Declaration and Determination — Drugs and medicinal preparations
(PB 14 of 2010)
as amended
made under subsections 85(2), 85(2AA) and 85(2A) of the
National Health Act 1953
This compilation was prepared on 1 November 2010
taking into account amendments up to PB 95 of 2010
Prepared by the Office of Legislative Drafting and Publishing,
Attorney‑General’s Department, Canberra
Declaration and determination — Drugs and medicinal preparations
(PB 14 of 2010)
Commencement [see Note 1]
1. This instrument commences on 1 April 2010.
Repeal
2. Instrument number PB 113 of 2008 is repealed.
Definitions
3. In this instrument:
“Act” means the National Health Act 1953;
“authorised midwife” has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the Act;
“authorised nurse practitioner” has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the Act;
“authorised optometrist” has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the Act;
“electronic communication” has the meaning given by subsection 5(1) of the Electronic Transactions Act 1999;
“extemporaneously-prepared pharmaceutical benefit” means a pharmaceutical benefit other than a ready-prepared pharmaceutical benefit;
“GP Management Plan” means a comprehensive written plan for the treatment of a patient, prepared by a medical practitioner, that includes a description of the patient’s health care needs, management goals, actions to be taken by the patient and treatment and services the patient is likely to need;
“Medicare Australia CEO” means the Chief Executive Officer of Medicare Australia;
“PBS” means Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme;
“palliative care patient”, in relation to a circumstance specified in Schedule 1A, means a patient with an active, progressive, far-advanced disease, and for whom the prognosis is limited and the focus of care is the quality of life;
“participating dental practitioner” has the meaning given by subsection 84(1) of the Act;
“ready-prepared pharmaceutical benefit” means a pharmaceutical item in respect of which there is in force a determination under subsection 85(6) of the Act;
“Regulations” means the National Health (Pharmaceutical Benefits) Regulations 1960;
“Team Care Arrangements” means a document prepared by a medical practitioner, following consultation with collaborating providers, that includes a description of the treatment and service goals for the patient, the treatment and services that all collaborating providers will provide and the actions to be taken by the patient.
Drugs and medicinal preparations to which Part VII applies
4. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 1 or 1A, including where [NP] or [NP] [MW] is included in column 1 with the name of the drug or medicinal preparation, and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by a medical practitioner.
4AA. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 1 and, where “[MW]” is included in column 1 with the name of the drug or medicinal preparation, including where [NP] is also mentioned in column 1, the circumstances (if any) specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by an authorised midwife, except where [MW] is also mentioned in column 3 of Schedule 1. The [MW] where included in column 1 does not form part of the name of the listed drug.
4AB. Where [MW] is included in column 1 of Schedule 1, and is also mentioned in column 3 of that Schedule with a form of a listed drug, Part VII of the Act applies for that form of the listed drug, and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 3 for that form apply, when prescribed by an authorised midwife or medical practitioner. The [MW] where included in column 3 does not constitute part of the form of the listed drug.
4AC. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 1 or 1A and, where “[NP]” is included in column 1 with the name of the drug or medicinal preparation, including where [MW] is also included in column 1 of Schedule 1, the circumstances (if any) specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by an authorised nurse practitioner, except where [NP] is also mentioned in column 3 of Schedule 1. The [NP] where included in column 1 of Schedule 1 or 1A does not form part of the name of the listed drug.
4AD. Where [NP] is included in column 1 of Schedule 1 and is also mentioned in column 3 of Schedule 1 with the circumstances for a listed drug, a form of a listed drug, or the circumstances for a form of a listed drug, Part VII of the Act applies in relation to the listed drug for those circumstances or for that form and the circumstances (if any) specified for that listed drug or for that form of the listed drug apply, when prescribed by an authorised nurse practitioner or medical practitioner. The [NP] when included with a circumstance, or form and strength of a listed drug does not constitute part of the circumstance or form and strength for the listed drug.
4A. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 2 and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 2 of Schedule 2 opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by a participating dental practitioner.
4B. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 2A and the circumstances (if any) specified in column 2 of Schedule 2A opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation apply when the drug or medicinal preparation is prescribed by an authorised optometrist.
5. A medicinal preparation composed of a compound that includes a drug or medicinal preparation the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 3, other than a compound the name of which is specified in column 2 of that Schedule opposite the name of that drug or medicinal preparation, is not a medicinal preparation to which Part VII of the Act applies, unless the name of that drug or medicinal preparation is also specified in Schedule 4, in which case the provisions of paragraphs 7 and 8 apply.
6. Part VII of the Act does not apply in relation to a drug or medicinal preparation composed of a compound that includes a ready-prepared pharmaceutical benefit, other than Sodium Chloride injection or a pharmaceutical benefit, the name of which is specified in column 1 of Schedule 3.
7. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to medicinal preparations composed of one or more of the drugs or medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 4.
8. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to medicinal preparations composed of one or more of the drugs or medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 4 with the addition of one or more of the substances the names of which are specified in Schedule 5.
9. The substances the names of which are specified in Schedule 5 are additives for the purposes of paragraph 85(2)(b) of the Act.
10. Part VII of the Act applies in relation to each of the drugs and medicinal preparations the name of which is specified in Schedule 6.
11. The drugs and medicinal preparations the names of which are specified in Schedule 6 are additional pharmaceutical benefits made available under arrangements provided for by section 100 of the Act.
Circumstances
12. Where circumstances are specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 for a listed drug specified in column 1 of any of those Schedules, a pharmaceutical benefit that has the listed drug (in the form if any mentioned in column 3 or 2 respectively) is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.
13. Where circumstances are specified in column 2 of Schedule 4 for a drug or medicinal preparation specified in column 1 of that Schedule, an extemporaneously prepared pharmaceutical benefit that contains the drug or medicinal preparation as an ingredient is a relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 88A of the Act.
14. Subject to paragraph 16, the following circumstances are determined in relation to each relevant pharmaceutical benefit for the purposes of section 85(2A) (b) of the Act:
(a) where a class of persons is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of a person included in that class of persons;
(b) where a disease or condition is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 —
(i) if subsubparagraph (ii) does not apply — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of that disease or condition in relation to any person; or
(ii) if the disease or condition is specified in relation to a specified class of persons — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment of that disease or condition in a person included in that class of persons;
(c) where a purpose is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A, 2, 2A or 4 — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for that purpose;
(d) where it is specified in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A (in respect of medical practitioners); or in column 3 of Schedule 1 or column 2 of Schedule 1A where [NP] is included in column 1 with the name of the drug or medicinal preparation, and including where [MW] is also mentioned in column 1, (in respect of authorised nurse practitioners); or in column 2 of Schedule 2A (in respect of authorised optometrists); that compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14(d) is required — that a medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist has submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO a prescription for the supply of the pharmaceutical benefit:
(i) by delivering or posting to the Medicare Australia CEO the prescription prepared and signed by the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist:
(A) in a form approved by the Secretary and completed by the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist in ink in his or her own handwriting; or
(B) in a form, prepared by means of a computer, that is in accordance with the form approved by the Secretary under subsubsubparagraph (A); or
(C) in a form, prepared by means of a computer, approved in writing for the purpose by the Secretary and in the format approved in writing by the Secretary; or
(D) by a method approved in writing by the Secretary; or
(ii) by submitting the prescription by giving the Medicare Australia CEO, by telephone, details of the prescription which has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist in accordance with subsubparagraph (i); or
(iii) where the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist has attempted to obtain an authorisation by submitting details of the prescription to the Medicare Australia CEO in accordance with subsubparagraph (ii) but has been unable to do so because of a failure or other form of unavailability in the telephone system established by the Medicare Australia CEO for the provision of such authorisations, by submitting the prescription in accordance with the instructions stipulated in an emergency telephone message provided to the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist by the Medicare Australia CEO; or
(iv) by submitting the prescription by giving the Medicare Australia CEO, by means of an electronic communication of a kind approved in writing by the Medicare Australia CEO, details of the prescription which has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner in accordance with subsubparagraph (i).
14A. For the purposes of subsubparagraph 14(d)(i), a prescription that has been prepared and signed by the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist in accordance with that subparagraph is taken to have been submitted by him or her if it is submitted by one of his or her employees.
15. Subject to paragraph 15B, the authorisation of a prescription submitted under subparagraph 14(d) may be made:
(a) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(i) — by the Medicare Australia CEO signing his or her authorisation of the prescription on it and:
(i) if the Medicare Australia CEO requires the medical practitioner or authorised optometrist to alter the prescription — by returning it to the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist for alteration before the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist gives it to the person in respect of whom it was prepared; or
(ii) in any other case:
(A) by returning it to the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist; or
(B) by sending it to the person in respect of whom it was prepared; or
(b) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(ii) — orally, at the time the Medicare Australia CEO is given details of the prescription; or
(c) if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(iv) — by the Medicare Australia CEO sending his or her authorisation, by electronic communication, to the medical practitioner.
15A. If the Medicare Australia CEO authorises a prescription in accordance with subparagraph 15(b) or (c):
(a) the Medicare Australia CEO must tell the medical practitioner, orally or by electronic communication, the number that has been allotted to the authorised prescription; or in the case of an authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist, must tell the authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist orally the number that has been allotted to the authorised prescription; and
(b) the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist must:
(i) mark that number on the prescription; and
(ii) retain a copy of the prescription for 1 year from the date on which the prescription was authorised.
15B. Notwithstanding paragraph 15, if the prescription was submitted in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(iii), authorisation shall be deemed to have been granted upon completion by the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist of the prescription in accordance with the instructions stipulated in the emergency telephone message provided to the medical practitioner, authorised nurse practitioner or authorised optometrist by the Medicare Australia CEO.
15C. If a medical practitioner or authorised nurse practitioner has written on a prescription, that has been prepared and signed in accordance with subsubparagraph 14(d)(i), the streamlined authority code mentioned in Schedule 1 for a pharmaceutical benefit and circumstances:
(a) subparagraph 14(d) is taken to have been complied with; and
(b) the Medicare Australia CEO is taken to have authorised the prescription.
15D. Paragraph 15C applies to a prescription only if there is a streamlined authority code for the pharmaceutical benefit and circumstances in Schedule 1.
16. Where the circumstances "For use in accordance with paragraph 16" are specified in column 3 of Schedule 1, the circumstances specified for the purpose of subparagraph 14(c) are:
(a) that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy, of a patient identified as being in one of the following very high risk categories:
(i) coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic;
(ii) cerebrovascular disease which has become symptomatic;
(iii) peripheral vascular disease which has become symptomatic;
(iv) diabetes mellitus with microalbuminuria (defined as urinary albumin excretion rate of greater than 20 micrograms per minute, or urinary albumin to creatinine ratio of greater than 2.5 for males or greater than 3.5 for females);
(v) diabetes mellitus in Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander patients;
(vi) diabetes mellitus in patients aged 60 years or more;
(vii) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 55 years in two or more first degree relatives;
(viii) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 45 years in one or more first degree relatives; or
(b) if subparagraph 16(a) does not apply — that the pharmaceutical benefit is to be supplied for the treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy, of a patient who, after at least 6 weeks of dietary therapy, qualifies for the supply of the benefit in accordance with the following table:
Category of patient | Fasting lipid level |
Patients with diabetes mellitus not otherwise included | total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L |
Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander patients; Patients with hypertension | total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L; or total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L and high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L |
Patients with high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L | total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L |
Patients with familial hypercholesterolaemia identified by: (1) DNA mutation; or (2) tendon xanthomas in the patient or their first or second degree relative Patients with: (1) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 60 years in one or more first degree relatives; or (2) family history of coronary heart disease which has become symptomatic before the age of 50 years in one or more second degree relatives | If aged 18 years or less at treatment initiation: low density lipoprotein cholesterol greater than 4 mmol per L If aged more than 18 years at treatment initiation: low density lipoprotein cholesterol greater than 5 mmol per L; or total cholesterol greater than 6.5 mmol per L; or total cholesterol greater than 5.5 mmol per L and high density lipoprotein cholesterol less than 1 mmol per L |
Patients not eligible under the above: (1) men over 34 but less than 76 years of age; or (2) post-menopausal women less than 76 years of age | total cholesterol greater than 7.5 mmol per L; or triglyceride greater than 4 mmol per L |
Patients not otherwise included | total cholesterol greater than 9 mmol per L; or triglyceride greater than 8 mmol per L |
SCHEDULE 1 – READY-PREPARED PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS WHEN PRESCRIBED BY A MEDICAL PRACTITIONER | |||
Column 1 Listed Drug | Column 2 Streamlined authority code | Column 3 Circumstances (if any) specified for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act | |
Abciximab |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1716 | Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary balloon angioplasty | |
| 1717 | Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary atherectomy | |
| 1718 | Patients undergoing percutaneous coronary stent placement | |
Acamprosate [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2665 | For use within a comprehensive treatment program for alcohol dependence with the goal of maintaining abstinence | |
Acarbose [NP] |
| — | |
Acetazolamide [NP] |
| — | |
Aciclovir [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 200 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Moderate to severe initial genital herpes | |
|
| Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 800 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash | |
|
| Herpes zoster ophthalmicus | |
|
| Patients with advanced human immunodeficiency virus disease (CD4 cell counts of less than 150 million per L) | |
|
| In respect of the eye ointment 30 mg per g, 4.5 g: Herpes simplex keratitis | |
Acitretin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1366 | Severe intractable psoriasis | |
| 1363 | Severe forms of disorders of keratinisation | |
Adalimumab |
| In respect of the injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled syringe, 6 and injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled pen, 6: Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: (a) has confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (c) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (d) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and | |
|
| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a severity of disease activity which results in a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 300 as assessed, and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application; all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; the most recent CDAI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient acknowledgement; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Crohn disease — initial treatment 2 (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with infliximab or adalimumab for this condition; and (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; and | |
|
| (ii) details of prior adalimumab and infliximab treatment including details of date and duration of treatment; and to demonstrate a response to treatment the application is accompanied by the results of the patient’s most recent course of adalimumab or infliximab therapy where: (a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and (b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial course (in the case of adalimumab), the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or (ii) if the course of therapy is a 3 dose initial course (in the case of infliximab), the assessment of response is made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose); if the response assessment to the previous course of adalimumab or infliximab treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient with short gut syndrome or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: | |
|
| (a) has confirmed Crohn disease defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence of short gut syndrome or has an ileostomy or colostomy; and (c) has evidence of intestinal inflammation; and (d) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (e) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (f) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic drug therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (f) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (f) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by the following and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application: (a) have evidence of intestinal inflammation, including: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery; and/or (b) be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; and/or (c) be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of adalimumab; all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (ii) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criterion, if relevant; and (iii) date of the most recent clinical assessment; and (iv) the signed patient acknowledgement; all assessments, pathology tests and diagnostic imaging studies are made within 1 month of the date of application; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who has short gut syndrome or an ileostomy or colostomy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 2 (patient with short gut syndrome or extensive small intestine disease, or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and has short gut syndrome, an ileostomy or colostomy, or extensive small intestine disease; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with infliximab or adalimumab for this condition; and (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and | |
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| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criteria, if relevant; and (ii) details of prior adalimumab and infliximab treatment including details of date and duration of treatment; to demonstrate a response to treatment the application is accompanied by the results of the patient’s most recent course of adalimumab or infliximab therapy where: (a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and (b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial course (in the case of adalimumab), the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or (ii) if the course of therapy is a 3 dose initial course (in the case of infliximab), the assessment of response is made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose); if the response assessment to the previous course of adalimumab or infliximab treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment; the same baseline criterion used to determine response to an initial course of adalimumab treatment is used to determine response, and thus eligibility for continued PBS-subsidised therapy, to subsequent courses of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and has short gut syndrome, an ileostomy or colostomy, or extensive small intestine disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient with extensive small intestine disease) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: (a) has confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has extensive small intestinal disease with radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine; and (c) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (d) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (e) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and | |
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| (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (e) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (e) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by the following and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application: (a) have severity of disease activity which results in a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and/or (b) have evidence of active intestinal inflammation, including: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery; and/or (c) be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; and/or (d) be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of adalimumab; all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; | |
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| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (ii) (1) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criterion, if relevant; or (2) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) calculation sheet including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition, if relevant; and (iii) date of the most recent clinical assessment; and (iv) the signed patient acknowledgement; all assessments, pathology tests and diagnostic imaging studies are made within 1 month of the date of application; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who has extensive small intestine disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| In respect of the injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled syringe and injection 40 mg in 0.8 mL pre-filled pen: | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: (a) has confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (c) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (d) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a severity of disease activity which results in a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 300 as assessed, and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application; all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; | |
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| the most recent CDAI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) calculation sheet including the date of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient acknowledgement; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 2 (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with infliximab or adalimumab for this condition; and (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior adalimumab and infliximab treatment including details of date and duration of treatment; and to demonstrate a response to treatment the application is accompanied by the results of the patient’s most recent course of adalimumab or infliximab therapy where: (a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and | |
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| (b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial course (in the case of adalimumab), the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or (ii) if the course of therapy is a 3 dose initial course (in the case of infliximab), the assessment of response is made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose); if the response assessment to the previous course of adalimumab or infliximab treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient with short gut syndrome or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: (a) has confirmed Crohn disease defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence of short gut syndrome or has an ileostomy or colostomy; and (c) has evidence of intestinal inflammation; and | |
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| (d) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (e) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (f) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic drug therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or | |
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| — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and | |
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| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (f) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (f) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by the following and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application: (a) have evidence of intestinal inflammation, including: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery; and/or (b) be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; and/or (c) be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of adalimumab; all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (ii) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criterion, if relevant; and (iii) date of the most recent clinical assessment; and (iv) the signed patient acknowledgement; all assessments, pathology tests and diagnostic imaging studies are made within 1 month of the date of application; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who has short gut syndrome or an ileostomy or colostomy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 2 (patient with short gut syndrome or extensive small intestine disease, or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and has short gut syndrome, an ileostomy or colostomy, or extensive small intestine disease; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with infliximab or adalimumab for this condition; and (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criteria, if relevant; and (ii) details of prior adalimumab and infliximab treatment including details of date and duration of treatment; to demonstrate a response to treatment the application is accompanied by the results of the patient’s most recent course of adalimumab or infliximab therapy where: (a) the response assessment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; and (b) (i) if the course of therapy is a 16-week initial course (in the case of adalimumab), the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or (ii) if the course of therapy is a 3 dose initial course (in the case of infliximab), the assessment of response is made up to 12 weeks after the first dose (6 weeks following the third dose); if the response assessment to the previous course of adalimumab or infliximab treatment is not submitted as detailed above, the patient is deemed to have failed therapy with that particular course of treatment; the same baseline criterion used to determine response to an initial course of adalimumab treatment is used to determine response, and thus eligibility for continued PBS-subsidised therapy, to subsequent courses of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and has short gut syndrome, an ileostomy or colostomy, or extensive small intestine disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 1 (patient with extensive small intestine disease) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who satisfies the following criteria: (a) has confirmed Crohn disease, defined by standard clinical, endoscopic and/or imaging features, including histological evidence, with the diagnosis confirmed by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician as specified above; and (b) has extensive small intestinal disease with radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine; and (c) has not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for this condition was approved; and (d) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (e) has failed to achieve an adequate response to prior systemic therapy including: (i) a tapered course of steroids, starting at a dose of at least 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent), over a 6 week period; and (ii) immunosuppressive therapy including: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — 6-mercaptopurine at a dose of at least 1 mg per kg daily for 3 or more months; or — methotrexate at a dose of at least 15 mg weekly for 3 or more months; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (e) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens mentioned at (e) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by the following and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application: (a) have severity of disease activity which results in a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score greater than or equal to 220; and/or (b) have evidence of active intestinal inflammation, including: (i) blood: higher than normal platelet count, or, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour, or, a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: higher than normal lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) diagnostic imaging: demonstration of increased uptake of intravenous contrast with thickening of the bowel wall or mesenteric lymphadenopathy or fat streaking in the mesentery; and/or (c) be assessed clinically as being in a high faecal output state; and/or (d) be assessed clinically as requiring surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as the next therapeutic option, in the absence of adalimumab; | |
