide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2659

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated

 

2660

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution

 

2661

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated

 

2662

 Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution

Quinapril

 

Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or quinapril hydrochloride monotherapy

Quinine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2142

 Malaria

Rabeprazole

 

In respect of the tablet containing rabeprazole sodium 20 mg (enteric coated):

Initial treatment of peptic ulcer

 

 

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing rabeprazole sodium 10 mg (enteric coated):

Gastrooesophageal reflux disease

 

 

Scleroderma oesophagus

Raloxifene

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2647

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established postmenopausal osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Raltitrexed

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

For use as a single agent in the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer

Ramipril

 

Ramipril with Felodipine

 

Hypertension in a patient not adequately controlled with either ramipril or felodipine monotherapy

Ranibizumab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography or, where a fluorescein angiogram cannot be performed due to a contraindication as listed in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, by an alternative method of diagnosis, and where:

 

 

 the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with ranibizumab in the eye for which treatment is being sought;

 

 

 the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and either a copy of the fluorescein angiogram or, where applicable, details of the contraindication to fluorescein angiography and a copy of the report of the alternative method of diagnosis (e.g. optical coherence tomography (OCT) or red free photography)

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii):

 Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography or, where a fluorescein angiogram cannot be performed due to a contraindication as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, by an alternative method of diagnosis, and where:

 

 

 the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with ranibizumab in the eye for which treatment is being sought;

 

    

 the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and either a copy of the fluorescein angiogram or, where applicable, details of the contraindication to fluorescein angiography and a copy of the report of the alternative method of diagnosis (e.g. optical coherence tomography (OCT) or red free photography), is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

 Continuing treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to age-related macular degeneration, where the patient has previously been granted an authority prescription for ranibizumab for treatment of the same eye

Ranitidine

 

Reboxetine

 

Major depressive disorders

Reteplase

 

Treatment of acute myocardial infarction within 6 hours of onset of attack

Rifampicin

 

In respect of the capsule 150 mg and capsule 300 mg:

Prophylaxis of meningococcal disease in close contacts and carriers

 

 

Prophylactic treatment of contacts of patients with Haemophilus influenzae type B

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Leprosy in adults

 

 

In respect of the syrup 100 mg per 5 mL, 60 mL:

Prophylaxis of meningococcal disease in close contacts and carriers

 

 

Prophylactic treatment of contacts of patients with Haemophilus influenzae type B

Riluzole

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Initial treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, as diagnosed by a neurologist, in patients with disease duration of 5 years or less who have at least 60 percent of predicted forced vital capacity within 2 months prior to commencing riluzole therapy, and who have not undergone tracheostomy, have not experienced respiratory failure and, if not ambulatory, are either able to use upper limbs or able to swallow, and where the date of diagnosis and the date and results of spirometry (in terms of percent of predicted forced vital capacity) are included in the authority application

 

 

Continuing treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis in patients who have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who have not undergone tracheostomy, have not experienced respiratory failure and, if not ambulatory, are either able to use upper limbs or able to swallow

Risedronic Acid

 

In respect of the tablet containing risedronate sodium 5 mg and tablet containing risedronate sodium 35 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2645

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density Tscore of 3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2646

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing risedronate sodium 30 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1392

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone

Risedronic Acid and Calcium

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2645

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density Tscore of 3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2646

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Risedronic acid and calcium with colecalciferol

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2645

Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2646

Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Risperidone

 

In respect of the tablet 0.5 mg and tablet 0.5 mg (orally disintegrating):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2061

 Behavioural disturbances characterised by psychotic symptoms and aggression in patients with dementia where nonpharmacological methods have been unsuccessful

 

2598

 Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with nonpharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in a child or adolescent aged less than 18 years with autism, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where nonpharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSMIV) or the ICD10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

 

In respect of the tablet 1 mg and tablet 1 mg (orally disintegrating):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2061

 Behavioural disturbances characterised by psychotic symptoms and aggression in patients with dementia where nonpharmacological methods have been unsuccessful

 

2598

 Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with nonpharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in a child or adolescent aged less than 18 years with autism, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where nonpharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSMIV) or the ICD10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

2272

 Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder

 

 

In respect of the tablet 2 mg and tablet 2 mg (orally disintegrating):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2598

 Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with nonpharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in a child or adolescent aged less than 18 years with autism, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where nonpharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSMIV) or the ICD10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

2272

 Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder

 

 

In respect of the tablet 3 mg, tablet 3 mg (orally disintegrating), tablet 4 mg, tablet 4 mg (orally disintegrating) and oral solution 1 mg per mL, 100 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

 

2272

 Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder

 

 

In respect of the oral solution 1 mg per mL, 30 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2061

 Behavioural disturbances characterised by psychotic symptoms and aggression in patients with dementia where nonpharmacological methods have been unsuccessful

 

2598

 Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with nonpharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in a child or adolescent aged less than 18 years with autism, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where nonpharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSMIV) or the ICD10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders

 

 

In respect of the I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 25 mg and 1 prefilled syringe diluent 2 mL, I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 37.5 mg and 1 prefilled syringe diluent 2 mL and I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 50 mg and 1 prefilled syringe diluent 2 mL:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

Rituximab

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Relapsed or refractory lowgrade Bcell nonHodgkins lymphoma

 

 

Relapsed or refractory follicular Bcell nonHodgkins lymphoma

 

 

Treatment of previously untreated, CD20 positive, diffuse large Bcell nonHodgkins lymphoma, in combination with chemotherapy

 

 

Treatment of symptomatic patients with previously untreated, CD20 positive, Stage III or IV, follicular, Bcell nonHodgkins lymphoma, in combination with chemotherapy

Rivastigmine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patients baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patients baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where:

 

 

(1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by:

 

 

(a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or

 

 

(b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimers Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and

 

 

(2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months duration in total

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

 Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs:

 

 

Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background;

 

 

Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate;

 

 

Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability;

 

 

Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test;

 

 

Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimers disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimers disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment

Rosiglitazone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2635

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin hydrochloride or a sulfonylurea; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

 

2648

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea, in a patient:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

 

2730

 Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with insulin, in a patient:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of insulin is greater than 7%, despite treatment with rosiglitazone maleate and at least 1 other oral antidiabetic agent; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of insulin shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with rosiglitazone maleate and at least 1 other oral antidiabetic agent; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time insulin therapy is initiated

 

2731

 Continuation of therapy in type 2 diabetes mellitus in a patient who has previously received and been stabilised on a PBSsubsidised regimen of antidiabetic medicines which includes both rosiglitazone maleate and insulin

Rosiglitazone with Metformin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2633

 Type 2 diabetes in a patient in whom a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with metformin hydrochloride; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with metformin hydrochloride; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

 

2634

 Type 2 diabetes, in combination with a sulfonylurea, in a patient:

 

 

 (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) is greater than 7%, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; or

 

 

 (b) in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin hydrochloride and a sulfonylurea; and

 

 

 where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstance, are documented in the patients medical records, and are no more than 4 months old, at the time glitazone treatment is initiated

Rosuvastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Roxithromycin

 

Salbutamol

 

In respect of the oral solution 2 mg (as sulfate) per 5 mL, 150 mL, capsule containing powder for oral inhalation 200 micrograms (as sulfate) (for use in Ventolin Rotahaler) and pressurised inhalation 100 micrograms (as sulfate) per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation):

 

 

In respect of the pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device 100 micrograms (as sulfate) per dose, 200 doses (CFCfree formulation):

Patients unable to achieve coordinated use of other metered dose inhalers containing this drug

 

 

In respect of the nebuliser solution 2.5 mg (as sulfate) in 2.5 mL single dose units, 30, nebuliser solution 5 mg (as sulfate) in 2.5 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser solution 5 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 30 mL:

Asthma in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer

Salcatonin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1392

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone

 

1412

 Treatment initiated in a hospital (inpatient or outpatient) of hypercalcaemia

Salmeterol

 

Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids

 

 

Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids

Selegiline

 

Late stage Parkinsons disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations

Sertraline

 

Major depressive disorders

 

 

Obsessivecompulsive disorder

 

 

Panic disorder where other treatments have failed or are inappropriate

Sevelamer

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sevelamer hydrochloride, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on other products and where serum phosphate is greater than 1.6 mmol per L

 

 

Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sevelamer hydrochloride, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on other products and where the serum calcium times phosphate product is greater than 4.0

Silver Sulfadiazine with Chlorhexidine

 

Prevention and treatment of infection in partial or full skin thickness loss due to burns

 

 

Prevention and treatment of infection in partial or full skin thickness loss due to epidermolysis bullosa

 

 

Stasis ulcers

Simvastatin

 

For use in accordance with paragraph 16

Sirolimus

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sirolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

Sodium Acid Phosphate

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1099

 Familial hypophosphataemia

 

1157

 Hypercalcaemia

 

1167

 Hypophosphataemic rickets

 

1467

 Vitamin Dresistant rickets

Sodium Chloride

 

Sodium Chloride Compound

 

Sodium Chloride with Glucose

 

Sodium Lactate Compound

 

Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

 

Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function

 

 

Patients who are receiving longterm nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities

 

 

For use by a patient who is receiving longterm nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult

 

 

Patients receiving palliative care

 

 

Terminal malignant neoplasia

 

 

Anorectal congenital abnormalities

 

 

Megacolon

Sotalol

 

Severe cardiac arrhythmias

Soy protein and fat formula with vitamins and minerals — carbohydrate free

 

Patients with intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet

 

 

Glucose transport protein defects

 

 

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

 

 

Infants and young children with glucosegalactose intolerance and multiple monosaccharide intolerance

Spironolactone

 

Sterculia with Frangula Bark

 

Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function

 

 

Patients who are receiving longterm nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities

 

 

For use by a patient who is receiving longterm nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult

 

 

Patients receiving palliative care

 

 

Terminal malignant neoplasia

 

 

Anorectal congenital abnormalities

 

 

Megacolon

Strontium

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2758

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for osteoporosis in a woman aged 70 years or older with a bone mineral density Tscore of 3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

2647

 Treatment as the sole PBSsubsidised antiresorptive agent for established postmenopausal osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain xray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body

Sucralfate

 

Sulfacetamide

 

Sulfasalazine

 

Sulindac

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

Sulthiame

 

Sumatriptan

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2663

 Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated

Tacrolimus

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with liver transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with tacrolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with tacrolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with cardiac transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with tacrolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

 

 

Maintenance therapy of patients with lung transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with tacrolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application

Tamarindus indica seed polysaccharide

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1359

 Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Tamoxifen

 