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| all tests and assessments are performed preferably whilst still on treatment, but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) details of prior systemic drug therapy (dosage, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (ii) (1) reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) nominated as the response criterion, if relevant; or (2) the completed current Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) calculation sheet including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition, if relevant; and (iii) date of the most recent clinical assessment; and (iv) the signed patient acknowledgement; all assessments, pathology tests and diagnostic imaging studies are made within 1 month of the date of application; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment; the first supply authorised under this restriction is limited to a quantity sufficient for the initial 4 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment in a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist or a consultant physician, of a patient with severe refractory Crohn disease who has extensive small intestine disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with 2 or more authority prescriptions for initial treatment with adalimumab which together provide less than 16 weeks of therapy, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 3 (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a treatment cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and was receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 9 November 2007; and (b) had a Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score of greater than or equal to 300 prior to commencing treatment with adalimumab; and (c) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and (d) has demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to no greater than 150; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and baseline Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) the signed patient acknowledgment; the current CDAI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the baseline CDAI assessment is from immediately prior to commencing treatment with adalimumab; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; a patient may qualify for PBS-subsidised treatment under this restriction once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician as specified above, or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — continuing treatment (patient assessed by CDAI) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease; and (b) has demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to a level no greater than 150; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; | |
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| the CDAI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
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| the CDAI assessment of the patient’s response to a course of treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the course, and, if the course of treatment is a 16-week initial course, the assessment is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; where an assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO as detailed above the patient is deemed to have failed to respond, or to have failed to sustain a response, to treatment with adalimumab, despite demonstrating a response as defined above; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible to receive continuing adalimumab treatment in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain the response | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician as specified above, or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — continuing treatment (patient with short gut syndrome or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment in an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease with intestinal inflammation and with short gut syndrome or with an ileostomy or colostomy; and (b) has demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as: | |
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| (a) improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (b) reversal of high faecal output state; or (c) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN); the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the reports and dates of the pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy or the date of clinical assessment; the patient’s assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the assessment of the patient’s response to a course of treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the course, and, if the course of treatment is a 16-week initial course, the assessment is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; where an assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO as detailed above the patient is deemed to have failed to respond, or to have failed to sustain a response, to treatment with adalimumab, despite demonstrating a response as defined above; the same baseline criterion used to determine response to an initial course of adalimumab treatment is used to determine response, and thus eligibility for continued PBS-subsidised therapy, to subsequent courses of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible to receive continuing adalimumab treatment in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain the response In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician as specified above, or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease with short gut syndrome or an ileostomy or colostomy, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — continuing treatment (patient with extensive small intestine disease) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment in an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, or consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease with extensive intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine; and (b) has demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to no greater than 150; or (b) improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; and/or | |
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| (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or | |
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| (c) reversal of high faecal output state; or | |
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| (d) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN); the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; or (ii) the reports and dates of the pathology test or diagnostic imaging test(s) used to assess response to therapy; or (iii) the date of clinical assessment; all assessments are no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the assessment of the patient’s response to a course of treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date of completion of the course, and, if the course of treatment is a 16-week initial course, the assessment is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; where an assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO as detailed above the patient is deemed to have failed to respond, or to have failed to sustain a response, to treatment with adalimumab, despite demonstrating a response as defined above; the same baseline criterion used to determine response to an initial course of adalimumab treatment is used to determine response, and thus eligibility for continued PBS-subsidised therapy, to subsequent courses of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible to receive continuing adalimumab treatment in courses of up to 24 weeks providing they continue to sustain the response In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician as specified above, or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease with extensive small intestine disease, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Crohn disease — initial treatment 3 (patient with short gut syndrome or extensive small intestine disease, or an ostomy patient) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a treatment cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician in internal (or general) medicine specialising in gastroenterology or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who: (a) has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease and was receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 9 November 2007; and (b) (1) has a history of extensive small intestinal disease with radiological evidence of intestinal inflammation affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine; or (2) has diagnostic imaging or surgical evidence of short gut syndrome or has an ileostomy or colostomy with a documented history of intestinal inflammation; and (c) has signed a patient acknowledgement indicating that they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment; and | |
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| (d) has demonstrated or sustained an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab according to the criteria included in the relevant continuation restriction; and | |
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| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or infliximab for Crohn disease in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab or infliximab, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised courses of treatment with adalimumab or infliximab up to 3 times (but with the same drug no more than twice), at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as: (a) a reduction in Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score to no greater than 150; or (b) improvement of intestinal inflammation as demonstrated by: (i) blood: normalisation of the platelet count, or an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) no greater than 25 mm per hour, or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level no greater than 15 mg per L; and/or (ii) faeces: normalisation of lactoferrin or calprotectin level; and/or (iii) evidence of mucosal healing, as demonstrated by diagnostic imaging findings, compared to the baseline assessment; or (c) reversal of high faecal output state; or (d) avoidance of the need for surgery or total parenteral nutrition (TPN); the same criteria used to determine an inadequate response to prior treatment at baseline are used to determine response to treatment and eligibility for continuing therapy, according to the criteria included in the continuing treatment restriction; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Crohn Disease PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
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| (i) (1) the completed current and baseline Crohn Disease Activity Index (CDAI) Score calculation sheet, where relevant, including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; or (2) the reports and dates of the current and baseline pathology or diagnostic imaging test(s) in order to assess response to therapy; or (3) the date of clinical assessment(s); and (ii) the signed patient acknowledgement; the patient’s assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the baseline assessment is from immediately prior to commencing treatment with adalimumab; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; a patient may qualify for PBS-subsidised treatment under this restriction once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a gastroenterologist, a consultant physician as specified above, or other consultant physician in consultation with a gastroenterologist, of a patient who has a documented history of severe refractory Crohn disease with extensive small intestine disease, short gut syndrome or an ileostomy or colostomy, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
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| Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg/day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: | |
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| if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; | |
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| the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and | |
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| (b) either: (i) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or | |
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| (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient is eligible for treatment if they have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis, and have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment for this condition within the previous 12 months and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy; and | |
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| (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for this condition; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with adalimumab are not eligible to commence treatment with adalimumab until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion; | |
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| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; | |
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| where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults: (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with adalimumab; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; | |
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| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab; | |
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| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; | |
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| if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; | |
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| if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with adalimumab, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) have received no prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and (3) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months and to either sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (3) above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); | |
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| if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied; | |
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| if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (3) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (3) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgment; | |
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| a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with adalimumab in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent; and (3) have not failed treatment with adalimumab during the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents within this Treatment Cycle; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab within this Treatment Cycle and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment; | |
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| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Psoriatic arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults: (1) who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in the current Treatment Cycle was with adalimumab; and | |
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| (3) who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; | |
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| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; | |
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| a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with adalimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment with adalimumab commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and: (a) who has not received any PBS-subsidised treatment with a tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last course of PBS-subsidised treatment was approved; and (b) who has at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; or (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); or | |
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| (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; and (c) who has failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of at least 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist therapy of at least 5 years duration, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 NSAID, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 consecutive months; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
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| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by: (a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale, where the BASDAI score is determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment, and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; and (b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L; both ESR and CRP measurements are included in the authority application and are no more than 1 month old; if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reason why this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment; if the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, the authority application includes the reason why a higher dose cannot be used; if treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
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| if intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the nature and severity of this intolerance; an appropriate minimum exercise program includes stretch and range of motion exercises at least 5 times per week, and either aerobic exercise of at least 20 minutes duration at least 3 times per week or a group exercise class at least once per week; | |
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| if a patient is unable to complete the minimum exercise program, the authority application includes the clinical reasons for this and details what, if any, exercise program has been followed; the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and (iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; and (iv) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form detailing the program followed and the dates over which it was followed, and including confirmation by the prescribing doctor that, to the best of their knowledge, the patient has followed the exercise program detailed; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with adalimumab in a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition and is eligible to receive further TNF-alfa antagonist therapy, and has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab in the current treatment cycle; and | |
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| where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: a patient is eligible to receive further therapy with a TNF-alfa antagonist within this treatment cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists within this treatment cycle; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; an assessment of response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; | |
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| where the most recent course of TNF-antagonist treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or | |
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| if the response assessment to the previous course of TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; | |
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| a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Ankylosing spondylitis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab, and whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle was with adalimumab; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
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| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 in the patient’s Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and 1 of the following: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or | |
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| (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline; all measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application; where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied to establish baseline in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker is measured and supplied in all subsequent continuing treatment applications; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab; | |
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| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and | |
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| (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment, and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application; a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
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| if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and | |
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| (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults | |
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| (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and were receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2009; and (b) had a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15 prior to commencing treatment with adalimumab; and (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and (d) have demonstrated a response as specified in the criterion included in the restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition at baseline (prior to initiation of adalimumab therapy) and the most recent PASI assessment; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and were receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2009, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with adalimumab; and | |
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| (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with adalimumab; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
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| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-biological treatment baseline value for this Treatment Cycle; | |
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| the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 16-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and | |
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| (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application and is indicated by chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
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| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; | |
|
| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and | |
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| (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing | |
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| Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and were receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2009; and (b) whose disease, prior to treatment with adalimumab, was classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where either at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling were rated as severe or very severe, or the skin area affected was 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and (c) who have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and (d) who have demonstrated a response as specified in the criterion included in the restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition at baseline (prior to initiation of adalimumab therapy) and the most recent PASI assessment; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area as assessed at baseline or prior to initiation of adalimumab treatment; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and were receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2009, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with adalimumab; and (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with adalimumab; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to adalimumab treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological agent treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline values; or (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline value; the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 16-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older who: (a) has a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) has received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) has failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg per day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and where bDMARD means adalimumab or etanercept; and where the following conditions apply: if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder, cervical spine and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient whose previous treatment cycle was ceased due to their failure to respond to bDMARD treatment 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is eligible to commence a new treatment cycle with an initial course of adalimumab provided a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date of the last approval for PBS-subsidised bDMARD therapy in their previous treatment cycle and the date of the first application under the new treatment cycle; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older who: (a) has a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or etanercept for this condition; and | |
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| (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with adalimumab for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab in this treatment cycle and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised adalimumab treatment is a 16 week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a patient who has failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab and etanercept 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is not eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with adalimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a treatment cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of adalimumab for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older who: (a) has a documented history of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) was receiving treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2010; and (c) has demonstrated a response as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab; and (d) is receiving treatment with adalimumab at the time of application; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; a patient is eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who was receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab prior to 1 March 2010 and at the time of the initial application for PBS-subsidised therapy, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older: (a) who has a documented history of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) who has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with adalimumab; and | |
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| (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with adalimumab; and where bDMARD means adalimumab or etanercept; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) an active joint count of fewer than 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) a reduction in the active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline; or (iii) a reduction in the number of the following joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder, cervical spine and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with adalimumab; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of adalimumab therapy is a 16 week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a patient who has failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab and etanercept 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is not eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with adalimumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
Adrenaline [NP] |
| In respect of the injection 1 mg (as acid tartrate) in 1 mL (1 in 1,000): — | |
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| In respect of the I.M. injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe auto-injector (EpiPen Jr.), I.M. injection 150 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe auto-injector (Anapen Junior), I.M. injection 300 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe auto-injector (EpiPen) and I.M. injection 300 micrograms in 0.3 mL single dose syringe auto-injector (Anapen): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Initial sole PBS-subsidised supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis in a patient who has been assessed to be at significant risk of anaphylaxis by, or in consultation with, a clinical immunologist, allergist, paediatrician or respiratory physician, and where the name of the specialist consulted is included in the authority application | |
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| Initial sole PBS-subsidised supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis in a patient who has been discharged from hospital or an emergency department after treatment with adrenaline for acute allergic reaction with anaphylaxis | |
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| Continuing sole PBS-subsidised supply for anticipated emergency treatment of acute allergic reactions with anaphylaxis, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug | |
Albendazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 200 mg [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2446 | Treatment of whipworm infestation in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
| 1388 | Strongyloidiasis | |
| 3241 | Treatment of hookworm infestation | |
| 1525 | Treatment of tapeworm infestation | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 400 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1496 | For the treatment of hydatid disease in conjunction with surgery or when a surgical cure cannot be achieved or where surgery cannot be used | |
Alendronic Acid [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 70 mg (as alendronate sodium): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3070 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient's medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
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| In respect of the tablet 40 mg (as alendronate sodium): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3256 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone | |
Alendronic acid with colecalciferol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3070 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient's medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Alendronic acid with colecalciferol and calcium [NP] |
3070 | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient's medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Alginic acid with calcium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate [NP] |
| — | |
Allopurinol [NP] |
| — | |
Alprazolam [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Panic disorder where other treatments have failed or are inappropriate | |
Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide [NP] |
| — | |
Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide [NP] |
| — | |
Amantadine [NP] |
| Parkinson’s disease which is not drug induced | |
Amiloride [NP] |
| — | |
Amino acid formula with fat, carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals, and trace elements, without methionine and supplemented with docosahexanoic acid [NP] |
| Pyridoxine non-responsive homocystinuria | |
Amino acid formula with fat, carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals and trace elements without phenylalanine and tyrosine, and supplemented with docosahexanoic acid [NP] |
| Tyrosinaemia | |
Amino acid formula without phenylalanine [NP] |
| Phenylketonuria | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins, minerals and long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids without phenylalanine [NP] |
| Phenylketonuria | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without lysine and low in tryptophan [NP] |
| In respect of the sachets containing oral powder 20 g, 30 (GA gel): A child aged from 6 months up to 10 years with proven glutaric aciduria type 1 | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (GA1 Anamix infant): An infant or young child with proven glutaric aciduria type 1 | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 500 g (XLYS, LOW TRY Maxamaid): A child aged less than 9 years with proven glutaric aciduria type 1 | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without methionine [NP] |
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (HCU Anamix infant): For infants and very young children with pyridoxine non-responsive homocystinuria | |
|
| In respect of the sachets containing oral powder 20 g, 30 (HCU gel), sachets containing oral powder 25 g, 30 (HCU express), oral powder 500 g (XMET Maxamaid), oral powder 500 g (XMET Maxamum) and oral liquid 130 mL, 30 (HCU Cooler): Pyridoxine non-responsive homocystinuria | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without methionine, threonine and valine and low in isoleucine [NP] |
| Methylmalonic acidaemia Propionic acidaemia | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without phenylalanine [NP] |
| Phenylketonuria | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without phenylalanine and tyrosine [NP] |
| Tyrosinaemia | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without valine, leucine and isoleucine [NP] |
| Maple syrup urine disease | |
Amino acid formula with vitamins and minerals without valine, leucine and isoleucine with fat, carbohydrate and trace elements and supplemented with docosahexanoic acid [NP] |
| Maple syrup urine disease | |
Amino acids — synthetic, formula [NP] |
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (EleCare): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows’ milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition | |
|
| Initial treatment for up to 3 months, by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist in a patient 18 years of age or less with eosinophilic oesophagitis who requires an amino acid based formula as a component of a dietary elimination programme, and where: eosinophilic oesophagitis is demonstrated by the following criteria: (i) chronic symptoms of reflux that persisted despite a 2-month trial of a proton pump inhibitor or chronic dysphagia; and (ii) a lack of demonstrable anatomic abnormality with the exception of stricture, which can be attributable to eosinophilic oesophagitis; and | |
|
| (iii) eosinophilic infiltration of the oesophagus, demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy and where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy specimen had 20 or more eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies; the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application; treatment with oral steroids is not commenced during the period of initial treatment | |
|