Treatment of hormonedependent breast cancer

Telmisartan

 

Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hypertension in patients who are not adequately controlled with either hydrochlorothiazide or telmisartan monotherapy

Temazepam

 

Temozolomide

 

In respect of the capsule 5 mg, capsule 20 mg and capsule 100 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Glioblastoma multiforme concomitantly with radiotherapy

 

 

Recurrence of anaplastic astrocytoma following standard therapy

 

 

Recurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following standard therapy

 

 

Glioblastoma multiforme following radiotherapy

 

 

In respect of the capsule 250 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Recurrence of anaplastic astrocytoma following standard therapy

 

 

Recurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following standard therapy

 

 

Glioblastoma multiforme following radiotherapy

Tenecteplase

 

Treatment of acute myocardial infarction within 12 hours of onset of attack

Terbinafine

 

In respect of the tablet 250 mg (as hydrochloride):

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Treatment of a dermatophyte infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person where topical treatment has failed

 

 

Proximal or extensive (greater than 80% nail involvement) onychomycosis due to dermatophyte infection where topical treatment has failed, where the infection is proven by microscopy or culture and confirmed by an Approved Pathology Authority not more than 12 months prior to the date of the authority application and where the date of the pathology report is included in the authority application

 

 

 

 

In respect of the cream containing terbinafine hydrochloride 10 mg per g, 15 g:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

2354

Terbutaline

 

In respect of the injection containing terbutaline sulfate 500 micrograms in 1mL and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing terbutaline sulfate 500 micrograms per dose, 200 doses:

 

 

In respect of the nebuliser solution containing terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 2 mL single dose units, 30:

Asthma in patients unable to use this drug delivered from a breath actuated device

 

 

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients unable to use this drug delivered from a breath actuated device

 

 

 

Testosterone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Androgen deficiency in males with established pituitary or testicular disorders

 

 

Androgen deficiency in males 40 years and older who do not have established pituitary or testicular disorders other than aging, confirmed by at least 2 morning blood samples taken on different mornings, where androgen deficiency is confirmed by testosterone less than 8 nmol per L, or from 8 to 15 nmol per L with luteinising hormone greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of the eugonadal reference range for young men

 

 

Micropenis, pubertal induction, or constitutional delay of growth or puberty, in males under 18 years of age

Tetrabenazine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1161

 Hyperkinetic extrapyramidal disorders

Tetracosactrin

 

Theophylline

 

Thiamine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2384

 Prophylaxis of thiamine deficiency in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person

Thioguanine

 

Thiotepa

 

Thyrotropin Alfa

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Ablation of thyroid remnant tissue, in combination with radioactive iodine, in a post thyroidectomy adult aged 18 years or older without known metastatic disease, where the patient has not previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with this drug in their lifetime

Thyroxine

 

Tiagabine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2664

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

Tiaprofenic Acid

 

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid

 

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

Ticlopidine

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1719

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular ischaemic episodes while on therapy with lowdose aspirin

 

1720

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where lowdose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding

 

1721

 Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

 

1260

 Patients established on this drug as a pharmaceutical benefit prior to 1 November 1999

Tiludronic Acid

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1392

 Symptomatic Pagets disease of bone

Timolol

 

Tinidazole

 

Tiotropium

 

For the longterm maintenance treatment of bronchospasm and dyspnoea associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Tirofiban

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1729

 Patients with high risk unstable angina who have new transient or persistent STT ischaemic changes and anginal pain lasting longer than 20 minutes

 

1730

 Patients with high risk unstable angina who have new transient or persistent STT ischaemic changes and repetitive episodes of angina at rest or during minimal exercise in the previous 12 hours

 

1275

 Patients with nonQwave myocardial infarction

Tobramycin

 

In respect of the injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL and injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL (without preservative):

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

 

 

Septicaemia, suspected

 

 

Septicaemia, proven

 

 

In respect of the eye drops 3 mg per mL, 5 mL and eye ointment 3 mg per g, 3.5 g:

Invasive ocular infection

 

 

Perioperative use in ophthalmic surgery

 

 

Suspected pseudomonal eye infection

Topiramate

 

In respect of the tablet 25 mg and tablet 50 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2797

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonicclonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the LennoxGastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

 

2799

 Prophylaxis of migraine in a patient who has experienced an average of 3 or more migraines per month over a period of at least 6 months, and who:

 

 

 (1) either has a contraindication to betablockers, as described in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administrationapproved Product Information, or has experienced intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent withdrawal during treatment with a betablocker; and

 

 

 (2) either has a contraindication to pizotifen because the weight gain associated with this drug poses an unacceptable risk, or has experienced intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent withdrawal during treatment with pizotifen; and

 

 

 where details of the contraindication(s) and/or intolerance(s) are documented in the patients medical records when treatment is initiated

 

 

In respect of the tablet 100 mg and tablet 200 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2797

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonicclonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the LennoxGastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

 

 

In respect of the capsule 15 mg, capsule 25 mg and capsule 50 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

2798

 Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonicclonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the LennoxGastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs in patients unable to take a solid dose form of topiramate

Topotecan

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound

Toremifene

 

Treatment of hormonedependent metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal patients

Tramadol

 

In respect of the capsule containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg:

For acute pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

 

For dosage titration in chronic pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

 

In respect of the tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 150 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg (sustained release) and oral drops containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg per mL, 10 mL:

For pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

 

In respect of the injection containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg in 2 mL:

Shortterm treatment of acute pain

Trandolapril

 

Trandolapril with Verapamil

 

Hypertension in a patient who is stabilised on treatment with trandolapril 4 mg and verapamil hydrochloride sustained release 240 mg

Tranexamic Acid

 

Tranylcypromine

 

Travoprost

 

Travoprost with Timolol

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with openangle glaucoma who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL or latanoprost eye drops or travoprost eye drops

 

 

Reduction of elevated intraocular pressure in patients with ocular hypertension who are not adequately controlled with timolol maleate eye drops equivalent to 5 mg timolol per mL or latanoprost eye drops or travoprost eye drops

Triamcinolone

 

In respect of the injection containing triamcinolone acetonide 10 mg in 1 mL:

Alopecia areata

 

 

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

 

 

Granulomata, dermal

 

 

Keloid

 

 

Lichen planus hypertrophic

 

 

Lichen simplex chronicus

 

 

Lupus erythematosus, chronic discoid

 

 

Necrobiosis lipoidica

 

 

Psoriasis

 

 

In respect of the cream containing triamcinolone acetonide 200 micrograms per g, 100 g and ointment containing triamcinolone acetonide 200 micrograms per g, 100 g:

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin

 

Trifluoperazine

 

Triglycerides, medium chain

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Chylous ascites

 

 

Chylothorax

 

 

Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders

 

 

Hyperlipoproteinaemia type 1

 

 

Intractable childhood epilepsy or cerebrospinal fluid glucose transporter defect, requiring a ketogenic diet

 

 

Long chain fatty acid oxidation disorders

Triglycerides, medium chain and long chain with glucose polymer

 

Patients with proven inborn errors of protein metabolism who are unable to meet their energy requirements with permitted food and formulae

Triglycerides — medium chain, formula

 

In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Monogen):

Chylous ascites

 

 

Chylothorax

 

 

Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders

 

 

Hyperlipoproteinaemia type 1

 

 

Long chain fatty acid oxidation disorders

 

 

In respect of the oral powder 420 g (Caprilon):

Chylous ascites

 

 

Chylothorax

 

 

Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders

Trimethoprim

 

Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole

 

Tropisetron

 

Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy

Tyrosine with carbohydrate

 

Phenylketonuria

Ursodeoxycholic Acid

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1700

 Primary biliary cirrhosis

Valaciclovir

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Moderate to severe initial genital herpes

 

 

Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis

 

 

Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash

 

 

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus

Valine with carbohydrate

 

Maple syrup urine disease

Valproic Acid

 

Vancomycin

 

In respect of the capsule 125 mg (125,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride) and capsule 250 mg (250,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile which is unresponsive to metronidazole

 

 

Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile where there is intolerance to metronidazole

 

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (500,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride) and powder for injection 1 g (1,000,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride):

Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients hypersensitive to penicillin

 

 

Endophthalmitis

 

 

Use initiated in a hospital for infections where vancomycin hydrochloride is an appropriate antibiotic

Varenicline

 

In respect of the box containing 11 tablets 0.5 mg (as tartrate) and 14 tablets 1 mg (as tartrate) in the first pack and 28 tablets 1 mg (as tartrate) in the second pack:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Commencement of shortterm, sole PBSsubsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who has entered a comprehensive support and counselling program, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application

 

 

Commencement of shortterm, sole PBSsubsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who is entering a comprehensive support and counselling program during the same consultation at which the authority application is made, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application

 

 

In respect of the tablet 1 mg (as tartrate):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Completion of shortterm, sole PBSsubsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who is enrolled in a comprehensive support and counselling program

Venlafaxine

 

Major depressive disorders

Verapamil

 

Verteporfin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to agerelated macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with verteporfin in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) – PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii):

 Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to agerelated macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBSsubsidised treatment with verteporfin in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) – PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i):

Initial PBSsubsidised treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to macular degeneration, where:

 

 

 (a) the patient has been authorised by the Angiogram Review Panel to receive treatment with verteporfin in the same eye under the Medicare Benefits Scheme (MBS) Visudyne Therapy Program and has received no more than 14 such treatments; and

 

 

 (b) the authority application includes:

 

 

 (i) a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) – PBS Supporting Information Form which includes the date of review by the Angiogram Review Panel and the number of treatments administered in that eye under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program; and

 

 

 (ii) a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic

 

 

 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii):

 Initial PBSsubsidised treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to macular degeneration, where:

 

 

 (a) the patient has been authorised by the Angiogram Review Panel to receive treatment with verteporfin in the same eye under the Medicare Benefits Scheme (MBS) Visudyne Therapy Program and has received no more than 14 such treatments; and

 

 

 (b) the authority application includes:

 

 

 (i) a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) – PBS Supporting Information Form which includes the date of review by the Angiogram Review Panel and the number of treatments administered in that eye under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program; and

 

 

 (ii) a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic; and

 

 

 (c) the authority application is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised

 

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii):

Continuing treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBSsubsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to macular degeneration, where:

 

 

 (a) the patient has previously been granted an authority prescription for verteporfin for treatment of the same eye; and

 

 

 (b) the patient has previously received no more than 14 subsidised treatments with verteporfin in that eye, treatments administered under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program and treatments administered under the PBS included; and

 

 