| Continuing treatment by a clinical immunologist, suitably qualified allergist or gastroenterologist in a patient 18 years of age or less with eosinophilic oesophagitis who has responded to an initial course of PBS-subsidised treatment, and where: response to initial treatment is demonstrated by oesophageal biopsy specimens obtained by endoscopy, where the most densely involved oesophageal biopsy specimen has 5 or less eosinophils in any single 400 x high powered field, along with normal antral and duodenal biopsies; the response criteria will be deemed to have been not met if the patient commenced oral steroids during initial treatment | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Neocate), oral powder 400 g (Neocate Advance) and oral powder 400 g (Neocate Advance Tropical Flavour): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows’ milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition | |
Amino acid synthetic formula supplemented with long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where combined intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows’ milk protein free and strict soy protein free diet with a protein hydrolysate (with or without medium chain triglycerides) as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for combined intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist and soy protein and protein hydrolysate formulae are not tolerated or not likely to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child is assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist at intervals not greater than 6 months, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where protein hydrolysate formulae have failed | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome where the patient has been receiving parenteral nutrition | |
Amiodarone [NP] |
| Severe cardiac arrhythmias | |
Amisulpride [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
Amitriptyline [NP] |
| — | |
Amlodipine [NP] |
| — | |
Amlodipine with Atorvastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and who are currently receiving treatment with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and whose blood pressure and/or angina is inadequately controlled with other classes of antihypertensive and/or anti-anginal agent, and in whom adjunctive therapy with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker would be appropriate | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who have hypertension and/or angina, and who are intolerant of the side effects of other classes of antihypertensive and/or anti-anginal agent, and in whom replacement therapy with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker would be appropriate | |
Amlodipine with valsartan [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Amlodipine with valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with any two of the drugs in the combination | |
Amoxycillin [NP] [MW] |
| In respect of the tablet 1 g (as trihydrate): Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis | |
|
| In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as trihydrate) [MW], capsule 500 mg (as trihydrate) [MW], sachet containing oral powder 3 g (as trihydrate), powder for paediatric oral drops 100 mg (as trihydrate) per mL, 20 mL, powder for oral suspension 125 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL, powder for oral suspension 250 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral suspension 500 mg (as trihydrate) per 5 mL, 100 mL: — | |
Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid [NP] [MW] |
| Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is suspected | |
|
| Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is proven | |
Amphotericin [NP] |
| — | |
Ampicillin [NP] |
| — | |
Amylopectin, modified long chain [NP] |
| Glycogen storage disease | |
Anakinra |
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and | |
|
| (b) have received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: | |
|
| (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: | |
|
| — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg/day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; | |
|
| the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: | |
|
| (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and | |
|
| (b) either: (i) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or | |
|
| — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient is eligible for treatment if they have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra for rheumatoid arthritis, and have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment for this condition within the previous 12 months and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy; and | |
|
| (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra for this condition; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; | |
|
| patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with anakinra are not eligible to commence treatment with anakinra until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised anakinra treatment; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised anakinra treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Rheumatoid arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults: (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with anakinra; and (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with anakinra; and | |
|
| where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with anakinra; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of anakinra therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with anakinra, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
Anastrozole [NP] |
| Treatment of hormone-dependent breast cancer in post-menopausal women | |
Apraclonidine |
| Short-term reduction of intra-ocular pressure in patients already on maximally tolerated anti-glaucoma therapy | |
Aprepitant [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy, in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist and dexamethasone, where any 1 of the following chemotherapy agents are to be administered: (a) altretamine; (b) carmustine; (c) cisplatin, when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; (d) cyclophosphamide, at a dose of 1500 mg per square metre per day or greater; (e) dacarbazine; (f) procarbazine, when a single dose constitutes a cycle of chemotherapy; (g) streptozocin; and where treatment with aprepitant is limited to an initial dose of 125 mg and 2 subsequent doses of 80 mg per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy | |
|
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat breast cancer, in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor antagonist and dexamethasone, where cyclophosphamide and an anthracycline are to be co-administered, and where treatment with aprepitant is limited to an initial dose of 125 mg and 2 subsequent doses of 80 mg per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy | |
|
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with moderately emetogenic cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy, in combination with a 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 receptor (5HT3) antagonist and dexamethasone on day 1, where the patient has had a prior episode of chemotherapy induced nausea or vomiting where any 1 of the following intravenous chemotherapy agents is to be administered: (a) arsenic trioxide; (b) azacitidine; (c) carboplatin; (d) cyclophosphamide, at a dose of less than 1500 mg per square metre per day; (e) cytarabine, at a dose of greater than 1 g per square metre per day; (f) dactinomycin; (g) daunorubicin; (h) doxorubicin; (i) epirubicin; (j) fotemustine; (k) idarubicin; (l) ifosfamide; (m) irinotecan; (n) melphalan; (o) methotrexate, at a dose of 250 mg to 1 g per square metre; (p) oxaliplatin; (q) raltitrexed; and where treatment with aprepitant is limited to an initial dose of 125 mg and 2 subsequent doses of 80 mg per cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy, and where concomitant use of a 5HT3 antagonist should not occur with aprepitant on days 2 and 3 of any chemotherapy cycle | |
Arginine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Urea cycle disorders | |
Aripiprazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
Arsenic |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Induction and consolidation treatment of relapsed acute promyelocytic leukaemia (characterised by the presence of the t(15:17) translocation or PML/RAR-alpha fusion gene transcript) in a patient who is arsenic naive at induction | |
Artemether with lumefantrine |
| In respect of the tablet 20 mg-120 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of suspected or confirmed malaria due to Plasmodium falciparum | |
|
| In respect of the tablet (dispersible) 20 mg-120 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of suspected or confirmed malaria due to Plasmodium falciparum in a patient unable to swallow a solid dosage form of artemether with lumefantrine | |
Aspirin [NP] |
| — | |
Atenolol [NP] |
| — | |
Atomoxetine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial sole PBS-subsidised treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate or methylphenidate hydrochloride poses an unacceptable medical risk due to the following contraindications as specified in the Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information: (1) the patient has a history of substance abuse or misuse (other than alcohol); and/or (2) the patient has comorbid motor tics or Tourette’s Syndrome; and/or (3) the patient has comorbid severe anxiety diagnosed according to the DSM-IV | |
|
| Initial sole PBS-subsidised treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the DSM-IV criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate or methylphenidate hydrochloride has resulted in the development or worsening of a comorbid mood disorder (that is, anxiety disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder or depressive disorder, diagnosed according to the DSM-IV criteria) of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal, or where the combination of stimulant treatment with another agent would pose an unacceptable medical risk of a severity necessitating permanent stimulant treatment withdrawal | |
|
| Initial sole PBS-subsidised treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, by a paediatrician or psychiatrist according to the DSM-IV criteria, where treatment with dexamphetamine sulfate and methylphenidate hydrochloride has resulted in the development of adverse reactions of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal: (1) Adverse effects on growth and weight; and/or (2) Adverse effects on sleep including insomnia; and/or (3) Adverse effects on appetite including anorexia | |
|
| Continuing sole PBS-subsidised treatment where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug | |
Atorvastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Atovaquone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1433 | Treatment of mild to moderate Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in adult patients who are intolerant of trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole therapy | |
Atovaquone with proguanil [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of suspected or confirmed Plasmodium falciparum malaria in a patient aged 3 years or older where quinine containing regimens are inappropriate | |
Atropine [NP] |
| — | |
Auranofin [NP] |
| — | |
Aurothiomalate [NP] |
| — | |
Azathioprine [NP] |
| — | |
Azithromycin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 500 mg (as dihydrate): Uncomplicated urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis | |
|
| Uncomplicated cervicitis due to Chlamydia trachomatis | |
|
| Trachoma | |
|
| In respect of the powder for oral suspension 200 mg (as dihydrate) per 5 mL, 15 mL: Trachoma | |
Baclofen [NP] |
| — | |
Balsalazide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1708 | Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists | |
| 1709 | Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists | |
"BCG Immunotherapeutic" (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin/ Connaught strain) |
| Treatment of carcinoma in situ of the urinary bladder | |
"BCG-Tice" (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin/ Tice strain) |
| Primary and relapsing superficial urothelial carcinoma of the bladder | |
Beclomethasone [NP] |
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing beclomethasone dipropionate 50 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation) and pressurised inhalation containing beclomethasone dipropionate 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation): — | |
|
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device containing beclomethasone dipropionate 50 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation) and pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device containing beclomethasone dipropionate 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation): Patients unable to achieve co-ordinated use of other metered dose inhalers containing this drug | |
Benzathine benzylpenicillin [NP] |
| — | |
Benzhexol [NP] |
| — | |
Benztropine [NP] |
| — | |
Benzydamine [NP] |
| Radiation induced mucositis | |
Benzylpenicillin [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Betamethasone [NP] |
| In respect of the injection containing betamethasone acetate 3 mg with betamethasone sodium phosphate 3.9 mg in 1 mL: Alopecia areata | |
|
| For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration | |
|
| Granulomata, dermal | |
|
| Keloid | |
|
| Lichen planus hypertrophic | |
|
| Lichen simplex chronicus | |
|
| Lupus erythematosus, chronic discoid | |
|
| Necrobiosis lipoidica | |
|
| Uveitis | |
|
| In respect of the cream 500 micrograms (as dipropionate) per g, 15 g, cream 200 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 100 g, ointment 500 micrograms (as dipropionate) per g, 15 g, cream 500 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 15 g, ointment 200 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 100 g and ointment 500 micrograms (as valerate) per g, 15 g: Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses | |
Betaxolol |
| — | |
Bethanechol [NP] |
| — | |
Bevacizumab |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, in combination with first-line chemotherapy, of a patient with previously untreated metastatic colorectal cancer with a World Health Organisation performance status of 0 or 1, and where the patient’s dose of bevacizumab does not exceed 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks or 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, in combination with first-line chemotherapy, of a patient with metastatic colorectal cancer who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for bevacizumab and who does not have progressive disease and who remains on first-line chemotherapy, and where the patient’s dose of bevacizumab does not exceed 5 mg per kg every 2 weeks or 7.5 mg per kg every 3 weeks | |
Bicalutamide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3247 | Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (luteinising hormone-releasing hormone) agonist therapy | |
Bimatoprost |
| — | |
Bimatoprost with timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Biperiden [NP] |
| — | |
Bisacodyl [NP] |
| Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function | |
|
| Patients who are receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities | |
|
| For use by a patient who is receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult | |
|
| Patients receiving palliative care | |
|
| Terminal malignant neoplasia | |
|
| Anorectal congenital abnormalities | |
|
| Megacolon | |
Bisoprolol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3234 | Moderate to severe heart failure in a patient stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II antagonist, if tolerated | |
Bivalirudin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3075 | A patient undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention | |
Bleomycin |
| Germ cell neoplasms | |
|
| Lymphoma | |
Bortezomib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide, of multiple myeloma in a patient who has previously received 8 treatment cycles with bortezomib and who, at the time of application, has demonstrated at least a partial response to bortezomib but who has not received 2 treatment cycles after first achieving a confirmed complete response; and where the following conditions apply: if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein levels are measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours; if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein levels are unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (c) the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels, with at least a 50% reduction in this value; | |
|
| if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein levels and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (d) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (e) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or | |
|
| (f) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan); or (g) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L; the same parameters provided for the diagnosis of progressive disease are used to demonstrate at least a partial response to treatment; a patient is eligible for continuing PBS-subsidised bortezomib treatment beyond 8 cycles if they have achieved at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 8, and the results of the response assessment are included in the application for authorization of further treatment; | |
|
| where a response assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO prior to cycle 9, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib; the authority application is made not later than 10 months after the application for initial treatment and includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (2) diagnostic reports, which are no more than 1 month old at the time of application, demonstrating that the patient has achieved at least a partial response; a patient is eligible to receive no more than 2 cycles of treatment beyond the cycle at which a complete response, confirmed by 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart, was first achieved; | |
|
| PBS-subsidised treatment with bortezomib is limited to a maximum of 11 cycles | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide, of a patient with a histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma who has progressive disease after at least 1 prior therapy, who has undergone or is ineligible for a primary stem cell transplant and who has experienced treatment failure after a trial of at least 4 weeks of thalidomide at a dose of at least 100 mg daily or who has failed to achieve at least a minimal response after 8 or more weeks of thalidomide-based therapy for progressive disease; and where progressive disease is defined as at least 1 of the following: | |
|
| (a) at least a 25% increase and an absolute increase of at least 5 g per L in serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) at least a 25% increase in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion, and an absolute increase of at least 200 mg per 24 hours; or (c) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, at least a 50% increase of the difference between involved free light chain and uninvolved free light chain; or (d) at least a 25% relative increase and at least a 10% absolute increase in plasma cells in | |
|
| a bone marrow aspirate or on biopsy; or (e) an increase in the size or number of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or | |
|
| (f) at least a 25% increase in the size of an existing, or the development of a new, soft tissue plasmacytoma (determined by clinical examination or diagnostic imaging); or (g) development of hypercalcaemia (corrected serum calcium greater than 2.65 mmol per L not attributable to any other cause); where oligo-secretory and non-secretory patients are defined as having active disease with less than 10 g per L serum M protein and less than 200 mg per 24 hour Bence-Jones proteinuria; where thalidomide treatment failure is defined as: (1) confirmed disease progression during thalidomide treatment or within 6 months of discontinuing thalidomide treatment; or | |
|
| (2) severe intolerance or toxicity unresponsive to clinically appropriate dose adjustment; where severe intolerance due to thalidomide is defined as unacceptable somnolence or sedation interfering with activities of daily living; where toxicity from thalidomide is defined as peripheral neuropathy (Grade 2 or greater, interfering with function), drug-related seizures, serious Grade 3 or Grade 4 drug-related dermatological reactions, such as Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, or other Grade 3 or 4 toxicity; where failure to achieve at least a minimal response after 8 or more weeks of thalidomide-based therapy for progressive disease is defined as: (1) less than a 25% reduction in serum or urine M protein; or | |
|
| (2) in oligo-secretory and non-secretory myeloma patients only, less than a 25% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain levels; and where the following conditions apply: the patient is not receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised lenalidomide; the authority application includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, which includes details of the histological diagnosis of multiple myeloma, prior treatments including name(s) of drug(s) and date of most recent treatment cycle and record of prior stem cell transplant or ineligibility for prior stem cell transplant; details of thalidomide treatment failure; details of the basis of the diagnosis of progressive disease or failure to respond; and nomination of which disease activity parameters will be used to assess response; and (2) duration of thalidomide and daily dose prescribed; and | |
|
| (3) a signed patient acknowledgment; if the dosing requirement for thalidomide cannot be met, the authority application states the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied; | |
|
| to enable confirmation of eligibility by the Medicare Australia CEO, current diagnostic reports of at least 1 of the following are required: (a) the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) Bence-Jones proteinuria — the results of 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion; or (c) the serum level of free kappa and lambda light chains; or (d) bone marrow aspirate or trephine; or (e) if present, the size and location of lytic bone lesions (not including compression fractures); or (f) if present, the size and location of all soft tissue plasmacytomas by clinical or radiographic examination, i.e. | |
|
| magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan; or (g) if present, the level of hypercalcaemia, corrected for albumin concentration; as these parameters will be used to determine response, results of the above diagnostic reports must be provided with the authority application as follows: (i) for all patients, results for (a) or (b) or (c) must be provided; | |
|
| (ii) where the patient has oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma, (c) or (d) or if relevant (e), (f) or (g) must be provided; where the prescriber plans to assess response in patients with oligo-secretory or non-secretory multiple myeloma with free light chain assays, evidence of the oligo-secretory or non-secretory nature of the multiple myeloma (either previous or current serum M protein less than 10 g per L and urinary Bence-Jones protein undetectable or less than 200 mg per 24 hours) must be provided | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy or in combination with a corticosteroid and/or cyclophosphamide, of multiple myeloma in a patient who has previously received 4 treatment cycles of bortezomib and who, at the time of application, has demonstrated at least a partial response to bortezomib; and where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein levels are measurable, partial response (PR) compared with baseline (prior to treatment with bortezomib) is defined as: (a) at least a 50% reduction in the level of serum M protein (monoclonal protein); or (b) at least a 90% reduction in 24-hour urinary light chain M protein excretion or to less than 200 mg per 24 hours; | |
|
| if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein levels are unmeasurable as in non-secretory/oligo-secretory multiple myeloma, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: | |
|
| (c) at least a 50% reduction in the difference between involved and uninvolved serum free light chain (FLC) levels; if serum M protein and urine Bence-Jones protein and serum FLC are unmeasurable/unavailable, partial response compared with baseline is defined as: (d) at least a 50% reduction in bone marrow plasma cells; or (e) no increase in size or number of lytic bone lesions (development of compression fracture does not exclude response); or (f) at least a 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytoma (by clinical or applicable radiographic examination, i.e. magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography scan); or | |
|
| (g) normalisation of corrected serum calcium to less than or equal to 2.65 mmol per L; the same parameters provided for the diagnosis of progressive disease are used to demonstrate at least a partial response to treatment; a patient is eligible for continuing PBS-subsidised bortezomib treatment beyond 4 cycles if they have achieved at least a partial response at the completion of cycle 4, and the results of the response assessment are included in the application for authorisation of further treatment; where a response assessment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO prior to cycle 5, patients will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with bortezomib; the authority application is made not later than 6 months after the application for initial treatment and includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Multiple Myeloma Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (2) diagnostic reports, which are no more than 1 month old at the time of application, demonstrating that the patient has achieved at least a partial response; patients who fail to demonstrate at least a partial response after 8 cycles are not eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised treatment with bortezomib; a patient is eligible to receive no more than 2 cycles of treatment beyond the cycle at which a complete response, confirmed by 2 determinations a minimum of 6 weeks apart, was first achieved | |
Brimonidine |
| — | |
Brimonidine with Timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Brinzolamide |
| — | |
Brinzolamide with timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Bromocriptine [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 2.5 mg (as mesylate): Prevention of the onset of lactation in the puerperium for medical reasons [NP] | |
|
| Acromegaly | |
|
| Parkinson’s disease | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
|
| In respect of the capsule 5 mg (as mesylate) and capsule 10 mg (as mesylate): Acromegaly | |
|
| Parkinson’s disease | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated | |
|
| Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
Budesonide [NP] |
| In respect of the nebuliser suspension 500 micrograms in 2 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser suspension 1 mg in 2 mL single dose units, 30: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1351 | Severe chronic asthma in patients who require long-term steroid therapy and who are unable to use other forms of inhaled steroid therapy | |
|
| In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 100 micrograms per dose, 200 doses, powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 200 micrograms per dose, 200 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device 400 micrograms per dose, 200 doses: — | |
Budesonide with Eformoterol [NP] |
| In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 100 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 6 micrograms per dose, 120 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 200 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 6 micrograms per dose, 120 doses: Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide | |
|
| Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide | |
|
| For single maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids | |
|
| For single maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with inhaled corticosteroids | |
|
| For maintenance and reliever therapy in a patient who experiences frequent asthma symptoms while receiving treatment with a combination of an inhaled corticosteroid and a long-acting beta-2 agonist | |
|
| In respect of the powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing budesonide 400 micrograms with eformoterol fumarate dihydrate 12 micrograms per dose, 60 doses, 2: Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide | |
|
| Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled eformoterol fumarate dihydrate and budesonide | |
Buprenorphine [NP] |
| Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
Bupropion [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who has entered a comprehensive support and counselling program, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application | |
|
| Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who is entering a comprehensive support and counselling program during the same consultation at which the authority application is made, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application | |
|
| Completion of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who is enrolled in a comprehensive support and counselling program | |
Busulfan |
| — | |
Cabergoline [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 500 micrograms: Prevention of the onset of lactation in the puerperium for medical reasons [NP] | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2659 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated | |
| 2660 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
| 2661 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated | |
| 2662 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 1 mg and tablet 2 mg: Parkinson’s disease | |
Calcipotriol [NP] |
| In respect of the cream 50 micrograms (as monohydrate) per g, 30 g: Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris | |
|
| In respect of the scalp solution 50 micrograms (as monohydrate) per mL, 30 mL: Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris of the scalp | |
Calcipotriol with betamethasone [NP] |
| Chronic stable plaque type psoriasis vulgaris in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either calcipotriol or potent topical corticosteroid monotherapy | |
Calcitriol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1165 | Hypocalcaemia due to renal disease | |
| 1166 | Hypoparathyroidism | |
| 1167 | Hypophosphataemic rickets | |
| 1467 | Vitamin D-resistant rickets | |
| 2636 | Treatment for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Calcium [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2212 | Hyperphosphataemia associated with chronic renal failure | |
Candesartan [NP] |
| — | |
Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Capecitabine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a taxane and an anthracycline | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer where therapy with a taxane or an anthracycline is contraindicated | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer in combination with docetaxel after failure of prior anthracycline-containing chemotherapy | |
|
| Treatment of advanced or metastatic colorectal cancer | |
|
| Adjuvant treatment of stage III (Dukes C) colon cancer, following complete resection of the primary tumour | |
|
| Advanced (Stage III or IV) oesopho-gastric cancer, previously untreated, in combination with a cisplatin-based regimen, in a patient with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less | |
Captopril [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 12.5 mg, tablet 25 mg and tablet 50 mg: — | |
|
| In respect of the oral solution 5 mg per mL, 95 mL: For patients unable to take a solid dose form of an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor | |
Carbamazepine [NP] |
| — | |
Carbimazole [NP] |
| — | |
Carbohydrate, fat, vitamins, minerals and trace elements [NP] |
| Patients with proven inborn errors of protein metabolism who are unable to meet their energy requirements with permitted food and formulae | |
Carbomer [NP] |
| In respect of the eye gel 2 mg per g, 10 g: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye gel 2 mg per g, single dose units 0.6 mL, 30 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Carbomer 974 [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Carboplatin |
| — | |
Carmellose [NP] |
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, 15 mL and eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’ syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 2.5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 24 [NP], eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30 [NP], eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30 [NP] and ocular lubricating gel containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 28 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Carmellose with glycerin [NP] |
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg with glycerin 9 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg with glycerin 9 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Carmustine |
| Glioblastoma multiforme, suspected or confirmed, at the time of initial surgery | |
Carvedilol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3234 | Moderate to severe heart failure in a patient stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II antagonist, if tolerated | |
| 1735 | Patients receiving this drug as a pharmaceutical benefit prior to 1 August 2002 | |
Cefaclor |
| — | |
Cefalotin [NP] |
| — | |
Cefepime [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of febrile neutropenia | |
Cefotaxime [NP] |
| Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
Ceftriaxone [NP] |
| In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium): Gonorrhoea | |
|
| Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
|
| In respect of the powder for injection 1 g (as sodium) and powder for injection 2 g (as sodium): Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
Cefuroxime |
| — | |
Celecoxib [NP] |
| Symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis | |
|
| Symptomatic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis | |
Cephalexin [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Cephazolin [NP] |
| Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
|
| Cellulitis | |
Certolizumab pegol |
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: | |
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| — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg/day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and | |
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| where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: | |
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| if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; | |
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| the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active | |
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| disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient is eligible for treatment if they have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol for rheumatoid arthritis, and have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 18 to 20 weeks of treatment, depending on the dosage regimen | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than the maximum allowed based on their dosage regimen, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 18 or 20 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: | |
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| (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and | |
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| (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment for this condition within the previous 12 months and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy; and (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol for this condition; and | |
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| where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with certolizumab pegol are not eligible to commence treatment with certolizumab pegol until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion; | |
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| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised certolizumb pegol treatment; | |
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| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised certolizumab pegol treatment is an 18 or 20 week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 18 to 20 weeks of treatment, depending on the dosage regimen In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than the maximum allowed based on their dosage regimen, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 18 or 20 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised supply for continuing treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of an adult who: (a) has a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) was receiving treatment with certolizumab pegol prior to 1 March 2010; and (c) has demonstrated a response to certolizumab pegol treatment, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol; and (d) is receiving treatment with certolizumab pegol at the time of application; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; a patient is eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of an adult with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis who was receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol prior to 1 March 2010 and at the time of the initial application for PBS-subsidised therapy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults: (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with certolizumab pegol; and (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with certolizumab pegol; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with certolizumab pegol; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of certolizumab pegol therapy is an 18 or 20 week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with certolizumab pegol, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
Cetuximab |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Initial treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx for the week prior to radiotherapy, where cisplatin is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information | |
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| Initial treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx, in combination with radiotherapy, where cisplatin is not tolerated | |
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| Continuing treatment of stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell cancer of the larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx, in combination with radiotherapy, where cisplatin is either contraindicated or not tolerated | |
Chlorambucil |
| — | |
Chloramphenicol [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Chlorpromazine [NP] |
| — | |
Chlorthalidone [NP] |
| — | |
Cholestyramine [NP] |
| — | |
Chorionic Gonadotrophin |
| Anovulatory infertility | |
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| For the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism | |
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| For the treatment of infertility in males associated with isolated luteinising hormone deficiency | |
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| For the treatment of males who have combined deficiency of human growth hormone and gonadotrophins and in whom the absence of secondary sexual characteristics indicates a lag in maturation | |
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| For the treatment, for a period not exceeding 6 months, of males over the age of 16 years who show clinical evidence of hypogonadism or delayed puberty | |
Ciclesonide [NP] |
| — | |
Cimetidine [NP] |
| — | |
Cinacalcet [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cinacalcet, of a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis who has a decrease of at least 30% in intact parathyroid hormone (iPTH) concentrations after 6 months treatment | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cinacalcet, of a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis who has intact parathyroid hormone (iPTH) greater than 15 pmol per L and an (adjusted) serum calcium concentration of less than 2.6 mmol per L after 6 months treatment | |
Ciprofloxacin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg (as hydrochloride): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Respiratory tract infection proven or suspected to be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in severely immunocompromised patients | |
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| Bacterial gastroenteritis in severely immunocompromised patients | |
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| Treatment of infections proven to be due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa or other gram-negative bacteria resistant to all other oral antimicrobials | |
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| Treatment of joint and bone infections, epididymo-orchitis, prostatitis or perichondritis of the pinna, suspected or proven to be caused by gram-negative bacteria or gram-positive bacteria resistant to all other appropriate antimicrobials | |
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| Gonorrhoea | |
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| In respect of the tablet 500 mg (as hydrochloride) and tablet 750 mg (as hydrochloride): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Respiratory tract infection proven or suspected to be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in severely immunocompromised patients | |
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| Bacterial gastroenteritis in severely immunocompromised patients | |
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| Treatment of infections proven to be due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa or other gram-negative bacteria resistant to all other oral antimicrobials | |
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| Treatment of joint and bone infections, epididymo-orchitis, prostatitis or perichondritis of the pinna, suspected or proven to be caused by gram-negative bacteria or gram-positive bacteria resistant to all other appropriate antimicrobials | |
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| In respect of the ear drops 3 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 5 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Treatment of chronic suppurative otitis media in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person aged 1 month or older | |
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| Treatment of chronic suppurative otitis media in a patient less than 18 years of age with perforation of the tympanic membrane | |
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| Treatment of chronic suppurative otitis media in a patient less than 18 years of age with a grommet in situ | |
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| In respect of the eye drops 3 mg (as hydrochloride) per mL, 5 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Bacterial keratitis | |
Cisplatin |
| — | |
Citalopram [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Cladribine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3180 | Hairy cell leukaemia | |
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Clarithromycin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg: — | |
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| In respect of the powder for oral liquid 250 mg per 5 mL, 50 mL: Bordetella pertussis | |
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| Atypical mycobacterial infections | |
Clindamycin [NP] [MW] |
| Gram-positive coccal infections where these cannot be safely and effectively treated with a penicillin | |
Clodronic Acid [NP] |
| Maintenance treatment of hypercalcaemia of malignancy refractory to anti-neoplastic therapy | |
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| Multiple myeloma | |
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| Bone metastases from breast cancer | |
Clomiphene |
| Anovulatory infertility | |
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| Patients undergoing in-vitro fertilisation | |
Clomipramine [NP] |
| Cataplexy associated with narcolepsy | |
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| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | |
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| Phobic disorders in adults | |
Clonazepam [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 500 micrograms, tablet 2 mg and oral liquid 2.5 mg per mL, 10 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Neurologically proven epilepsy | |
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| In respect of the injection 1 mg in 2 mL (set containing solution 1 mg in 1 mL and 1 mL diluent): Epilepsy | |
Clonidine [NP] |
| — | |
Clopidogrel [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 75 mg (as hydrogen sulfate): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1719 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular ischaemic episodes while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
| 1720 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
| 1721 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
| 1722 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients with a history of symptomatic cardiac ischaemic events while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
| 1723 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
| 1724 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
| 3245 | Treatment of acute coronary syndromes (myocardial infarction or unstable angina) in combination with aspirin | |
| 3146 | Treatment in combination with aspirin following cardiac stent insertion | |
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| In respect of the tablet 75 mg (as besilate): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1719 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular ischaemic episodes while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
| 1720 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
| 1721 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
| 1722 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients with a history of symptomatic cardiac ischaemic events while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
| 1723 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
| 1724 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
Clopidogrel with aspirin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3246 | Treatment of acute coronary syndromes (myocardial infarction or unstable angina) | |
| 3219 | Treatment following cardiac stent insertion | |
| 1722 | Prevention of recurrence of myocardial infarction or unstable angina in patients with a history of symptomatic cardiac ischaemic events while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
Clotrimazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2354 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Coal Tar - Prepared [NP] |
| — | |
Codeine |
| — | |
Codeine with Paracetamol [NP] |
| — | |
Colchicine [NP] |
| — | |
Colestipol [NP] |
| — | |
Copper Sulfate [NP] |
| — | |
Cortisone [NP] |
| — | |
Cromoglycic Acid [NP] |
| In respect of the capsule containing powder for oral inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 20 mg (for use in Intal Spinhaler or Intal Halermatic), pressurised inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 1 mg per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation) and pressurised inhalation containing sodium cromoglycate 5 mg per dose, 112 doses (CFC-free formulation): — | |
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| In respect of the eye drops containing sodium cromoglycate 20 mg per mL, 10 mL: Vernal kerato-conjunctivitis | |
Cyclophosphamide |
| — | |
Cyclosporin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with organ or tissue transplants, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe atopic dermatitis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a dermatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the dermatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe psoriasis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate and in whom the disease has caused significant interference with quality of life, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a dermatologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the dermatologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with nephrotic syndrome in whom steroids and cytostatic drugs have failed or are not tolerated or are considered inappropriate and in whom renal function is unimpaired, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a nephrologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the nephrologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application | |
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| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with cyclosporin, of patients with severe active rheumatoid arthritis for whom classical slow-acting anti-rheumatic agents (including methotrexate) are ineffective or inappropriate, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of a rheumatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the rheumatologist, clinical immunologist or specialised unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review are included in the authority application | |
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| Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by dermatologists or clinical immunologists of patients with severe atopic dermatitis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate | |
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| Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by dermatologists of patients with severe psoriasis for whom other systemic therapies are ineffective or inappropriate and in whom the disease has caused significant interference with quality of life | |
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| Management (which includes initiation, stabilisation and review of therapy) by rheumatologists or clinical immunologists of patients with severe active rheumatoid arthritis for whom classical slow-acting anti-rheumatic agents (including methotrexate) are ineffective or inappropriate | |
Cyproheptadine [NP] |
| Prevention of migraine | |
Cyproterone |
| In respect of the tablet containing cyproterone acetate 50 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1230 | Moderate to severe androgenisation, of which acne alone is not a sufficient indication, in non-pregnant women | |
| 1014 | Advanced carcinoma of the prostate | |
| 1404 | To reduce drive in sexual deviations in males | |
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| In respect of the tablet containing cyproterone acetate 100 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1014 | Advanced carcinoma of the prostate | |
| 1404 | To reduce drive in sexual deviations in males | |
Cystine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Pyridoxine non-responsive homocystinuria | |
Cytarabine |
| — | |
Dabigatran etexilate [NP] |
| In respect of the capsules 75 mg (as mesilate), 60 and capsules 110 mg (as mesilate), 60: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total hip replacement | |
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| In respect of the capsule 75 mg (as mesilate) and capsule 110 mg (as mesilate): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
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| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total knee replacement | |
|
| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total hip replacement | |
Dalteparin [NP] |
| — | |
Danazol |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1090 | Endometriosis, visually proven | |
| 1151 | Hereditary angio-oedema | |
| 2639 | Treatment, for up to 6 months, of intractable primary menorrhagia | |
| 2640 | Treatment, for up to 6 months, of severe benign (fibrocystic) breast disease or mastalgia associated with severe symptomatic benign breast disease in patients refractory to other treatments | |
Dantrolene [NP] |
| Treatment of chronic spasticity | |
Dapsone [NP] |
| — | |
Dasatinib |
| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCR-ABL, who has failed treatment with chemotherapy and imatinib, and, where appropriate, allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and where failure of treatment is defined as either: (i) failure to achieve a complete morphological and cytogenetic remission after a minimum of 2 months of treatment with intensive chemotherapy and imatinib; (ii) morphological or cytogenetic relapse of leukaemia after achieving a complete remission induced by chemotherapy and imatinib; (iii) morphological or cytogenetic relapse or persistence of leukaemia after allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: the patient has active leukaemia, as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either morphological infiltration of the bone marrow (greater than 5% lymphoblasts) or cerebrospinal fluid or other sites; or the presence of cells bearing the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or FISH analysis in the bone marrow of patients in morphological remission; | |
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| the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Dasatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and | |
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| (c) a pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or morphological evidence of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia plus qualitative RT-PCR evidence of BCR-ABL transcript, along with the date of the relevant report or reports | |
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| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCR-ABL, who has been treated prior to 1 December 2007 and has failed treatment with chemotherapy and, where appropriate, allogeneic haemopoietic stem cell transplantation; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: the patient has active leukaemia, as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either morphological infiltration of the bone marrow (greater than 5% lymphoblasts) or cerebrospinal fluid or other sites; or the presence of cells bearing the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or FISH analysis in the bone marrow of patients in morphological remission; | |
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| the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Dasatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and (c) a pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or morphological evidence of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia plus qualitative RT-PCR evidence of BCR-ABL transcript, along with the date of the relevant report or reports | |
|
| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment, as monotherapy, of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCR-ABL, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for dasatinib for ALL and does not have progressive disease | |
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| Chronic myeloid leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of a patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia in any disease phase bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript BCR-ABL, and who: (a) has active leukaemia (as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) analysis, or the presence of the transcript BCR-ABL greater than 1% on the international scale); and (b) has failed an adequate trial of imatinib, where failure of an adequate trial of imatinib is defined as: | |
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| (i) lack of response to initial imatinib therapy, defined as either: — failure to achieve a haematological response after a minimum of 3 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase; or — failure to achieve any cytogenetic response after a minimum of 6 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase as demonstrated on bone marrow biopsy by presence of greater than 95% Philadelphia chromosome positive cells; or — failure to achieve a major cytogenetic response or a peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% after a minimum of 12 months of therapy with imatinib; or | |
|
| (ii) loss of a previously documented major cytogenetic response (demonstrated by the presence of greater than 35% Philadelphia positive cells on bone marrow biopsy), during ongoing imatinib therapy; or (iii) loss of a previously demonstrated molecular response (demonstrated by peripheral blood BCR-ABL levels increasing in value by at least 5 fold to a level of greater than 1% confirmed on a subsequent test), during ongoing imatinib therapy; or (iv) development of accelerated phase or blast crisis in a patient previously prescribed imatinib for any phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia, where: | |
|
| (1) accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following: — percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or — percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or — peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or | |
|
| — progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin to be confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or | |
|
| — karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome); and (2) blast crisis is defined as either: — percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or — extramedullary involvement other than spleen and liver; or (v) disease progression (defined as a greater than or equal to 50% increase in peripheral white blood cell count, blast count, basophils or platelets) during first-line imatinib therapy in patients with accelerated phase or blast crisis chronic myeloid leukaemia; or (vi) grade 3 or 4 non-haematological toxicity that is imatinib related and necessitates permanent cessation of imatinib; and where the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib/Nilotinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and | |
|
| (c) a bone marrow biopsy pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active chronic myeloid leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or RT-PCR level of BCR-ABL transcript greater than 1% on the international scale, and the date of the relevant pathology report; and | |
|
| (d)(1) where there has been a loss of response to imatinib, a copy of the current confirming pathology report, or reports, from an Approved Pathology Authority or details of the dates of assessment in the case of progressive splenomegaly or extramedullary involvement; or | |
|
| (2) details of Grade 3 or 4 non-haematological imatinib related toxicity; for patients with imatinib related toxicities, leukaemia activity does not need to be demonstrated | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of a patient who has received initial treatment with dasatinib as a pharmaceutical benefit for chronic myeloid leukaemia, and who has demonstrated either a major cytogenetic response to dasatinib, or less than 1% BCR-ABL level in the blood, within 18 months of the commencement of treatment and at 12 monthly intervals thereafter; and where the following conditions apply: a major cytogenetic response is defined as less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells; | |
|
| a bone marrow or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% on the international scale (Blood 108: 28-37, 2006) indicates a response, at least the biological equivalent of a major cytogenetic response; | |
|
| response to PBS-subsidised treatment with dasatinib is assessed by: (1) cytogenetic analysis indicating the number of Philadelphia positive [t (9;22)] cells in the bone marrow measured by standard karyotyping, or, in the case where standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCR-ABL specific probe; or | |
|
| (2) quantitative PCR indicating the relative level of BCR-ABL transcript in the peripheral blood using the international scale; | |
|
| the cytogenetic or peripheral blood quantitative PCR analyses demonstrating response are submitted as follows: (i) between 10 and 18 months of the commencement of treatment with dasatinib, at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% has been demonstrated are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment; and | |
|
| (ii) at no greater than 12 month intervals thereafter, to demonstrate that the major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% has been sustained; the authority application includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib/Nilotinib Authority Application Form for continuing treatment; and (2) demonstration of continued response to treatment as evidenced by: | |
|
| (a) a copy of the cytogenetic analysis showing a major cytogenetic response, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months (or 18 months if the application is the first application for continuing treatment), in which case only the date of this report needs to be provided; or (b) a copy of the quantitative PCR analysis showing a peripheral blood level of BCR-ABL of less than 1% on the international scale, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months (or 18 months if the application is the first application for continuing treatment), in which case only the date of this report needs to be provided; and (3) if the cytogenetic analysis submitted with the application was conducted using FISH with BCR-ABL specific probe because standard karyotyping was not informative, a copy of the non-informative standard karyotype analysis; | |
|
| a patient who has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with dasatinib and has at any time failed to meet the criteria for continuing treatment, is not eligible for PBS-subsidised re-treatment | |
Desmopressin [NP] |
| In respect of the intranasal solution containing desmopressin acetate 100 micrograms per mL, 2.5 mL dropper bottle: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1678 | Cranial diabetes insipidus | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing desmopressin acetate 200 micrograms and nasal spray (pump pack) containing desmopressin acetate 10 micrograms per actuation, 60 actuations, 6 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2641 | Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older who are refractory to an enuresis alarm [NP] | |
| 2642 | Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older for whom an enuresis alarm is contraindicated, and where the reason for the contraindication is documented in the patient's medical records when treatment is initiated [NP] | |
| 1678 | Cranial diabetes insipidus | |
|
| In respect of the wafer 120 micrograms (as acetate) [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2641 | Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older who are refractory to an enuresis alarm | |
| 2642 | Primary nocturnal enuresis in patients aged 6 years or older for whom an enuresis alarm is contraindicated, and where the reason for the contraindication is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
Desvenlafaxine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Dexamethasone [NP] |
| — | |
Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin [NP] |
| — | |
Dexamphetamine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Use in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, in accordance with State/Territory law | |
|
| Narcolepsy | |
Diazepam [NP] |
| — | |
Diclofenac [NP] [MW] |
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 25 mg and tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 50 mg: Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
|
| Bone pain due to malignant disease | |
|
| In respect of the suppository containing diclofenac sodium 100 mg [MW]: — | |
Dicloxacillin [NP] [MW] |
| Serious staphylococcal infections | |
Digoxin [NP] |
| — | |
Dihydroergotamine [NP] |
| — | |
Diltiazem [NP] |
| — | |
Diphenoxylate with Atropine [NP] |
| — | |
Diphtheria and tetanus vaccine, adsorbed, diluted for adult use [NP] |
| — | |
Dipyridamole [NP] |
| Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events: | |
|
| in patients receiving therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
|
| in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
|
| in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
Dipyridamole with Aspirin [NP] |
| Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events | |
Disopyramide [NP] |
| — | |
Docetaxel |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Neoadjuvant treatment of a patient with a World Health Organisation performance status of 1 or less, with inoperable Stage III, IVa or IVb squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, larynx, oropharynx or hypopharynx, in combination with cisplatin and fluorouracil | |
|
| Adjuvant treatment of node-positive breast cancer in combination with an anthracycline and cyclophosphamide | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy | |
|
| Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer | |
|
| Treatment of HER2 positive early breast cancer in combination with trastuzumab | |
|
| Treatment of androgen independent (hormone refractory) metastatic carcinoma of the prostate in a patient with a Karnofsky performance-status score of at least 60%, where docetaxel is used as first-line chemotherapy and administered in three weekly cycles | |
|
| Adjuvant treatment of operable breast cancer in combination with cyclophosphamide | |
Dolasetron [NP] |
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration | |
Domperidone [NP] |
| — | |
Donepezil [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where: | |
|
| (1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by: (a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or | |
|
| (b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and (2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs: | |
|
| Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; | |
|
| Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of “very much improved” or “much improved” on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
Dorzolamide |
| — | |
Dorzolamide with Timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Dothiepin [NP] |
| — | |
Doxepin [NP] |
| — | |
Doxorubicin |
| — | |
Doxorubicin - Pegylated Liposomal |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer in women who have failed a first-line platinum-based chemotherapy regimen | |
|
| Metastatic breast cancer, as monotherapy, after failure of prior therapy which includes capecitabine and a taxane | |
|
| Metastatic breast cancer, as monotherapy, where therapy with capecitabine or a taxane is contraindicated | |
Doxycycline [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 100 mg (as monohydrate), tablet 100 mg (as hydrochloride) and capsule 100 mg (as hydrochloride) (containing enteric coated pellets): — | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 50 mg (as monohydrate), tablet 50 mg (as hydrochloride) and capsule 50 mg (as hydrochloride) (containing enteric coated pellets): Bronchiectasis in patients aged 8 years or older | |
|
| Chronic bronchitis in patients aged 8 years or older | |
|
| Severe acne | |
Drotrecogin Alfa (activated) |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Adult patients with severe sepsis who have a high risk of death as determined by acute dysfunction in at least 2 organs or modified Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II score of at least 25, where acute organ dysfunction is defined as follows: | |
|
| For cardiovascular-system dysfunction, an arterial systolic blood pressure of less than or equal to 90 mmHg or mean arterial pressure of less than or equal to 70 mmHg for at least 1 hour despite adequate fluid resuscitation, adequate intravascular volume status or the use of vasopressors in an attempt to maintain a systolic blood pressure of greater than or equal to 90 mmHg or a mean arterial pressure of greater than or equal to 70 mmHg; | |
|
| For kidney dysfunction, urine output of less than 0.5 mL per kg of body weight per hour for 1 hour despite adequate fluid resuscitation; | |
|
| For respiratory-system dysfunction, a ratio of partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (in mmHg) to the percentage of oxygen in the inspired air (expressed as a decimal) of less than or equal to 250; | |
|
| For haematologic dysfunction, a platelet count of less than 80,000 per cubic millimetre or which has decreased by 50 percent in the previous 3 days; | |
|
| In the case of unexplained metabolic acidosis, a pH of less than or equal to 7.30 or a base deficit of greater than or equal to 5.0 mmol per L in association with a plasma lactate level of greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of the normal value for the reporting laboratory | |