 (c) a course of treatment abandoned prior to completion of the laser activation step but after infusion of verteporfin is not regarded to be a subsidised treatment for the purposes of (b) above, provided that the Medicare Australia CEO has been notified and advised of the reason for the abandonment

Vigabatrin

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1426

 Treatment of epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other antiepileptic drugs

Vinblastine

 

Vincristine

 

Vinorelbine

 

In respect of the capsule 20 mg (as tartrate) and capsule 30 mg (as tartrate):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer

 

 

In respect of the solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg (as tartrate) in 1 Ml and solution for I.V. infusion 50 mg (as tartrate) in 5 Ml:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline

 

 

Locally advanced or metastatic nonsmall cell lung cancer

Warfarin

 

Whey protein formula supplemented with amino acids, vitamins and minerals, and low in protein, phosphate, potassium and lactose

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Infants and young children with chronic renal failure requiring treatment with a low protein and a low phosphorus diet, or a low protein, a low phosphorus and a low potassium diet

Ziprasidone

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

1589

 Schizophrenia

Zolmitriptan

 

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where adverse events have occurred with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable PBSlisted drugs

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where transfer to another suitable PBSlisted drug would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance

 

 

Migraine attacks in patients receiving, or who have failed a reasonable trial of, prophylactic medication and where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to oral therapy with ergotamine and other appropriate agents, or in whom these agents are contraindicated, and where transfer to another suitable PBSlisted drug is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences

Zuclopenthixol Decanoate

 

 

Benzydamine

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Bisacodyl

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Carmellose

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Clonazepam

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy, where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Diazepam

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Diclofenac

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Fentanyl

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Initial supply for dose titration for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects

 

First continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects

 

Second and subsequent continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects, where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

 

Second and subsequent continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects

Glycerol

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Hyoscine

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Ibuprofen

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Indomethacin

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Lactulose

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Macrogol 3350

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Methadone

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Morphine

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg and tablet containing morphine sulfate 20 mg:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 200 mg (controlled release):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Naproxen

In respect of the tablet containing naproxen sodium 550 mg, tablet 250 mg, tablet 500 mg, tablet 750 mg (sustained release) and tablet 1 g (sustained release):

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

 

In respect of the oral suspension 125 mg per 5 Ml, 474 Ml:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Nitrazepam

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Oxazepam

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Paracetamol

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Promethazine

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Sterculia with Frangula Bark

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Sulindac

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

Temazepam

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem

 

Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem

 

Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred

 

 

Adrenaline

Amoxycillin

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid

Infections where resistance to moxicillin trihydrate is suspected

 

Infections where resistance to moxicillin trihydrate is proven

Amphotericin

Ampicillin

Aspirin

Atropine

Benzathine benzylpenicillin

Benzathine Penicillin

Benztropine

Benzydamine

Radiation induced mucositis

Benzylpenicillin

Betamethasone

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

 

Keloid

 

Lichen planus hypertrophic

Carbamazepine

Cefaclor

Cefotaxime

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

Cefuroxime

Cephalexin

Cephalothin

Chloramphenicol

Clindamycin

Grampositive coccal infections where these cannot be safely and effectively treated with a penicillin

Codeine

Codeine with Paracetamol

Diazepam

Diclofenac

In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 25 mg and tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 50 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

In respect of the suppository containing diclofenac sodium 100 mg:

Dicloxacillin

In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium) and capsule 500 mg (as sodium):

Serious staphylococcal infections

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium):

Doxycycline

Erythromycin

Flucloxacillin

In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium), capsule 500 mg (as sodium), powder for oral liquid 125 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL, powder for oral suspension 250 mg (as magnesium) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral liquid 250 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL:

Serious staphylococcal infections

 

In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium):

Glucagon

Glucose

Glyceryl Trinitrate

Hydrocortisone

In respect of the injection 100 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 Ml solvent and injection 250 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 Ml solvent:

For use in a hospital

 

In respect of the cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g, cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g, ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g and ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g:

Treatment of corticosteroidresponsive dermatoses

Hydromorphone

In respect of the tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg and oral liquid containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 1 mg per Ml, 473 Ml:

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

In respect of the injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg in 1 Ml, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 10 mg in 1 Ml and injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 50 mg in 5 Ml:

Ibuprofen

In respect of the tablet 200 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

In respect of the tablet 400 mg:

Indomethacin

In respect of the capsule 25 mg:

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

 

In respect of the suppository 100 mg:

Ketoprofen

In respect of the capsule 200 mg (sustained release):

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

In respect of the suppository 100 mg:

Lignocaine

Lincomycin

Methylprednisolone

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

Metoclopramide

Metronidazole

In respect of the tablet 200 mg, tablet 400 mg, oral suspension containing metronidazole benzoate 320 mg per 5 Ml, 100 Ml and suppositories 500 mg, 10:

 

In respect of the I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 Ml:

Treatment, in a hospital, of acute anaerobic sepsis

Morphine

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 2 mg per Ml, 200 Ml, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 5 mg per Ml, 200 Ml and oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 10 mg per Ml, 200 Ml:

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 20 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 50 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 90 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 120 mg (controlled release), sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 20 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 30 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 60 mg per sachet and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 100 mg per sachet:

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

In respect of the injection containing morphine sulfate 10 mg in 1 Ml, injection containing morphine sulfate 15 mg in 1 Ml and injection containing morphine sulfate 30 mg in 1 Ml:

Naloxone

Naproxen

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

Nitrazepam

Nystatin

Oxazepam

Oxycodone

In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg, oral solution containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg per 5 Ml, 250 Ml and suppository 30 mg (as pectinate):

Severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

 

In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 40 mg (controlled release) and tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 80 mg (controlled release):

Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to nonnarcotic analgesics

Paracetamol

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Piroxicam

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

Procaine Penicillin

Prochlorperazine

Promethazine

Sodium Chloride

Sodium Chloride with Glucose

Sulindac

Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component

 

Bone pain due to malignant disease

Temazepam

Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid

Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent

Tramadol

In respect of the capsule containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg:

For acute pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

For dosage titration in chronic pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

In respect of the tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 150 mg (sustained release), tablet containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg (sustained release) and oral drops containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg per Ml, 10 Ml:

For pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed

 

In respect of the injection containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg in 2 Ml:

Shortterm treatment of acute pain

Triamcinolone

For local intraarticular or periarticular infiltration

 

Keloid

 

Lichen planus hypertrophic

Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole

Vancomycin

Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients hypersensitive to penicillin

 

 

Aciclovir

Herpes simplex keratitis

Carbomer 974

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Carbomer 980

In respect of the ocular lubricating gel 2 mg per g, 10 g:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

In respect of the eye drops 2 mg per g, single dose units 0.6 Ml, 30:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Carmellose

In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per Ml, 15 Ml and eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per Ml, 15 Ml:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 2.5 mg per Ml, single dose units 0.6 Ml, 24, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per Ml, single dose units 0.4 Ml, 30, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per Ml, single dose units 0.4 Ml, 30 and ocular lubricating gel containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per Ml, single dose units 0.6 Ml, 28:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Chloramphenicol

Cromoglycic Acid

Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

Fluorometholone

Flurbiprofen

Hydrocortisone

Hypromellose

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Hypromellose with Carbomer 980

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Hypromellose with Dextran

In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 4500 with 1 mg dextran 70 per Ml, 15 Ml:

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

 

In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 2900 with 1 mg dextran 70 per Ml, single dose units 0.4 Ml, 28:

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

 

Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Paraffin

Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Polyvinyl Alcohol

Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogrens syndrome

Sulfacetamide

Tamarindus indica seed polysaccharide

In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d):

Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multidose eye drops

Abacavir

Abacavir with Lamivudine

Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine

Alendronic Acid

Alendronic Acid with Colecalciferol

Alginic Acid

Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate

Aluminium Hydroxide

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide

Amiloride

Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride

Amlodipine

Amlodipine with Atorvastatin

Amoxycillin

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid and Water – Purified BP

Amoxycillin with Water – Purified BP

Aspirin

Dipyridamole with Aspirin

Atorvastatin

Amlodipine with Atorvastatin

Atropine

Diphenoxylate with Atropine

Azithromycin

Azithromycin with Water – Purified BP

Bacitracin

Neomycin with Bacitracin

Benserazide

Levodopa with Benserazide

Brimonidine

Brimonidine with Timolol

Budesonide

Budesonide with Eformoterol

Buprenorphine

Buprenorphine with Naloxone

Calcium

Calcium with colecalciferol

Calcium Carbonate

Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate

Candesartan

Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Carbidopa

Levodopa with Carbidopa

Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone

Carbomer 980

Hypromellose with Carbomer 980

Cefaclor

Cefaclor with Water – Purified BP

Cephalexin

Cephalexin with Water – Purified BP

Chlorhexidine

Silver Sulfadiazine with Chlorhexidine

Clavulanic Acid

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid and Water – Purified BP

Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid

Codeine

Codeine with Paracetamol

Colecalciferol

Alendronic Acid with Colecalciferol

Calcium with colecalcifero

Dexamethasone

Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin

Dextran

Hypromellose with Dextran

Diphenoxylate

Diphenoxylate with Atropine

Dipyridamole

Dipyridamole with Aspirin

Dorzolamide

Dorzolamide with Timolol

Dydrogesterone

Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone

Eformoterol

Budesonide with Eformoterol

Emtricitabine

Tenofovir with Emtricitabine

Enalapril

Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

Lercanidipine with enalapril

Entacapone

Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone

Eprosartan

Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Erythromycin

Erythromycin with Water – Purified BP

Ethinyloestradiol

Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol

Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol

Ezetimibe

Ezetimibe with Simvastatin

Felodipine

Ramipril with Felodipine

Ferrous Fumarate

Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid

Flucloxacillin

Flucloxacillin with Water – Purified BP

Fluticasone

Fluticasone with Salmeterol

Folic Acid

Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid

Fosinopril

Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide

Framycetin

Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin

Frangula Bark

Sterculia with Frangula Bark

Glibenclamide

Metformin with Glibenclamide

Glucose

Sodium Chloride with Glucose

Gramicidin

Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin

Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin

Hydrochlorothiazide

Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride

 

Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene

 

Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

 

Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Hypromellose

Hypromellose with Carbomer 980

Hypromellose with Dextran

Indapamide

Perindopril with Indapamide

Insulin Aspart

Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension

Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension

Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension

Insulin Isophane

Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane

Insulin Lispro

Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension

Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension

Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension

Insulin Neutral

Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane

Irbesartan

Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Lamivudine

Abacavir with Lamivudine

Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine

Lamivudine with Zidovudine

Latanoprost

Latanoprost with Timolol

Lercanidipine

Lercanidipine with enalapril

Levodopa

Levodopa with Benserazide

Levodopa with Carbidopa

Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone

Levonorgestrel

Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol

Lopinavir

Lopinavir with Ritonavir

Magnesium Hydroxide

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide

Magnesium Trisilicate

Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide

Medroxyprogesterone

Oestrogens—Conjugated with Medroxyprogesterone

Mestranol

Norethisterone with Mestranol

Metformin

Metformin with Glibenclamide

Rosiglitazone with Metformin

Mycophenolic Acid

Mycophenolic Acid with Water – Purified BP

Naloxone

Buprenorphine with Naloxone

Neomycin

Neomycin with Bacitracin

Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin

Norethisterone

Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol

Norethisterone with Mestranol

Oestradiol with Norethisterone

Nystatin

Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin

Oestradiol

Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone

Oestradiol with Norethisterone

Oestrogens—Conjugated

Oestrogens—Conjugated with Medroxyprogesterone

Olmesartan

Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Paracetamol

Codeine with Paracetamol

Perindopril

Perindopril with Indapamide

Phenylephrine

Prednisolone with Phenylephrine

Polyethylene Glycol 400

Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol

Potassium Bicarbonate

Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate

Potassium Chloride

Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate

Prednisolone

Prednisolone with Phenylephrine

Propylene Glycol

Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol

Quinapril

Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide

Ramipril

Ramipril with Felodipine

Ritonavir

Lopinavir with Ritonavir

Rosiglitazone

Rosiglitazone with Metformin

Salmeterol

Fluticasone with Salmeterol

Silver Sulfadiazine

Silver Sulfadiazine with Chlorhexidine

Simvastatin

Ezetimibe with Simvastatin

Sodium Bicarbonate

Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate

Sodium Chloride

Sodium Chloride with Glucose

Sodium Citrate

Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

Sorbitol

Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate

Stavudine

Stavudine with Water – Purified BP

Sterculia

Sterculia with Frangula Bark

Sulfamethoxazole

Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole

Telmisartan

Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide

Tenofovir

Tenofovir with Emtricitabine

Ticarcillin

Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid

Timolol

Brimonidine with Timolol

 

Dorzolamide with Timolol

 

Latanoprost with Timolol

 

Travoprost with Timolol

Trandolapril

Trandolapril with Verapamil

Travoprost

Travoprost with Timolol

Triamcinolone

Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin

Triamterene

Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene

Trimethoprim

Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole

Verapamil

Trandolapril with Verapamil

Water – Purified BP

Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid and Water – Purified BP

 

Amoxycillin with Water – Purified BP

 

Azithromycin with Water – Purified BP

 

Cefaclor  with Water – Purified BP

 

Cephalexin with Water – Purified BP

 

Erythromycin with Water – Purified BP

 

Flucloxacillin with Water – Purified BP

 

Mycophenolic Acid with Water – Purified BP

 

Stavudine with Water – Purified BP

Zidovudine

Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine

Lamivudine with Zidovudine

Acacia BP, powdered

Acetic Acid (33 per cent) BP

Alum BP

Aluminium Acetate Solution BP

Aqueous Cream APF

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Ascorbic Acid BP

For use only as an ingredient of ferrous sulfate mixtures

Aspirin BP

Belladonna Tincture BP

Benzocaine BP

Benzoic Acid BP

Benzoin Tincture Compound BP

Boric Acid, Olive Oil and Zinc Oxide Ointment QHF

Calcium Hydroxide BP

Cetomacrogol Cream, Aqueous APF

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Cetrimide Cream, Aqueous APF

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Chlorhexidine Cream, Aqueous APF

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Citric Acid Monohydrate BP

Coal Tar BP

Coal Tar Solution BP

Cocaine Hydrochloride BP

Coconut Oil BP

Codeine Phosphate BP

May only be prescribed in linctuses, mixtures and mixtures for children

Collodion Flexible BP

Dithranol BP

Emulsifying Ointment BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Ephedrine Hydrochloride BP

May only be prescribed in nasal instillations

Ferrous Sulfate BP

Formaldehyde Solution BP

Gentian Alkaline Mixture APF

Glycerol BP

Iodine BP

Kaolin Mixture BPC 1968

Kaolin and Opium Mixture APF 14

Lactic Acid BP

Lavender Oil, Spike BPC 1968

Levomenthol BP

Liquorice Liquid Extract BP

Magnesium Carbonate, Light BP

Magnesium Sulfate BP

May only be prescribed for other than oral use

Magnesium Trisilicate BP

Menthol, Racemic BP

Methyl Hydroxybenzoate BP

Paraffin, Hard BP

Paraffin, Light Liquid BP

Paraffin, Liquid BP

May only be prescribed for other than oral use

Paraffin, Soft White BP

Paraffin, Soft Yellow BP

Phenobarbitone Sodium BP

May only be prescribed for the treatment of epilepsy

Phenol, Liquefied BP

Not available for ear drops

Podophyllum Resin BP

Potassium Citrate BP

Potassium Iodide BP

Potassium Permanganate BP

Propyl Hydroxybenzoate BP

Propylene Glycol BP

Red Syrup APF 15

Resorcinol BP

Salicylic Acid BP

Simple Ointment (white) BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Simple Ointment (yellow) BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Sodium Bicarbonate BP