Duloxetine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Dydrogesterone [NP] |
| — | |
Eformoterol [NP] |
| Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids | |
|
| Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids | |
Electrolyte Replacement, Oral [NP] |
| — | |
Electrolyte Replacement, Solution [NP] |
| — | |
Eletriptan [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3233 | Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics | |
Enalapril [NP] |
| — | |
Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Enoxaparin [NP] |
| — | |
Entacapone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2067 | Parkinson’s disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations who are experiencing fluctuations in motor function due to end-of-dose effect | |
Epirubicin |
| — | |
Eplerenone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2637 | Heart failure with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% or less occurring within 3 to 14 days following an acute myocardial infarction, where treatment with eplerenone commences within 14 days of the acute myocardial infarction, and where the date of the acute myocardial infarction and the date of initiation of eplerenone treatment are documented in the patient’s medical records when PBS-subsidised treatment is initiated | |
Eprosartan [NP] |
| — | |
Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Eptifibatide |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1884 | Patients undergoing non-urgent percutaneous intervention with intracoronary stenting | |
Erlotinib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy, in a patient with locally advanced or metastatic (stage IIIB or IV) non-small cell lung cancer with a World Health Organisation (WHO) performance status of 3 or less, after prior treatment with platinum-based chemotherapy, where: (1) (a) disease progression has occurred following treatment with docetaxel or pemetrexed; or (b) treatment with docetaxel and pemetrexed is either contraindicated or cannot be tolerated; and (2) further cytotoxic chemotherapy is not appropriate | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy, in a patient with locally advanced or metastatic (stage IIIB or IV) non-small cell lung cancer who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who does not have progressive disease | |
|
| Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy, in a patient with locally advanced or metastatic (stage IIIB or IV) non-small cell lung cancer, after prior treatment with platinum-based chemotherapy: (1) where: (a) disease progression occurred following treatment with docetaxel or pemetrexed; or | |
|
| (b) treatment with docetaxel and pemetrexed was either contraindicated or could not be tolerated; and (2) who has received treatment with erlotinib under the Erlotinib Access Programme prior to 1 August 2008; and (3) who does not have progressive disease | |
Erythromycin [NP] |
| — | |
Escitalopram [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 10 mg (as oxalate) and tablet 20 mg (as oxalate): Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), as defined by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and for whom a GP Mental Health Care Plan, as described under item 2710 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule, has been prepared | |
|
| Moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), as defined by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and who has been assessed by a psychiatrist | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, for moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), of a patient commenced on escitalopram prior to 1 March 2008 | |
|
| Moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), as described by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and for whom a GP Mental Health Care Plan, as described under item 2710 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule, has been prepared | |
|
| Moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), as described by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and who has been assessed by a psychiatrist | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, for moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), of a patient commenced on escitalopram prior to 1 March 2008 | |
|
| In respect of the oral solution 10 mg (as oxalate) per mL, 28 mL: Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), as defined by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and for whom a GP Mental Health Care Plan, as described under item 2710 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule, has been prepared | |
|
| Moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), as defined by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and who has been assessed by a psychiatrist | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, for moderate to severe generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), of a patient commenced on escitalopram prior to 1 November 2008 | |
|
| Moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), as described by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and for whom a GP Mental Health Care Plan, as described under item 2710 of the Medicare Benefits Schedule, has been prepared | |
|
| Moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), as described by Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) criteria, in a patient who has not responded to non-pharmacological therapy and who has been assessed by a psychiatrist | |
|
| Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, for moderate to severe social anxiety disorder (social phobia, SAD), of a patient commenced on escitalopram prior to 1 November 2008 | |
Esomeprazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 20 mg (as magnesium trihydrate): Initial treatment of gastric ulcer | |
|
| Maintenance of healed gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| Pathological hypersecretory conditions including Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and idiopathic hypersecretion | |
|
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 40 mg (as magnesium trihydrate): Healing of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Pathological hypersecretory conditions including Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and idiopathic hypersecretion | |
Esomeprazole and Clarithromycin and Amoxycillin [NP] |
| Eradication of Helicobacter pylori associated with peptic ulcer disease | |
Essential amino acids formula [NP] |
| Gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina Urea cycle disorders | |
Essential amino acids formula with minerals and vitamin C [NP] |
| Gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina Urea cycle disorders | |
Essential amino acids formula with vitamins and minerals [NP] |
| Gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina Urea cycle disorders | |
Etanercept |
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and | |
|
| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment, and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application; a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
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| if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
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| if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) | |
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| calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and | |
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| (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and | |
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| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; | |
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| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and | |
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| (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with etanercept; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: | |
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| an adequate response to etanercept treatment is defined as a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-biological treatment | |
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| baseline value for this Treatment Cycle; the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 16-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with etanercept; | |
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| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and | |
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| (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or | |
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| (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or | |
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| (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application and is indicated by chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where: (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or | |
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| (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
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| if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and | |
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| (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and | |
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| (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; | |
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| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and | |
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| (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and | |
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| (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with etanercept; and | |
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| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
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| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to etanercept treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological agent treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline values; or (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline value; the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; | |
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| the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 16-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with etanercept; | |
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| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and | |
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| (b) have received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: | |
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| — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or | |
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| — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg/day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; | |
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| the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; | |
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| if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and | |
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| (b) either: (i) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or | |
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| — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient is eligible for treatment if they have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis, and have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
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| Continuation of a course of initial treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment for this condition within the previous 12 months and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy; and (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept for this condition; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with etanercept are not eligible to commence treatment with etanercept until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion; | |
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| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment; | |
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| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Rheumatoid arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults: | |
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| (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with etanercept; and | |
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| (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with etanercept; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: | |
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| an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or | |
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| — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of etanercept therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the | |
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| application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; | |
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| a course of continuing treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment | |
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| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with etanercept, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
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| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment with etanercept commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and: (a) who has not received any PBS-subsidised treatment with a tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last course of PBS-subsidised treatment was approved; and (b) who has at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; or (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); or | |
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| (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; and (c) who has failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of at least 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist therapy of at least 5 years duration, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 NSAID, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 consecutive months; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
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| where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by: | |
|
| (a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale, where the BASDAI score is determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment, and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; and (b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L; both ESR and CRP measurements are included in the authority application and are no more than 1 month old; | |
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| if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reason why this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment; | |
|
| if the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, the authority application includes the reason why a higher dose cannot be used; | |
|
| if treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
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| if intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the nature and severity of this intolerance; an appropriate minimum exercise program includes stretch and range of motion exercises at least 5 times per week, and either aerobic exercise of at least 20 minutes duration at least 3 times per week or a group exercise class at least once per week; if a patient is unable to complete the minimum exercise program, the authority application includes the clinical reasons for this and details what, if any, exercise program has been followed; the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and (iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; and (iv) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form detailing the program followed and the dates over which it was followed, and including confirmation by the prescribing doctor that, to the best of their knowledge, the patient has followed the exercise program detailed; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial treatment with etanercept in a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition and is eligible to receive further TNF-alfa antagonist therapy, and has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept in the current treatment cycle; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
|
| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: a patient is eligible to receive further therapy with a TNF-alfa antagonist within this treatment cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists within this treatment cycle; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; an assessment of response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; | |
|
| where the most recent course of TNF-antagonist treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or | |
|
| if the response assessment to the previous course of TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with etanercept, and whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle was with etanercept; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
|
| where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 in the patient’s Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and 1 of the following: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline; all measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
|
| where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied to establish baseline in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker is measured and supplied in all subsequent continuing treatment applications; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of etanercept therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; | |
|
| if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; | |
|
| a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) have received no prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and (3) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months and to either sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (3) above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); | |
|
| if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied; | |
|
| if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (3) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (3) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgment; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial treatment with etanercept in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent; and (3) have not failed treatment with etanercept during the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents within this Treatment Cycle; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; | |
|
| where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept within this Treatment Cycle and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults: (1) who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in the current Treatment Cycle was with etanercept; and | |
|
| (3) who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with etanercept; and | |
|
| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment with etanercept is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or | |
|
| — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of etanercept therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with etanercept within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older who: (a) has a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and | |
|
| (b) has received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and (c) has failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg per day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and where bDMARD means adalimumab or etanercept; and where the following conditions apply: if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder, cervical spine and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; a patient whose previous treatment cycle was ceased due to their failure to respond to bDMARD treatment 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is eligible to commence a new treatment cycle with an initial course of etanercept provided a minimum of 5 years have elapsed between the date of the last approval for PBS-subsidised bDMARD therapy in their previous treatment cycle and the date of the first application under the new treatment cycle; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older who: (a) has a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with adalimumab or etanercept for this condition; and (c) has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with etanercept for this condition more than once in the current treatment cycle; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with etanercept in this treatment cycle and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient's most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised etanercept treatment is a 16 week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a patient who has failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab and etanercept 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is not eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with etanercept within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Juvenile idiopathic arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older: (a) who has a documented history of severe active juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years; and (b) who has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with etanercept; and (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with etanercept; and where bDMARD means adalimumab or etanercept; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: (a) an ESR no greater than 25 mm per hour or a CRP level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and | |
|
| (b) either of the following: (i) an active joint count of fewer than 10 active (swollen and tender) joints; or | |
|
| (ii) a reduction in the active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline; or | |
|
| (iii) a reduction in the number of the following joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder, cervical spine and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); | |
|
| the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; the authority application is made in writing and includes a completed copy of the appropriate Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with etanercept; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of etanercept therapy is a 16 week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; | |
|
| if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a patient who has failed to respond to treatment with adalimumab and etanercept 3 times (twice with one agent and once with the other) is not eligible to receive further PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist or clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of a patient aged 18 years or older with a documented history of juvenile idiopathic arthritis with onset prior to the age of 18 years who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with etanercept for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
Ethacrynic Acid [NP] |
| Patients hypersensitive to other oral diuretics | |
Ethosuximide [NP] |
| — | |
Etidronic Acid [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3257 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone when salcatonin has been found to be unsatisfactory due to lack of efficacy | |
| 3258 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone when salcatonin has been found to be unsatisfactory due to unacceptable side effects | |
| 1153 | Heterotopic ossification | |
Etidronic Acid and Calcium [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Etonogestrel [NP] |
| — | |
Etoposide |
| — | |
Everolimus |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with everolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with cardiac transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with everolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
Exemestane [NP] |
| Treatment of hormone-dependent advanced breast cancer in post-menopausal women with disease progression following treatment with tamoxifen citrate | |
|
| Treatment of hormone-dependent early breast cancer in post-menopausal women following a minimum of 2 years’ treatment with tamoxifen citrate | |
Exenatide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initiation of therapy, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient with type 2 diabetes in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: | |
|
| (a) who has a glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) level greater than 7% prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1; or (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests; and where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time therapy with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
|
| Continuation of therapy, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient with type 2 diabetes where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for exenatide | |
|
| Initiation of therapy, in combination with metformin and a sulfonylurea, in a patient with type 2 diabetes who, despite maximally tolerated doses of metformin and a sulfonylurea, has: (a) a glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) level greater than 7% prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1; or | |
|
| (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests conducted during blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1; and | |
|
| where the HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time therapy with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
|
| Continuation of therapy, in combination with metformin and a sulfonylurea, in a patient with type 2 diabetes where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for exenatide | |
Ezetimibe [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2649 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and | |
|
| (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2650 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with diabetes mellitus whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2651 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with peripheral vascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: | |
|
| (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and | |
|
| (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2652 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: | |
|
| (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2653 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2667 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with family history of coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 2668 | Treatment in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, when co-administered with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), of patients with hypertension whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with a statin, and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: | |
|
| (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when ezetimibe is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when ezetimibe is initiated | |
| 1989 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients where treatment with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) is contraindicated | |
| 2669 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients where treatment with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) must be discontinued or reduced to a dose of 20 mg or less per day because the patient developed a clinically important product-related adverse event during treatment with a statin, and where a clinically important product-related adverse event is defined as follows: (i) severe myalgia (muscle symptoms without creatine kinase elevation) which is proven to be temporally associated with statin treatment; or | |
|
| (ii) myositis (clinically important creatine kinase elevation, with or without muscle symptoms) demonstrated by results twice the upper limit of normal on a single reading or a rising pattern on consecutive measurements and which is unexplained by other causes; or (iii) unexplained, persistent elevations of serum transaminases (greater than 3 times the upper limit of normal) during treatment with a statin | |
| 1991 | Homozygous sitosterolaemia | |
| 2438 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16, in combination with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia | |
Ezetimibe with Simvastatin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 10 mg-10 mg and tablet 10 mg-20 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2431 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia | |
| 3194 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients where treatment with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin) must be reduced to a dose of 20 mg or less per day because the patient developed a clinically important product-related adverse event during treatment with a statin, and where a clinically important product-related adverse event is defined as follows: | |
|
| (i) severe myalgia (muscle symptoms without creatine kinase elevation) which is proven to be temporally associated with statin treatment; or | |
|
| (ii) myositis (clinically important creatine kinase elevation, with or without muscle symptoms) demonstrated by results twice the upper limit of normal on a single reading or a rising pattern on consecutive measurements and which is unexplained by other causes; or (iii) unexplained, persistent elevations of serum transaminases (greater than 3 times the upper limit of normal) during treatment with a statin | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 10 mg-40 mg and tablet 10 mg-80 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2654 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2655 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with diabetes mellitus whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and | |
|
| (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2656 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with peripheral vascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and | |
|
| (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2657 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: | |
|
| (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2658 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with symptomatic cerebrovascular disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2678 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with family history of coronary heart disease whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: | |
|
| (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and | |
|
| (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2679 | Treatment, in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise, of patients with hypertension whose cholesterol levels are inadequately controlled with an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin), and where: (a) inadequate control with a statin is defined as: (i) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(a) — a cholesterol level greater than 4 mmol per L, after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; or | |
|
| (ii) in the case of patients who fall into a category specified in subparagraph 16(b) — a cholesterol level as specified for that category of patient in the table included in subparagraph 16(b), after at least 3 months of treatment with a statin at a daily dose of 40 mg or greater in conjunction with dietary therapy and exercise; and (b) the dose and duration of statin treatment and the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control are documented in the patient’s medical records when the ezetimibe component is initiated; and (c) the cholesterol level which shows inadequate control is no more than 2 months old when the ezetimibe component is initiated | |
| 2431 | For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia | |
Famciclovir [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 125 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash | |
|
| Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 500 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of immunocompromised patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash | |
|
| Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes in immunocompromised patients, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| Episodic treatment of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and a CD4 cell count of less than 500 million per L, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and a CD4 cell count of less than 150 million per L, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| Suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent oral or labial herpes in a patient with human immunodeficiency virus infection and other opportunistic infections or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome defining tumours, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
Famotidine [NP] |
| — | |
Felodipine [NP] |
| — | |
Fenofibrate [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 [NP]: | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Fentanyl [NP] |
| Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid [NP] |
| — | |
Ferrous Sulfate [NP] |
| — | |
Flecainide [NP] |
| Serious supra-ventricular cardiac arrhythmias | |
|
| Serious ventricular cardiac arrhythmias where treatment is initiated in a hospital (in-patient or out-patient) | |
Flucloxacillin [NP] [MW] |
| In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium) [MW], capsule 500 mg (as sodium) [MW], powder for oral liquid 125 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral liquid 250 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL: Serious staphylococcal infections | |
|
| In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium): — | |
Fluconazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis | |
|
| Maintenance therapy in patients with cryptococcal meningitis and immunosuppression | |
|
| Treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients | |
|
| Treatment of oesophageal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients | |
|
| Prophylaxis of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients | |
|
| Treatment of serious and life-threatening candida infections | |
Fludarabine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia in combination with cyclophosphamide where the patient has advanced disease (Binet Stage B or C) or evidence of progressive Stage A disease, and where: (1) Stage A progressive disease is defined by at least 1 of the following: — persistent rise in lymphocyte count with doubling time less than 12 months; — a downward trend in haemoglobin or platelets, or both; — more than 50% increase in the size of liver, spleen, or lymph nodes, or appearance of these signs if not previously present; — constitutional symptoms attributable to disease; and (2) the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia has been established based on: (a) a lymphocytosis, with more than 5,000 million lymphocytes per L in the peripheral blood; and (b) a clonal population of B-cells (CD5/CD19) documented by flow cytometry | |
Fludrocortisone [NP] |
| — | |
Fluorometholone [NP] |
| — | |
Fluorouracil |
| — | |
Fluoxetine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | |
Flupenthixol Decanoate [NP] |
| — | |
Fluphenazine Decanoate [NP] |
| — | |
Flurbiprofen [NP] |
| — | |
Flutamide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3247 | Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (luteinising hormone-releasing hormone) agonist therapy | |
Fluticasone [NP] |
| — | |
Fluticasone with Salmeterol [NP] |
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 50 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFC-free formulation), pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 125 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFC-free formulation), powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 100 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 250 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses: Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate | |
|
| Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate | |
|
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing fluticasone propionate 250 micrograms with salmeterol 25 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 120 doses (CFC-free formulation) and powder for oral inhalation in breath actuated device containing fluticasone propionate 500 micrograms with salmeterol 50 micrograms (as xinafoate) per dose, 60 doses: Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate | |
|
| Patients who previously had frequent episodes of asthma while receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids and who have been stabilised on concomitant inhaled salmeterol xinafoate and fluticasone propionate | |
|
| Symptomatic treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), where the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is less than 50% predicted normal and there is a history of repeated exacerbations with significant symptoms despite regular beta-2 agonist bronchodilator therapy | |
Fluvastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 [NP]: | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Fluvoxamine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | |
Folic Acid [NP] |
| — | |
Folinic acid [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing calcium folinate equivalent to 15 mg folinic acid: Antidote to folic acid antagonists | |
|
| In respect of the injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 50 mg folinic acid in 5 mL, injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 100 mg folinic acid in 10 mL and injection containing calcium folinate equivalent to 300 mg folinic acid in 30 mL: — | |
Follitropin Alfa |
| Anovulatory infertility | |
|
| In combination with chorionic gonadotrophin, for the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, following failure of 6 months’ treatment with chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis | |
Follitropin Beta |
| Anovulatory infertility | |
|
| In combination with chorionic gonadotrophin, for the treatment of infertility in males due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, following failure of 6 months’ treatment with chorionic gonadotrophin to achieve adequate spermatogenesis | |
Fondaparinux [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2005 | Prevention of venous thromboembolic events in patients undergoing major hip surgery | |
| 2006 | Prevention of venous thromboembolic events in patients undergoing total knee replacement | |
Fosinopril [NP] |
| — | |
Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Fotemustine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3181 | Metastatic malignant melanoma | |
Framycetin [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Frusemide [NP] |
| — | |
Fusidic Acid |
| For use in combination with another antibiotic in the treatment of proven serious staphylococcal infections | |
Gabapentin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2664 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
Galantamine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where: | |
|
| (1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by: (a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or (b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and | |
|
| (2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
Gefitinib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, as monotherapy, of locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation (WHO) performance status of 2 or less, where: (1) disease progression has occurred following treatment with at least 1 chemotherapy agent; and (2) there is evidence that the patient has an activating mutation, or mutations, of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) gene in tumour material; and | |
|
| (3) the authority application includes the following: (i) a completed copy of the appropriate Gefitinib (Iressa) PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and | |
|
| (ii) details of the prior chemotherapy including the name(s) of drug(s) and date of the most recent treatment cycle; and (iii) details of the patient’s WHO performance status; and | |
|
| (iv) a copy of the pathology report providing evidence of the presence of activating mutation(s) of the EGFR gene from an Approved Pathology Authority | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment, as monotherapy, of locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for gefitinib | |
Gelatin - Succinylated [NP] |
| — | |
Gemcitabine |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline | |
|
| Advanced epithelial ovarian cancer, in combination with carboplatin, in patients who relapse more than 6 months after platinum-based therapy | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic bladder cancer, when used in combination with cisplatin | |
Gemfibrozil [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 [NP]: | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Gentamicin [NP] |
| In respect of the injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL: — | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops 3 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 5 mL: Invasive ocular infection | |
|
| Perioperative use in ophthalmic surgery | |
|
| Suspected pseudomonal eye infection | |
Gestrinone |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of visually proven endometriosis where the duration of treatment provided for by this prescription, in combination with any previous prescriptions, does not exceed 6 months’ uninterrupted therapy | |
Glatiramer |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient | |
|
| Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy | |
Glibenclamide [NP] |
| — | |
Gliclazide [NP] |
| — | |
Glimepiride [NP] |
| — | |
Glipizide [NP] |
| — | |
Glucagon [NP] |
| — | |
Glucose [NP] |
| — | |
Glucose and Ketone Indicator—Urine [NP] |
| — | |
Glucose Indicator—Blood [NP] |
| — | |
Glucose Indicator—Urine [NP] |
| — | |
Glycerol [NP] |
| Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function | |
|
| Patients who are receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities | |
|
| For use by a patient who is receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult | |
|
| Patients receiving palliative care | |
|
| Terminal malignant neoplasia | |
|
| Anorectal congenital abnormalities | |
|
| Megacolon | |
Glyceryl Trinitrate [NP] |
| — | |
Golimumab |
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 1 (new patient or patient recommencing after a break of more than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received no PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) for this condition in the previous 12 months; and | |
|
| (c) have failed to achieve an adequate response to at least 6 months of intensive treatment with disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which must include: (i) at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly and one of which must be: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or (ii) if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 of the following DMARDs: — hydroxychloroquine at a dose of at least 200 mg daily; and/or — leflunomide at a dose of at least 10 mg daily; and/or — sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g daily; or | |
|
| (iii) if 3 or more of methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide and sulfasalazine are contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at the doses specified above — at least 3 months continuous treatment with each of at least 2 DMARDs, one or more of the following DMARDs being used in place of the DMARDS which are contraindicated or not tolerated: — azathioprine at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg per day; and/or — cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg/kg/day; and/or — sodium aurothiomalate at a dose of 50 mg weekly; and | |
|
| where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: if methotrexate is contraindicated according to the TGA-approved Product Information or cannot be tolerated at a 20 mg weekly dose, the authority application includes details of the contraindication or intolerance to methotrexate, and documents the maximum tolerated dose of methotrexate, if applicable; | |
|
| the authority application includes details of the DMARDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment, and all relevant contraindications and/or intolerances; the requirement to trial at least 2 DMARDs for periods of at least 3 months each can be met using single agents sequentially or by using one or more combinations of DMARDs; | |
|
| if the requirement to trial 6 months of intensive DMARD therapy with at least 2 DMARDs cannot be met because of contraindications and/or intolerances of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal to all of the DMARDs specified above, the authority application provides details of the contraindication or intolerance and dose for each DMARD; failure to achieve an adequate response to the DMARD treatment specified above is demonstrated by the following: | |
|
| (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: | |
|
| (i) a total active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: | |
|
| — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); and/or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the joint count and ESR and/or CRP are determined at the completion of the 6 month intensive DMARD trial, but prior to ceasing DMARD therapy, and all measures are no more than one month old at the time of initial application; if the above requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application states the reason this criterion cannot be satisfied; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; | |
|
| a patient is eligible for treatment if they have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab for rheumatoid arthritis, and have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with severe active rheumatoid arthritis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 2 (change or recommencement after a break of less than 12 months) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults who: (a) have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment for this condition within the previous 12 months and are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy; and | |
|
| (c) have not failed previous PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab for this condition; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further bDMARD therapy for rheumatoid arthritis provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment for this condition 5 times; | |
|
| patients who demonstrate a response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment with rituximab and who wish to transfer to treatment with golimumab are not eligible to commence treatment with golimumab until they have completed a period free from PBS-subsidised bDMARD treatment of at least 22 weeks duration, immediately following the second rituximab infusion; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised golimumab treatment; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised golimumab treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Rheumatoid arthritis — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised supply for continuing treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of an adult who: (a) has a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) was receiving treatment with golimumab prior to 1 March 2010; and (c) has demonstrated a response to golimumab treatment, as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab; and (d) is receiving treatment with golimumab at the time of application; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgement; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; a patient is eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of an adult with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis who was receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab prior to 1 March 2010 and at the time of the initial application for PBS-subsidised therapy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Rheumatoid arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults: (a) who have a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis; and (b) who have demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with golimumab; and (c) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised biological disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (bDMARD) treatment was with golimumab; and where bDMARD means abatacept, adalimumab, anakinra, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, rituximab or tocilizumab; and where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment is defined as: | |
|
| (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and (b) either of the following: | |
|
| (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Rheumatoid Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with golimumab; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of golimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; | |
|
| a course of continuing treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with golimumab, in combination with methotrexate at a dose of at least 7.5 mg weekly, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, of adults with a documented history of severe active rheumatoid arthritis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have severe active psoriatic arthritis; and | |
|
| (2) have received no prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and | |
|
| (3) have failed to achieve an adequate response to methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly for a minimum period of 3 months and to either sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day for a minimum period of 3 months or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily for a minimum period of 3 months; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| failure to achieve an adequate response to the treatment regimens specified at (3) above is demonstrated by the following: (a) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 15 mg per L; and (b) either: (i) an active joint count of at least 20 active (swollen and tender) joints; or (ii) at least 4 active joints from the following list of major joints: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); | |
|
| if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reasons why this criterion cannot be satisfied; if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (3) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (3) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgment; | |
|
| a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with golimumab in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with golimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and | |
|
| (2) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle and are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent; and (3) have not failed treatment with golimumab during the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: patients are eligible to receive further therapy with a biological agent within this Treatment Cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents within this Treatment Cycle; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; | |
|
| where a patient has received PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab within this Treatment Cycle and wishes to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, the authority application is accompanied by evidence of a response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised golimumab treatment; | |
|
| the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date the course was ceased, and, where the most recent course of PBS-subsidised golimumab treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with golimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle, with an initial PBS-subsidised course of golimumab for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who: (1) have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) were receiving treatment with golimumab prior to 1 March 2010; and | |
|
| (3) have demonstrated a response to golimumab treatment as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab; and (4) are receiving treatment with golimumab at the time of application; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form and a signed patient acknowledgment; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Psoriatic arthritis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with golimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults: (1) who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis; and (2) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in the current Treatment Cycle was with golimumab; and (3) who, at the time of application, demonstrate an adequate response to treatment with golimumab; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for psoriatic arthritis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to treatment with golimumab is defined as: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate no greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein level no greater than 15 mg per L or either marker reduced by at least 20% from baseline; and | |
|
| (b) either of the following: (i) a reduction in the total active (swollen and tender) joint count by at least 50% from baseline, where baseline is at least 20 active joints; or (ii) a reduction in the number of the following major joints which are active, from at least 4, by at least 50%: — elbow, wrist, knee and/or ankle (assessed as active if swollen and tender); or — shoulder and/or hip (assessed as active if there is pain in passive movement and restriction of passive movement, and where pain and limitation of movement are due to active disease and not irreversible damage such as joint destruction or bony overgrowth); the same indices of disease severity used to establish baseline at the commencement of an initial course of treatment are used to determine response to that course, and subsequent courses, of treatment; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Psoriatic Arthritis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with golimumab; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than if the most recent course of golimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; | |
|
| if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with golimumab within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a rheumatologist or by a clinical immunologist with expertise in the management of psoriatic arthritis, of adults who have a documented history of severe active psoriatic arthritis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment with golimumab commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and: | |
|
| (a) who has not received any PBS-subsidised treatment with a tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist, or, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition, has received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more starting from the date the last course of PBS-subsidised treatment was approved; and | |
|
| (b) who has at least 2 of the following: (i) low back pain and stiffness for 3 or more months that is relieved by exercise but not by rest; or (ii) limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by a score of at least 1 on each of the lumbar flexion and lumbar side flexion measurements of the Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI); or (iii) limitation of chest expansion relative to normal values for age and gender; and | |
|
| (c) who has failed to achieve an adequate response following treatment with at least 2 non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), whilst completing an appropriate exercise program, for a total period of at least 3 months, unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist therapy of at least 5 years duration, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to treatment with at least 1 NSAID, at an adequate dose, for a minimum of 3 consecutive months; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated by: (a) a Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score of at least 4 on a 0-10 scale, where the BASDAI score is determined at the completion of the 3 month NSAID and exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment, and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; and | |
|
| (b) an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour or a C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 10 mg per L; both ESR and CRP measurements are included in the authority application and are no more than 1 month old; if the requirement to demonstrate an elevated ESR or CRP cannot be met, the authority application includes the reason why this criterion cannot be satisfied; | |
|
| the authority application includes details of the NSAIDs trialled, their doses and duration of treatment; if the NSAID dose is less than the maximum recommended dose in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, the authority application includes the reason why a higher dose cannot be used; if treatment with NSAIDs is contraindicated according to the relevant TGA-approved Product Information, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
|
| if intolerance to NSAID treatment develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the nature and severity of this intolerance; an appropriate minimum exercise program includes stretch and range of motion exercises at least 5 times per week, and either aerobic exercise of at least 20 minutes duration at least 3 times per week or a group exercise class at least once per week; if a patient is unable to complete the minimum exercise program, the authority application includes the clinical reasons for this and details what, if any, exercise program has been followed; the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
|
| (i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and (iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; and | |
|
| (iv) a completed Exercise Program Self Certification Form detailing the program followed and the dates over which it was followed, and including confirmation by the prescribing doctor that, to the best of their knowledge, the patient has followed the exercise program detailed; a course of initial treatment commencing a treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or | |
|
| 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment with golimumab in a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with golimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, in this treatment cycle, has received prior PBS-subsidised tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alfa antagonist treatment for this condition and is eligible to receive further TNF-alfa antagonist therapy, and has not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with golimumab in the current treatment cycle; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: a patient is eligible to receive further therapy with a TNF-alfa antagonist within this treatment cycle provided they have not already failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists within this treatment cycle; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; an assessment of response to the patient’s most recent course of PBS-subsidised TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the date that course was ceased; where the most recent course of TNF-antagonist treatment is a 16-week initial treatment course, the assessment of response is made following a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment; or | |
|
| if the response assessment to the previous course of TNF-alfa antagonist treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 16 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with golimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 16 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 16 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a treatment cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of golimumab for continuing treatment, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has radiographically (plain X-ray) confirmed Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis, who was receiving treatment with golimumab prior to 1 March 2010; and | |
|
| (a) who has demonstrated a response as specified in the criteria for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab; and (b) who is receiving treatment with golimumab at the time of application; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) a copy of the radiological report confirming Grade II bilateral sacroiliitis or Grade III unilateral sacroiliitis; and (ii) a completed BASDAI Assessment Form; and (iii) a signed patient acknowledgment form; the BASDAI assessment and the ESR and/or CRP measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab commencing a treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who was receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with golimumab prior to 1 March 2010 and at the time of the initial application for PBS-subsidised therapy and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Ankylosing spondylitis — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment with golimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment with golimumab, and whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised therapy in this treatment cycle was with golimumab; and where TNF-alfa antagonist means adalimumab, etanercept, golimumab or infliximab; and where a treatment cycle is a period of treatment with successive TNF-alfa antagonists which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a TNF-alfa antagonist for ankylosing spondylitis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 TNF-alfa antagonist, and which continues until the patient has tried and either failed, or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 TNF-alfa antagonists, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response is defined as an improvement from baseline of at least 2 in the patient’s Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) score and 1 of the following: (a) an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measurement no greater than 25 mm per hour; or (b) a C-reactive protein (CRP) measurement no greater than 10 mg per L; or (c) an ESR or CRP measurement reduced by at least 20% from baseline; | |
|
| all measurements provided are no more than 1 month old at the time of application; where only 1 acute phase reactant measurement is supplied to establish baseline in the first application for PBS-subsidised treatment, that same marker is measured and supplied in all subsequent continuing treatment applications; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Ankylosing Spondylitis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form, and a measurement of response to the most recent prior course of therapy with golimumab; the response assessment included in the application is provided to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 4 weeks from the cessation of the treatment course; if the most recent course of golimumab therapy is a 16-week initial treatment course, the application for continuing treatment is accompanied by an assessment of response to a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment with that course; if the response assessment to a course of treatment is not submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed that course of treatment; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing treatment cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of continuing treatment with golimumab within an ongoing treatment cycle, by a rheumatologist, of an adult with a documented history of active ankylosing spondylitis who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with this drug for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
Goserelin |
| In respect of the subcutaneous implant 3.6 mg (as acetate) in pre-filled injection syringe: | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate | |
|
| Hormone-dependent locally advanced (equivalent to stage III) or metastatic (equivalent to stage IV) breast cancer in pre-menopausal women | |
|
| Treatment of visually proven endometriosis where the duration of treatment provided for by this prescription, in combination with any previous prescriptions, does not exceed 6 months’ uninterrupted therapy | |
|
| Hormone-dependent breast cancer as an alternative to adjuvant chemotherapy in peri- or pre-menopausal women | |
|
| In respect of the subcutaneous implant (long acting) 10.8 mg (as acetate) in pre-filled injection syringe: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3229 | Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate | |
Goserelin and Bicalutamide |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3239 | Metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma in patients for whom a combination of an antiandrogen and a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (luteinising hormone-releasing hormone) agonist is required | |
Granisetron [NP] |
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy | |
Griseofulvin [NP] |
| — | |
Haloperidol [NP] |
| — | |
Haloperidol Decanoate [NP] |
| — | |
Heparin [NP] |
| — | |
Hexamine [NP] |
| — | |
High fat formula with vitamins, minerals and trace elements and low in protein and carbohydrate [NP] |
| Patients with intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet Glucose transport protein defects Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency | |
Homatropine [NP] |
| — | |
Hydralazine [NP] |
| — | |
Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| — | |
Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride [NP] |
| — | |
Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene [NP] |
| — | |
Hydrocortisone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 4 mg, tablet 20 mg, injection 100 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent, injection 250 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent, eye ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 5 mg per g, 5 g and eye ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 5 g: — | |
|
| In respect of the cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g, cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g, ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g and ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g: Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses | |
|
| In respect of the rectal foam containing hydrocortisone acetate 90 mg per applicatorful, 14 applications, aerosol 21.1 g: Proctitis | |
|
| Ulcerative colitis | |
Hydromorphone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg and oral liquid containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 1 mg per mL, 473 mL: Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
|
| In respect of the tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 16 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 32 mg and tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 64 mg: Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
|
| In respect of the injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg in 1 mL, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 10 mg in 1 mL, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 50 mg in 5 mL and injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 500 mg in 50 mL: — | |
Hydroxocobalamin [NP] |
| Pernicious anaemia | |
|
| Other proven vitamin B12 deficiencies | |
|
| Prophylaxis after gastrectomy | |
Hydroxychloroquine [NP] |
| — | |
Hydroxyethyl starch 130/0.4 [NP] |
| — | |
Hydroxyurea |
| — | |
Hypromellose [NP] |
| Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome [NP]: | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Hypromellose with Carbomer 980 [NP] |
| Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome [NP]: | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Hypromellose with Dextran [NP] |
| In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 4500 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren's syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 2900 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 28 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Ibandronic acid [NP] |