Sodium Chloride BP

Sodium Citrate BP

Starches BP

Sulfur, Precipitated BP 1980

Syrup BP

Talc, Purified BP, sterilised

Thymol BP

Thymol Mouth Wash, Compound APF 15

Tragacanth BP, powdered

Tragacanth Powder, Compound BP 1980

Trichloroacetic Acid BP 1980

Triethanolamine BP

Water For Injections, sterilised BP

May only be prescribed in eye drops and eye lotions

Water, Purified BP

Wool Alcohols Ointment (white) BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Wool Alcohols Ointment (yellow) BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Wool Fat BP

Wool Fat, Hydrous BP

Zinc Cream BP

For use only as a base combined with active ingredients

Zinc Oxide BP

Zinc Sulfate BP

Acetone BP

Anise Water, Concentrated BP

Boric Acid BP

Castor Oil BP

Chlorhexidine Acetate BP

Chloroform BP

Ethanol (96 per cent) BP

Ethanols, Dilute BP

Ether, Solvent BP

Eucalyptus Oil BP

Honey, Purified BP 1993

Industrial Methylated Spirit BP

Olive Oil BP

Peppermint Oil BP

Peppermint Water, Concentrated APF

Sodium Thiosulfate BP

Abacavir

Abacavir with Lamivudine

Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine

Abatacept

Adefovir

Apomorphine

Atazanavir

Atazanavir

Bosentan

Botulinum Toxin Type A  Purified Neurotoxin Complex

Buprenorphine

Buprenorphine with Naloxone

Choriogonadotropin Alfa

Cidofovir

Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin—Haemagglutinin Complex

Clozapine

Darbepoetin Alfa

Darunavir

Deferasirox

Deferiprone

Delavirdine

Desferrioxamine

Didanosine

Dornase Alfa

Efavirenz

Emtricitabine

Enfuvirtide

Entecavir

Epoetin Alfa

Epoetin Beta

Epoprostenol

Filgrastim

Fosamprenavir

Foscarnet

Ganciclovir

Ibandronic acid

Iloprost

Indinavir

Infliximab

Interferon Gamma1b

Lamivudine

Lamivudine with Zidovudine

Lanreotide

Lenograstim

Lopinavir with Ritonavir

Natalizumab

Nelfinavir

Nevirapine

Octreotide

Pegfilgrastim

Peginterferon Alfa2a

Peginterferon Alfa2b

Progesterone

Raltegravir

Ribavirin and Peginterferon Alfa2a

Ribavirin and Peginterferon Alfa2b

Rifabutin

Ritonavir

Saquinavir

Sildenafil

Sitaxentan

Somatropin

Stavudine

Tenofovir

Tenofovir with Emtricitabine

Thalidomide

Tipranavir

Trastuzumab

Valganciclovir

Zidovudine

Zoledronic Acid

Notes to the Declaration and Determination — drugs and medicinal preparations (PB 88 of 2007)

Note 1

The Declaration and Determination — drugs and medicinal preparations (PB 88 of 2007) (in force under subsections 85(2), 85(2A) and 85(2AA) of the National Health Act 1953) as shown in this compilation is amended as indicated in the Tables below.

Table of Instruments

Title

Date of FRLI Registration

Date of
commencement

Application, saving or
transitional provisions

PB 88 of 2007

16 Nov 2007 (see F2007L04360)

1 Dec 2007

 

PB 1 of 2008

23 Nov 2007 (see F2007L04463)

1 Jan 2008

PB 6 of 2008

19 Dec 2007 (see F2007L04902)

1 Jan 2008

PB 14 of 2008

9 Jan 2008 (see F2008L00033)

1 Feb 2008

PB 23 of 2008

7 Feb 2008 (see F2008L00281)

1 Mar 2008

PB 30 of 2008

11 Mar 2008 (see F2008L00691)

1 Apr 2008

PB  41 of 2008

10 Apr 2008 (see F2008L01027)

1 May 2008

PB 50 of 2008

12 May 2008 (see F2008L01382)

1 June 2008

PB 59 of 2008

10 June 2008 (see F2008L02048)

1 July 2008

Table of Amendments

ad. = added or inserted      am. = amended      rep. = repealed      rs. = repealed and substituted

Provision affected

How affected

S. 4B....................

ad. PB 6 of 2008

S. 12....................

am. PB 6 of 2008

S. 14....................

am. PB 6 of 2008

S. 15....................

am. PB 6 of 2008

S. 15A...................

am. PB 6 of 2008

S. 15B...................

am. PB 6 of 2008

Schedule 1

 

Schedule 1................

am. PB 1, 6, 14, 23, 30, 41, 50 and 59 of 2008

Schedule 1A

 

Schedule 1A...............

am. PB 6 and 30 of 2008

Schedule 2

 

Schedule 2................

am. PB 6, 30, 41 and 50 of 2008

Schedule 2A

 

Schedule 2A...............

ad. PB 6 of 2008

 

am. PB 14 of 2008

Schedule 3

 

Schedule 3................

am. PB 41 of 2008

Schedule 4

 

Schedule 4................

am. PB 6 of 2008

Schedule 6

 

Schedule 6................

am. PB 23, 30 and 59 of 2008

 

Interactions

Authorises

All Versions

Sourced from the Federal Register of Legislation at 26 August 2026. For the latest information on Australian Government law please go to https://www.legislation.gov.au.