| Bone metastases from breast cancer | |
Ibuprofen [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Idarubicin |
| Acute myelogenous leukaemia | |
Ifosfamide |
| Relapsed or refractory germ cell tumours following first-line chemotherapy | |
|
| Relapsed or refractory sarcomas following first-line chemotherapy | |
Imatinib |
| Gastrointestinal stromal tumour In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, for up to 3 months, of adult patients with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour which has been histologically confirmed by the detection of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining, where patients commence treatment at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day for at least 3 months, and where the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
|
| (i) a copy of a pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority supporting the diagnosis of a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and confirming the presence of CD117 on immunohistochemical staining; and (ii) a copy of the most recent (within 2 months of the application) computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or ultrasound assessment of the tumour or tumours, including whether or not there is evidence of metastatic disease; and | |
|
| (iii) where the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of an unresectable tumour, written evidence in support of that claim | |
|
| Gastrointestinal stromal tumour In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, at a dose of up to 600 mg per day, of adult patients with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour who have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug, and where the patient has not failed to respond, or is not intolerant, to imatinib | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (chronic phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment of patients in the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcr-abl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: treatment under this restriction is limited to a maximum of 18 months of therapy from the date the first application for initial treatment is approved; the application for authorisation includes: (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia - Supporting Information form; and | |
|
| (2) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the bcr-abl transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow; and (3) a copy of a signed patient acknowledgement form indicating that the patient understands and acknowledges that PBS-subsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate for the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia will cease if subsequent testing demonstrates that: | |
|
| (i) the patient has failed to achieve a major cytogenetic response within the initial 18 months of treatment; or (ii) the patient has failed to sustain a major cytogenetic response for 12 months from the date of the last pathology report that indicated that a major cytogenetic response had been achieved; the patient is not receiving concomitant PBS-subsidised interferon alfa therapy | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (chronic phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment of patients who have received initial treatment with imatinib mesylate as a pharmaceutical benefit for the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia and who have demonstrated either a major cytogenetic response or less than 1% bcr-abl level in the blood in the preceding 12 months; and where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| a major cytogenetic response is defined as less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells; | |
|
| a peripheral blood bcr-abl level of less than 1% on the international scale (Blood 108: 28-37, 2006) indicates a response, at least the biological equivalent of a major cytogenetic response; response to PBS-subsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate is assessed by: | |
|
| (1) cytogenetic analysis indicating the number of Philadelphia positive [t (9;22)] cells in the bone marrow measured by standard karyotyping, or, in the case where standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with bcr-abl specific probe; or (2) quantitative PCR indicating the relative level of bcr-abl transcript in the peripheral blood using the international scale; the cytogenetic or peripheral blood quantitative PCR analyses demonstrating response are submitted as follows: | |
|
| (i) between 10 and 12 months of the commencement of treatment with imatinib mesylate, at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcr-abl level of less than 1% has been demonstrated are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment; and | |
|
| (ii) within 18 months of the commencement of treatment with imatinib mesylate, in patients who have failed to demonstrate a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcr-abl level of less than 1% at between 10 and 12 months (at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcr-abl level of less than 1% is demonstrable by 18 months are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment); and | |
|
| (iii) at no greater than 12 month intervals thereafter, to demonstrate that the major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood bcr-abl level of less than 1% has been sustained; | |
|
| the authority application includes: (1) demonstration of continued response to treatment as evidenced by: (a) a copy of the cytogenetic analysis showing a major cytogenetic response, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; or | |
|
| (b) a copy of the quantitative PCR analysis showing a peripheral blood level of bcr-abl of less than 1% on the international scale, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months, in which case only the date of this report need be provided; and | |
|
| (2) if the cytogenetic analysis submitted with the application was conducted using FISH with bcr-abl specific probe because standard karyotyping was not informative, a copy of the non-informative standard karyotype analysis; | |
|
| a patient who has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate and has at any time failed to meet the criteria for continuing treatment of chronic myeloid leukaemia in the chronic phase, is not eligible for PBS-subsidised re-treatment | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (accelerated phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Treatment of patients in the accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcr-abl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and | |
|
| where progress to the accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following: (1) percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or (2) percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or | |
|
| (3) peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or (4) progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or (5) karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome); and | |
|
| where the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia - Supporting Information form, stating which of the above criteria are satisfied by the patient; and | |
|
| (b) a copy of the confirming pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority in the case of criteria (1), (2), (3) and (5) above, or details of the dates of assessments in the case of progressive splenomegaly | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (blast phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Treatment of patients in the blast phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcr-abl tyrosine kinase, and who have a primary diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia; and where progress to myeloid blast crisis is defined as either: (1) percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%; or | |
|
| (2) extramedullary involvement other than spleen and liver; and | |
|
| where the application for authorisation includes: | |
|
| (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Imatinib Mesylate (Glivec) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia - Supporting Information form, stating which of the above criteria are satisfied by the patient; and (b) a copy of the confirming pathology report from an Approved Pathology Authority in the case of criterion (1) above, or details of the date of assessment in the case of extramedullary involvement | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (accelerated phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcr-abl tyrosine kinase, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate of the accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia | |
|
| Chronic myeloid leukaemia (blast phase) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia expressing the Philadelphia chromosome or the transcript, bcr-abl tyrosine kinase, where the patient has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with imatinib mesylate of the blast phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia | |
|
| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Initial treatment in combination with chemotherapy as induction or consolidation of a newly diagnosed patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCR-ABL; and where the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, with either cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow, along with the date of the relevant report; and (c) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment of a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript BCR-ABL who was previously treated with imatinib mesylate under the Imatinib Compassionate Program and who meets all the PBS criteria; and where the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and | |
|
| (b) a pathology cytogenetic report conducted on peripheral blood or bone marrow supporting the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia to confirm eligibility for treatment, with either cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or a qualitative PCR report documenting the presence of the BCR-ABL transcript in either peripheral blood or bone marrow, along with the date of the relevant report; and (c) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment in combination with chemotherapy as maintenance of first complete remission of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript, BCR-ABL; | |
|
| imatinib mesylate is available with a lifetime maximum of 24 months for continuing treatment with imatinib mesylate therapy for patients with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia reimbursed through the PBS | |
|
| Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 800 mg per day) of a patient with unresectable, locally recurrent or metastatic dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, and where: (1) the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and (2) if the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of unresectable tumour, written evidence in support of that claim is provided; and (3) if the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of locally recurrent disease, the site of the local recurrence is specified; and (4) if the application for authority to prescribe is being sought on the basis of metastatic disease, the site(s) of metastatic disease are provided | |
|
| Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 800 mg per day) of a patient with unresectable, locally recurrent or metastatic dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for imatinib and who has demonstrated a response, but whose disease remains unresectable, and where the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a statement that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy | |
|
| Hypereosinophilic syndrome or chronic eosinophilic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with hypereosinophilic syndrome or chronic eosinophilic leukaemia requiring treatment and confirmed to carry the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene, and where the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the pathology report confirming the presence of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; and (c) a copy of the full blood examination report confirming the presence of hypereosinophilic syndrome or chronic eosinophilic leukaemia; and (d) details of organ involvement requiring treatment, including a copy of the radiology, nuclear medicine, respiratory function or anatomical pathology reports as appropriate; and (e) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| Hypereosinophilic syndrome or chronic eosinophilic leukaemia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with hypereosinophilic syndrome or chronic eosinophilic leukaemia who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for imatinib and who has achieved and maintained a complete haematological response, and where the application for authorisation includes: | |
|
| (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response, with a normal eosinophil count; and (c) a statement that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy | |
|
| Myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with a myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder where: (1) there is confirmed evidence of a platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement either by standard karyotyping, or FISH, or PDGFRB fusion gene transcript; and (2) the patient has previously failed an adequate trial of 1 or more of the following conventional therapies: — cytarabine; — etoposide; — hydroxyurea; and | |
|
| (3) the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the pathology report confirming the platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) gene re-arrangement; and (c) a copy of the bone marrow biopsy report which demonstrates the presence of a myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder; and (d) details of the prior therapy trialled and the response; and (e) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| Myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with a PDGFRB fusion gene-positive myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative disorder who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for imatinib and who has demonstrated a complete haematological response, and where the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response; and (c) a statement that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy | |
|
| Systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with aggressive systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia where: (1) there is confirmed evidence of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; and | |
|
| (2) the patient has previously failed an adequate trial of 1 or more of the following conventional therapies: — corticosteroids; — hydroxyurea; and | |
|
| (3) the application for authorisation includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the pathology report confirming the presence of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene; and (c) a copy of the bone marrow biopsy report and/or other tissue biopsy report confirming the diagnosis of aggressive systemic mastocytosis and a copy of the full blood examination report demonstrating eosinophilia; and | |
|
| (d) details of symptomatic organ involvement requiring treatment, including a copy of the radiology, nuclear medicine, respiratory function or anatomical pathology reports as appropriate; and (e) details of prior treatment trialled and the response; and (f) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| Systemic mastocytosis with eosinophilia In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment (at a dose that does not exceed 400 mg per day) of a patient with aggressive systemic mastocytosis confirmed to carry the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene, who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for imatinib and who has demonstrated a complete haematological response, and where the application for authorisation includes: | |
|
| (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Rare Diseases Imatinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a copy of the full blood examination report which demonstrates a complete haematological response; and (c) a statement that the disease has not progressed on imatinib therapy | |
Imipramine [NP] |
| — | |
Imiquimod |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of biopsy confirmed primary (previously untreated) superficial basal cell carcinoma (sBCC) in patients with normal immune function for whom surgical excision, cryotherapy, or curettage with diathermy are inappropriate and topical drug therapy is required, and where the date of the pathology report and name of the Approved Pathology Authority are included in the authority application | |
Indapamide [NP] |
| — | |
Indomethacin [NP] |
| In respect of the capsule 25 mg: Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
|
| Bone pain due to malignant disease | |
|
| In respect of the suppository 100 mg: — | |
Insect Allergen Extract—Honey Bee Venom |
| — | |
Insect Allergen Extract—Paper Wasp Venom |
| — | |
Insect Allergen Extract—Yellow Jacket Venom |
| — | |
Insulin Aspart [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Detemir [NP] |
| Type 1 diabetes | |
Insulin Glargine [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Glulisine [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Isophane [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Lispro [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Neutral [NP] |
| — | |
Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane [NP] |
| — | |
Interferon Alfa-2a |
| In respect of the injection 3,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Hairy cell leukaemia | |
|
| Myeloproliferative disease with excessive thrombocytosis | |
|
| Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy | |
|
| In respect of the injection 4,500,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe, injection 6,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe and injection 9,000,000 I.U. in 0.5 mL single dose pre-filled syringe: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Myeloproliferative disease with excessive thrombocytosis | |
|
| Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy | |
Interferon Alfa-2b |
| In respect of the solution for injection 18,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multi-dose injection pen: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Hairy cell leukaemia | |
|
| Maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma once remission has been achieved with chemotherapy | |
|
| Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy | |
|
| In respect of the solution for injection 30,000,000 I.U. in 1.2 mL multi-dose injection pen: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma once remission has been achieved with chemotherapy | |
|
| Low grade non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with clinical features suggestive of a poor prognosis, in combination with anthracycline-based chemotherapy | |
Interferon Beta-1a |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient | |
|
| Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy | |
Interferon Beta-1b |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in ambulatory (without assistance or support) patients who have experienced at least 2 documented attacks of neurological dysfunction, believed to be due to the multiple sclerosis, in the preceding 2 years, and where the diagnosis is confirmed by magnetic resonance imaging of the brain or spinal cord and the date of the scan is included in the authority application, or where the authority application is accompanied by written certification provided by a radiologist that a magnetic resonance imaging scan is contraindicated because of the risk of physical (not psychological) injury to the patient | |
|
| Continuing treatment of clinically definite relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis in patients previously issued with an authority prescription for this drug who do not show continuing progression of disability while on treatment with this drug and who have demonstrated compliance with, and an ability to tolerate, this therapy | |
Ipratropium [NP] |
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation containing ipratropium bromide 21 micrograms per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation): — | |
|
| In respect of the nebuliser solution containing ipratropium bromide 250 micrograms (anhydrous) in 1 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser solution containing ipratropium bromide 500 micrograms (anhydrous) in 1 mL single dose units, 30: Asthma in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer | |
|
| Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer | |
Irbesartan [NP] |
| — | |
Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Irinotecan |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3184 | Metastatic colorectal cancer in patients with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less | |
Iron Polymaltose Complex [NP] |
| — | |
Iron Sucrose [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2070 | Iron deficiency anaemia, when used in combination with either epoetin alfa or darbepoetin alfa, in patients undergoing chronic haemodialysis who have had a documented hypersensitivity reaction to iron polymaltose and in whom continued intravenous iron therapy is appropriate | |
Isoleucine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Maple syrup urine disease | |
Isoniazid [NP] |
| — | |
Isosorbide Dinitrate [NP] |
| — | |
Isosorbide Mononitrate [NP] |
| — | |
Isotretinoin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1354 | Severe cystic acne not responsive to other therapy | |
Itraconazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Systemic aspergillosis | |
|
| Systemic sporotrichosis | |
|
| Systemic histoplasmosis | |
|
| Treatment and maintenance therapy in patients with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome who have disseminated pulmonary histoplasmosis infection | |
|
| Treatment and maintenance therapy in patients with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome who have chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis infection | |
|
| Treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients | |
|
| Treatment of oesophageal candidiasis in immunosuppressed patients | |
Ivermectin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1242 | Onchocerciasis | |
| 1388 | Strongyloidiasis | |
Ketoconazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 200 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Symptomatic genital candidiasis recurring after treatment of at least 2 episodes with topical therapy | |
|
| Oral candidiasis in severely immunocompromised persons where topical therapy has failed | |
|
| Systemic or deep mycoses where other forms of therapy have failed | |
|
| In respect of the cream 20 mg per g, 30 g, shampoo 10 mg per g, 100 mL and shampoo 20 mg per g, 60 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2354 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Ketoprofen [NP] |
| In respect of the capsule 200 mg (sustained release): Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
|
| In respect of the suppository 100 mg: — | |
Labetalol [NP] |
| — | |
Lacosamide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment, initiated by a neurologist, in combination with two or more anti-epileptic drugs which includes one second-line adjunctive agent, of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs in a patient aged 16 years or older with intractable epilepsy; the patient must have trialled and failed to achieve satisfactory seizure control with: (i) at least one first-line anti-epileptic agent; and (ii) at least two second-line adjunctive anti-epileptic agents | |
|
| Continuing treatment, in combination with two or more anti-epileptic drugs which includes one second-line adjunctive agent, of partial epileptic seizures in a patient aged 16 years or older, who has previously been treated with PBS-subsidised lacosamide | |
Lactulose [NP] |
| Hepatic coma or precoma (chronic porto-systemic encephalopathy) | |
|
| Constipation in patients with malignant neoplasia | |
Lamotrigine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1426 | Treatment of epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
Lansoprazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 30 mg (orally disintegrating) and capsule 30 mg: Initial treatment of peptic ulcer | |
|
| Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 15 mg (orally disintegrating) and capsule 15 mg: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
Lanthanum [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3546 | Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with lanthanum carbonate, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on calcium and where serum phosphate is greater than 1.6 mmol per L at the commencement of therapy | |
| 3547 | Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with lanthanum carbonate, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on calcium and where the serum calcium times phosphate product is greater than 4.0 at the commencement of therapy | |
Lapatinib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, in combination with capecitabine, of a patient with HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer (equivalent to Stage IIIC or Stage IV) who has received prior therapy with a taxane, for at least 3 cycles, and whose disease has progressed despite treatment with trastuzumab for metastatic disease, and where the authority application includes: (a) a pathology report demonstrating HER2 positivity has been demonstrated by in situ hybridisation (ISH); and (b) date of last treatment with a taxane and total number of cycles; and (c) a signed patient acknowledgment; and (d) dates of treatment with trastuzumab; and (e) date of demonstration of disease progression whilst on treatment with trastuzumab | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, in combination with capecitabine, of a patient with HER2 positive metastatic breast cancer who has previously received treatment with PBS-subsidised lapatinib and who does not have progressive disease, and where the authority application includes a statement from the prescribing doctor that the disease has not progressed | |
Latanoprost |
| — | |
Latanoprost with Timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Leflunomide |
| In respect of the pack containing 3 tablets leflunomide 100 mg and 30 tablets leflunomide 20 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2643 | Initial treatment of severe active rheumatoid arthritis where other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician | |
| 2681 | Initial treatment of severe active psoriatic arthritis where other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 10 mg and tablet 20 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2644 | Treatment of severe active rheumatoid arthritis where other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician | |
| 2682 | Treatment of severe active psoriatic arthritis where other disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (including methotrexate) are ineffective and/or inappropriate and where treatment is initiated by a physician | |
Lercanidipine [NP] |
| — | |
Lercanidipine with enalapril [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Letrozole [NP] |
| Treatment of hormone-dependent advanced breast cancer in post-menopausal women | |
|
| Treatment of hormone-dependent early breast cancer in post-menopausal women | |
|
| Extended adjuvant treatment of hormone-dependent early breast cancer in post-menopausal women commencing within 6 months of ceasing treatment with tamoxifen citrate | |
Leuprorelin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3229 | Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate | |
Levetiracetam [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg, tablet 500 mg and tablet 1 g: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2664 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
|
| In respect of the oral solution 100 mg per mL, 300 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3291 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs in a patient unable to take a solid dose form of levetiracetam | |
Levodopa with Benserazide [NP] |
| — | |
Levodopa with Carbidopa [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 200 mg-50 mg (anhydrous) (modified release): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1257 | Parkinson’s disease where fluctuations in motor function are not adequately controlled by frequent dosing with conventional formulations of levodopa with decarboxylase inhibitor | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 100 mg-25 mg (anhydrous) and tablet 250 mg-25 mg (anhydrous): — | |
Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone [NP] |
3305 | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Parkinson disease in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations who are experiencing fluctuations in motor function due to end-of-dose effect | |
| 3306 | Parkinson disease in patients stabilised on concomitant treatment with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations and entacapone | |
Levonorgestrel [NP] [MW] |
| In respect of the tablets 30 micrograms, 28 [MW]: — | |
|
| In respect of the intrauterine drug delivery system 52 mg: Contraception | |
|
| Idiopathic menorrhagia where oral treatments are ineffective | |
|
| Idiopathic menorrhagia where oral treatments are contraindicated | |
Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol [NP] |
| — | |
Lignocaine [NP] |
| — | |
Lincomycin [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Liothyronine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1219 | Management of patients with thyroid cancer | |
| 1858 | Replacement therapy for hypothyroid patients who have documented intolerance to thyroxine sodium | |
| 1859 | Replacement therapy for hypothyroid patients who have documented resistance to thyroxine sodium | |
| 1182 | Initiation of thyroid therapy in severely hypothyroid patients | |
Lisinopril [NP] |
| — | |
Lithium [NP] |
| — | |
Loperamide [NP] |
| — | |
Macrogol 3350 [NP] |
| Constipation in patients with malignant neoplasia | |
|
| Chronic constipation or faecal impaction not adequately controlled with first line interventions such as bulk-forming agents | |
|
| Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function not responding to other oral therapies | |
|
| Patients receiving palliative care | |
Medroxyprogesterone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 500 mg: Hormone-dependent advanced breast cancer | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 100 mg, tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 200 mg and tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 250 mg: Hormone-dependent breast cancer | |
|
| Endometrial cancer | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 5 mg, tablet containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 10 mg and injection containing medroxyprogesterone acetate 150 mg in 1 mL: — [NP] | |
Mefenamic Acid [NP] |
| Dysmenorrhoea | |
|
| Menorrhagia | |
Megestrol |
| Hormone-dependent advanced breast cancer | |
Meloxicam [NP] |
| Symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis | |
|
| Symptomatic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis | |
Melphalan |
| — | |
Memantine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline score submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14 who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, and where the relevant result from the MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 to 14 and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs: | |
|
| Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; | |
|
| Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; | |
|
| Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 to 14 for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change (CIBIC) scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
Mercaptopurine |
| — | |
Mesalazine [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg (enteric coated), tablet 500 mg (enteric coated), tablet 500 mg (prolonged release), tablet 1 g (prolonged release), sachet containing prolonged release granules, 1 g per sachet and sachet containing prolonged release granules, 2 g per sachet: | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1708 | Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists | |
| 1709 | Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists | |
| 2268 | Crohn’s disease where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists | |
| 2269 | Crohn’s disease where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 1.2 g (prolonged release), sachet containing granules, 500 mg per sachet, sachet containing granules, 1 g per sachet and sachet containing granules, 1.5 g per sachet: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1708 | Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists | |
| 1709 | Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists | |
|
| In respect of the suppository 1 g: Acute episode of mild to moderate ulcerative proctitis | |
|
| In respect of the enemas 1 g in 100 mL, 7, enemas 2 g in 60 mL, 7, enemas 4 g in 60 mL, 7 and rectal foam 1 g per applicatorful, 14 applications, aerosol 80 g: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1707 | Acute episode of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis | |
Mesna |
| Adjunctive therapy for use with ifosfamide or high dose cyclophosphamide | |
Metformin [NP] |
| — | |
Metformin with Glibenclamide [NP] |
| — | |
Methadone [NP] |
| Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
Methotrexate |
| — | |
Methyldopa [NP] |
| — | |
Methylphenidate [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 10 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Use in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, in accordance with State/Territory law | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 18 mg (extended release), tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 27 mg (extended release), tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 36 mg (extended release) and tablet containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 54 mg (extended release): | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in a patient diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, who has demonstrated a response to immediate release methylphenidate hydrochloride with no emergence of serious adverse events, and who requires continuous coverage over 12 hours | |
|
| In respect of the capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 10 mg (modified release), capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 20 mg (modified release), capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 30 mg (modified release) and capsule containing methylphenidate hydrochloride 40 mg (modified release): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in a patient diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 18 years inclusive, who has demonstrated a response to immediate release methylphenidate hydrochloride with no emergence of serious adverse events, and who requires continuous coverage over 8 hours | |
Methylprednisolone [NP] |
| In respect of the injection containing methylprednisolone acetate 40 mg in 1 mL: For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration | |
|
| In respect of the powder for injection 40 mg (as sodium succinate) with diluent and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium succinate) with diluent: — | |
|
| In respect of the cream containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g, ointment containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g and fatty ointment containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 15 g: Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses | |
|
| In respect of the lotion containing methylprednisolone aceponate 1 mg per g, 20 g: Eczema | |
Methysergide [NP] |
| — | |
Metoclopramide [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Metoprolol [NP] |
| — | |
Metoprolol succinate [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3234 | Moderate to severe heart failure in a patient stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II antagonist, if tolerated | |
Metronidazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 200 mg, tablet 400 mg, oral suspension containing metronidazole benzoate 320 mg per 5 mL, 100 mL and suppositories 500 mg, 10: — | |
|
| In respect of the I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL: Prophylaxis in large bowel surgery | |
|
| Treatment, in a hospital, of acute anaerobic sepsis | |
Mianserin [NP] |
| Severe depression | |
Miconazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2354 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Milk powder — lactose free formula [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Acute lactose intolerance in infants up to the age of 12 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application and where the patient has not previously been issued with an authority prescription for this medicinal preparation for this purpose | |
|
| Proven chronic lactose intolerance in infants up to the age of 12 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application, and where lactose intolerance has been proven by: (a) relief of symptoms on supervised withdrawal of lactose from the diet for 3 or 4 days and subsequent re-emergence of symptoms on rechallenge with lactose containing formulae or milk or food; or | |
|
| (b) not less than 0.5% reducing substance in stool exudate tested with copper sulfate diagnostic compound tablet; or (c) hydrogen breath test | |
Milk powder — lactose modified [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Acute lactose intolerance in children aged 1 year and over, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application and where the patient has not previously been issued with an authority prescription for this medicinal preparation for this purpose | |
|
| Proven chronic lactose intolerance in children aged 1 year and over who are significantly malnourished, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application, and where lactose intolerance has been proven by: (a) relief of symptoms on supervised withdrawal of lactose from the diet for 3 or 4 days and subsequent re-emergence of symptoms on rechallenge with lactose containing formulae or milk or food; or (b) not less than 0.5% reducing substance in stool exudate tested with copper sulfate diagnostic compound tablet; or (c) hydrogen breath test | |
Milk powder — synthetic [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Hypercalcaemia in children under the age of 4 years | |
Milk protein and fat formula with vitamins and minerals — carbohydrate free [NP] |
| Patients with intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet Glucose transport protein defects Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency Infants and young children with glucose-galactose intolerance and multiple monosaccharide intolerance | |
|
| ||
|
| ||
Minocycline [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 50 mg (as hydrochloride): Severe acne not responding to other tetracyclines | |
|
| In respect of the capsule 100 mg (as hydrochloride): — | |
Minoxidil [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2759 | Severe refractory hypertension where treatment is initiated by a consultant physician | |
Mirtazapine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Misoprostol |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2630 | Reduction in the incidence of gastrointestinal complications in patients who have a history of peptic ulcer disease and where non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug therapy is essential | |
| 2631 | Duodenal ulcer (including pyloric and stomal ulcers), proven by current or prior x-ray, endoscopy or surgery, where the date on which, and the method by which, the ulcer was proven are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2632 | Gastric ulcer, proven by x-ray, endoscopy or surgery within the previous 2 years, where the date on which, and the method by which, the ulcer was proven are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
Mitozantrone |
| — | |
Moclobemide [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Modafinil |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, by a qualified sleep medicine practitioner or neurologist, of patients with narcolepsy where: (i) intolerance to dexamphetamine sulfate of a severity necessitating treatment withdrawal develops; or | |
|
| (ii) therapy with dexamphetamine sulfate poses an unacceptable medical risk, as indicated by the presence of any 1 of the following: (a) a psychiatric disorder; (b) a cardiovascular disorder; | |
|
| (c) a history of substance abuse; (d) glaucoma; | |
|
| (e) any other absolute contraindication to dexamphetamine sulfate as specified in the Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information; and where the patient meets the following definition of narcolepsy: excessive daytime sleepiness, recurrent naps or lapses into sleep occurring almost daily for at least 3 months, and: | |
|
| (i) a definite history of cataplexy; or a mean sleep latency less than or equal to 10 minutes on a Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT), where the MSLT is preceded by nocturnal polysomnography and sleep prior to the MSLT is at least 6 hours in duration; or an electroencephalographic (EEG) recording showing the pathologically rapid development of REM sleep; and (ii) absence of any medical or psychiatric disorder that could otherwise account for the hypersomnia; and | |
|
| where the authority application includes the following: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Modafinil (Modavigil) PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) details of the contraindication or intolerance to dexamphetamine sulfate; and (c) either: (i) the result and date of the polysomnography test and MSLT, conducted by, or under the supervision of, a qualified sleep medicine practitioner; or (ii) the result and date of the EEG, conducted by, or under the supervision of, a neurologist; and where the polysomnography and MSLT, or the EEG, test reports are provided with the authority application | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment of narcolepsy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug | |
Mometasone [NP] |
| Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses | |
Montelukast [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet, chewable, 4 mg (as sodium): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2617 | First-line preventer medication, as the single preventer agent for children aged from 2 to less than 6 years with frequent intermittent or mild persistent asthma, as an alternative to sodium cromoglycate or nedocromil sodium | |
|
| In respect of the tablet, chewable, 5 mg (as sodium): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2618 | First-line preventer medication, as the single preventer agent for children aged from 6 to less than 15 years with frequent intermittent or mild persistent asthma, as an alternative to sodium cromoglycate or nedocromil sodium | |
| 3217 | Prevention of exercise-induced asthma, as an alternative to adding salmeterol xinafoate or eformoterol fumarate, in a child aged from 6 to less than 15 years whose asthma is otherwise well controlled while receiving optimal dose inhaled corticosteroid, but who requires short-acting beta-2 agonist 3 or more times per week for prevention or relief of residual exercise-related symptoms | |
Morphine [NP] [MW] |
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg and tablet containing morphine sulfate 20 mg: Severe disabling pain due to cancer not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 2 mg per mL, 200 mL, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 5 mg per mL, 200 mL and oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 10 mg per mL, 200 mL: Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 20 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 50 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 90 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 120 mg (controlled release), sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 20 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 30 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 60 mg per sachet and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 100 mg per sachet: | |
|
| Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 200 mg (controlled release) and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 200 mg per sachet: | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Chronic severe disabling pain due to cancer | |
|
| In respect of the injection containing morphine sulfate 10 mg in 1 mL [MW], injection containing morphine tartrate 120 mg in 1.5 mL, injection containing morphine sulfate 15 mg in 1 mL [MW] and injection containing morphine sulfate 30 mg in 1 mL: — | |
Moxonidine [NP] |
| Hypertension in patients receiving concurrent antihypertensive therapy | |
Mupirocin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3136 | Nasal colonisation with Staphylococcus aureus in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Mycophenolic Acid |
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 180 mg mycophenolic acid and tablet (enteric coated) containing mycophenolate sodium equivalent to 360 mg mycophenolic acid: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate sodium, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
|
| In respect of the capsule containing mycophenolate mofetil 250 mg, tablet containing mycophenolate mofetil 500 mg and powder for oral suspension containing mycophenolate mofetil 1 g per 5 mL, 165 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate mofetil, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with cardiac transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with mycophenolate mofetil, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
Nafarelin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, of visually proven endometriosis | |
|
| Subsequent treatment, for up to 6 months, of visually proven endometriosis, where 2 years or more have elapsed since the end of the previous course and where a recent bone density assessment has been made and where the date of the assessment is included in the authority application | |
Naloxone [NP] |
| — | |
Naltrexone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| For use within a comprehensive treatment program for alcohol dependence with the goal of maintaining abstinence | |
Nandrolone Decanoate |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment has failed, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient | |
|
| Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment is not tolerated, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient | |
|
| Monotherapy for osteoporosis where other treatment is contraindicated, where monotherapy does not preclude concomitant calcium supplementation, and where, if the authority application is the initial authority application for this purpose for the patient, specialist advice has been obtained confirming that this drug is the only suitable treatment option for the patient | |
|
| Patients receiving PBS-subsidised therapy with this drug for osteoporosis prior to 1 February 2004 | |
|
| Patients on long-term treatment with corticosteroids | |
Naproxen [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg, tablet containing naproxen sodium 550 mg, tablet 500 mg, tablet 750 mg (sustained release) and tablet 1 g (sustained release): Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
|
| Bone pain due to malignant disease | |
|
| In respect of the oral suspension 125 mg per 5 mL, 474 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2270 | Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent | |
| 2271 | Bone pain due to malignant disease in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent | |
Naratriptan [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where adverse events have occurred with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where transfer to another suitable PBS-listed drug would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where transfer to another suitable PBS-listed drug is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences | |
Nebivolol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3234 | Moderate to severe heart failure in a patient stabilised on conventional therapy which must include an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II antagonist, if tolerated | |
Nedocromil [NP] |
| — | |
Neomycin [NP] |
| — | |
Neomycin with Bacitracin [NP] |
| — | |
Nicorandil [NP] |
| — | |
Nicotine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Nicotine dependence in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy | |
Nifedipine [NP] |
| — | |
Nilotinib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of a patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia in chronic or accelerated phase bearing the Philadelphia chromosome or expressing the transcript BCR-ABL, and who: (a) has active leukaemia (as defined by the presence on current pathology assessments of either the Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic or fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) analysis, or the presence of the transcript BCR-ABL greater than 1% on the international scale); and | |
|
| (b) has failed an adequate trial of imatinib, where failure of an adequate trial of imatinib is defined as: (i) lack of response to initial imatinib therapy, defined as either: — failure to achieve a haematological response after a minimum of 3 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase; or — failure to achieve any cytogenetic response after a minimum of 6 months of therapy with imatinib, for patients initially treated in chronic phase as demonstrated on bone marrow biopsy by presence of greater than 95% Philadelphia chromosome positive cells; or — failure to achieve a major cytogenetic response or a peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% after a minimum of 12 months of therapy with imatinib; or | |
|
| (ii) loss of a previously documented major cytogenetic response (demonstrated by the presence of greater than 35% Philadelphia positive cells on bone marrow biopsy), during ongoing imatinib therapy; or | |
|
| (iii) loss of a previously demonstrated molecular response (demonstrated by peripheral blood BCR-ABL levels increasing in value by at least 5 fold to a level of greater than 1% confirmed on a subsequent test), during ongoing imatinib therapy; or (iv) development of accelerated phase in a patient previously prescribed imatinib for the chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia, where accelerated phase is defined by the presence of 1 or more of the following: — percentage of blasts in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 15% but less than 30%; or — percentage of blasts plus promyelocytes in the peripheral blood or bone marrow greater than or equal to 30%, provided that blast count is less than 30%; or — peripheral basophils greater than or equal to 20%; or | |
|
| — progressive splenomegaly to a size greater than or equal to 10 cm below the left costal margin to be confirmed on 2 occasions at least 4 weeks apart, or a greater than or equal to 50% increase in size below the left costal margin over 4 weeks; or — karyotypic evolution (chromosomal abnormalities in addition to a single Philadelphia chromosome); or | |
|
| (v) disease progression (defined as a greater than or equal to 50% increase in peripheral white blood cell count, blast count, basophils or platelets) during first-line imatinib therapy in patients with accelerated phase chronic myeloid leukaemia, provided that blast crisis has been excluded on bone marrow biopsy; or (vi) grade 3 or 4 non-haematological toxicity that is imatinib related and necessitates permanent cessation of imatinib; and where the authority application includes: (a) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib/Nilotinib PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form; and (b) a signed patient acknowledgement; and | |
|
| (c) a bone marrow biopsy pathology report demonstrating that the patient has active chronic myeloid leukaemia, either manifest as cytogenetic evidence of the Philadelphia chromosome, or RT-PCR level of BCR-ABL transcript greater than 1% on the international scale, and the date of the relevant pathology report; and | |
|
| (d)(1) where there has been a loss of response to imatinib, a copy of the current confirming pathology report, or reports, from an Approved Pathology Authority; or (2) details of Grade 3 or 4 non-haematological imatinib related toxicity; for patients with imatinib related toxicities, leukaemia activity does not need to be demonstrated | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of a patient who has received initial treatment with nilotinib as a pharmaceutical benefit for chronic myeloid leukaemia, and who has demonstrated either a major cytogenetic response to nilotinib, or less than 1% BCR-ABL level in the blood, within 18 months of the commencement of treatment and at 12 monthly intervals thereafter; and where the following conditions apply: a major cytogenetic response is defined as less than 35% Philadelphia positive bone marrow cells; | |
|
| a bone marrow or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% on the international scale (Blood 108: 28-37, 2006) indicates a response, at least the biological equivalent of a major cytogenetic response; response to PBS-subsidised treatment with nilotinib is assessed by: | |
|
| (1) cytogenetic analysis indicating the number of Philadelphia positive [t (9;22)] cells in the bone marrow measured by standard karyotyping, or, in the case where standard karyotyping is not informative for technical reasons, cytogenetic analysis performed on the bone marrow by the use of fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) with BCR-ABL specific probe; or (2) quantitative PCR indicating the relative level of BCR-ABL transcript in the peripheral blood using the international scale; the cytogenetic or peripheral blood quantitative PCR analyses demonstrating response are submitted as follows: | |
|
| (i) between 10 and 18 months of the commencement of treatment with nilotinib, at which time patients in whom a major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% has been demonstrated are eligible for a further 12 months of treatment; and | |
|
| (ii) at no greater than 12 month intervals thereafter, to demonstrate that the major cytogenetic response or peripheral blood BCR-ABL level of less than 1% has been sustained; the authority application includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia Dasatinib/Nilotinib Authority Application Form for continuing treatment; and (2) demonstration of continued response to treatment as evidenced by: | |
|
| (a) a copy of the cytogenetic analysis showing a major cytogenetic response, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months (or 18 months if the application is the first application for continuing treatment), in which case only the date of this report needs to be provided; or (b) a copy of the quantitative PCR analysis showing a peripheral blood level of BCR-ABL of less than 1% on the international scale, unless the relevant pathology report has been supplied within the previous 12 months (or 18 months if the application is the first application for continuing treatment), in which case only the date of this report needs to be provided; and (3) if the cytogenetic analysis submitted with the application was conducted using FISH with BCR-ABL specific probe because standard karyotyping was not informative, a copy of the non-informative standard karyotype analysis; | |
|
| a patient who has previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with nilotinib and has at any time failed to meet the criteria for continuing treatment, is not eligible for PBS-subsidised re-treatment | |
Nilutamide [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3299 | Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in combination with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (luteinising hormone-releasing hormone) agonist therapy | |
| 3300 | Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) prostatic carcinoma, when used in conjunction with surgical orchidectomy | |
Nitrazepam [NP] |
| — | |
Nitrofurantoin [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Nizatidine [NP] |
| — | |
Norethisterone [NP] |
| — | |
Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol [NP] |
| — | |
Norethisterone with Mestranol [NP] |
| — | |
Norfloxacin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Acute bacterial enterocolitis | |
|
| Complicated urinary tract infection | |
Nortriptyline [NP] |
| Major depression where other antidepressant therapy has failed | |
|
| Major depression where other antidepressant therapy is contraindicated | |
Nystatin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 500,000 units, capsule 500,000 units and oral suspension 100,000 units per mL, 24 mL: — | |
|
| In respect of the cream 100,000 units per g, 15 g: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2354 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Oestradiol [NP] |
| — | |
Oestradiol and Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone [NP] |
| — | |
Oestradiol and Oestradiol with Norethisterone [NP] |
| — | |
Oestradiol with Norethisterone [NP] |
| — | |
Oestriol [NP] |
| — | |
Ofloxacin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Bacterial keratitis | |
Olanzapine [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 2.5 mg, tablet 5 mg, tablet 7.5 mg, tablet 10 mg, wafer 5 mg and wafer 10 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 2044 | Maintenance treatment of bipolar I disorder | |
|
| In respect of the powder for injection 210 mg (as pamoate monohydrate) with diluent, powder for injection 300 mg (as pamoate monohydrate) with diluent and powder for injection 405 mg (as pamoate monohydrate) with diluent: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
Olmesartan [NP] |
| — | |
Olmesartan with amlodipine |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Olsalazine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1708 | Ulcerative colitis where hypersensitivity to sulfonamides exists | |
| 1709 | Ulcerative colitis where intolerance to sulfasalazine exists | |
Omeprazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 20 mg (as magnesium), tablet 20 mg and capsule 20 mg: Initial treatment of peptic ulcer | |
|
| Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 10 mg (as magnesium): Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | |
Omeprazole and Clarithromycin and Amoxycillin [NP] |
| Eradication of Helicobacter pylori associated with peptic ulcer disease | |
Ondansetron [NP] |
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with radiotherapy being used to treat malignancy | |
Oxaliplatin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Metastatic colorectal cancer in a patient with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less, when used in combination with capecitabine | |
|
| Metastatic colorectal cancer in a patient with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less, when used in combination with fluorouracil and folinic acid | |
|
| Adjuvant treatment of stage III (Dukes C) colon cancer, in combination with fluorouracil and calcium folinate, following complete resection of the primary tumour | |
Oxazepam [NP] |
| — | |
Oxcarbazepine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1587 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures and primary generalised tonic-clonic seizures, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
Oxprenolol [NP] |
| — | |
Oxybutynin [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing oxybutynin hydrochloride 5 mg: Detrusor overactivity | |
|
| In respect of the transdermal patches 36 mg, 8: Detrusor overactivity in a patient who cannot tolerate oral oxybutynin, or who cannot swallow oral oxybutynin | |
Oxycodone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg, oral solution containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg per 5 mL, 250 mL and suppository 30 mg (as pectinate): Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics [NP] | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 40 mg (controlled release) and tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 80 mg (controlled release): Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics | |
Paclitaxel |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Adjuvant treatment of node-positive breast cancer administered sequentially to an anthracycline and cyclophosphamide | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy | |
|
| Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound | |
|
| Primary treatment of ovarian cancer in combination with a platinum compound | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer | |
|
| Treatment of HER2 positive early breast cancer in combination with trastuzumab | |
Paclitaxel, nanoparticle albumin-bound |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Metastatic breast cancer after failure of prior therapy | |
Paliperidone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
Palonosetron |
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration | |
Pamidronic Acid [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3256 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone | |
Pancreatic Extract [NP] |
| — | |
Pancrelipase [NP] |
| — | |
Pantoprazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 40 mg (as sodium sesquihydrate) and sachet containing granules 40 mg (as sodium sesquihydrate): Initial treatment of peptic ulcer | |
|
| Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | |
|
| In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) 20 mg (as sodium sesquihydrate): Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
Paracetamol [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 500 mg, oral liquid 120 mg per 5 mL, 100 mL and oral liquid 240 mg per 5 mL, 200 mL: — | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 665 mg (modified release): Relief of persistent pain associated with osteoarthritis | |
Paraffin [NP] |
| — | |
Paroxetine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | |
|
| Panic disorder | |
Pemetrexed |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, after prior platinum-based chemotherapy, where the dose per treatment cycle does not exceed 500 mg per metre squared body surface area (BSA) and where the patient’s BSA is included in the authority application | |
|
| Mesothelioma, in combination with cisplatin, where the dose per treatment cycle does not exceed 500 mg per metre squared body surface area (BSA) and where the patient’s BSA is included in the authority application | |
Penicillamine [NP] |
| — | |
Pergolide [NP] |
| Parkinson’s disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations | |
Perhexiline [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1023 | Angina not responding to other therapy | |
Pericyazine [NP] |
| — | |
Perindopril [NP] |
| — | |
Perindopril with amlodipine [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
|
| Stable coronary heart disease in a patient who is stabilised on treatment with perindopril and amlodipine at the same doses | |
Perindopril with Indapamide [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing perindopril arginine 2.5 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 0.625 mg: — | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing perindopril erbumine 4 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 1.25 mg and tablet containing perindopril arginine 5 mg with indapamide hemihydrate 1.25 mg: | |
|
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Permethrin [NP] |
| — | |
Phenelzine |
| Depression where all other anti-depressant therapy has failed or is inappropriate | |
Phenobarbitone [NP] |
| Epilepsy | |
Phenoxybenzamine [NP] |
| Phaeochromocytoma | |
|
| Neurogenic urinary retention | |
Phenoxymethylpenicillin [NP] |
| — | |
Phenylalanine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Tyrosinaemia | |
Phenytoin [NP] |
| — | |
Pilocarpine |
| — | |
Pimecrolimus |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of facial or eyelid atopic dermatitis in patients aged at least 3 months who have 1 or more of the following contraindications to topical corticosteroids: perioral dermatitis; periorbital dermatitis; rosacea; epidermal atrophy; dermal atrophy; allergy to topical corticosteroids; cataracts; glaucoma; raised intraocular pressure; and where a period of 6 months or more has elapsed since an application was last approved for the issue of an authority prescription to the patient for this purpose | |
|
| Short-term (up to 3 weeks) intermittent treatment of atopic dermatitis of the face or eyelids in patients aged at least 3 months who fail to achieve satisfactory disease control with intermittent topical corticosteroid therapy and where more than 3 months have passed since the initial diagnosis of atopic dermatitis; and | |
|
| where failure to achieve satisfactory disease control with intermittent topical corticosteroid therapy is manifest by: failure of the facial skin to clear despite at least 2 weeks of topical hydrocortisone 1% applied every day; or failure of the facial skin to clear despite at least 1 week of a moderate or potent topical corticosteroid applied every day; or clearing of the facial skin with at least 2 weeks of topical hydrocortisone 1% applied every day, but almost immediate and significant flare in facial disease (within 48 hours) upon stopping topical corticosteroids, occurring on at least 2 consecutive occasions; or clearing of the facial skin with at least 1 week of a moderate or potent topical corticosteroid applied every day, but almost immediate and significant flare in facial disease (within 48 hours) upon stopping topical corticosteroids, occurring on at least 2 consecutive occasions; and where a period of 6 months or more has elapsed since an application was last approved for the issue of an authority prescription to the patient for this purpose | |
Pindolol [NP] |
| — | |
Pioglitazone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3540 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: | |
|
| (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; or | |
|
| (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and | |
|
| where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
| 3541 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with insulin, in a patient: (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with insulin and oral anti-diabetic agents, or with insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated; or | |
|
| (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with insulin and oral anti-diabetic agents, or with insulin alone where metformin is contraindicated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
| 3542 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with metformin and a sulfonylurea, in a patient: | |
|
| (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin and a sulfonylurea; or (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of metformin and a sulfonylurea; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
Piroxicam [NP] |
| Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
Pizotifen [NP] |
| — | |
Pneumococcal Vaccine - Polyvalent [NP] |
| Splenectomised persons over 2 years of age | |
|
| Persons with Hodgkin’s disease | |
|
| Persons at high risk of pneumococcal infections | |
Polyethylene glycol 400 [NP] |
| In respect of the eye drops 2.5 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops 2.5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 20 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol [NP] |
| In respect of the eye drops 4 mg-3 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome [NP] | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops 4 mg-3 mg per mL, single dose units 0.8 mL, 28 [NP]: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Polygeline [NP] |
| — | |
Poly-l-lactic acid |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Maintenance PBS-subsidised treatment, for facial administration only, of severe facial lipoatrophy caused by therapy for HIV infection; accreditation following completion of injection administration training with Sanofi-Aventis is required to prescribe poly-l-lactic acid under the PBS; patients must be referred from the HIV physician to the accredited injector | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment, for facial administration only, of severe facial lipoatrophy caused by therapy for HIV infection; | |
|
| accreditation following completion of injection administration training with Sanofi-Aventis is required to prescribe poly-l-lactic acid under the PBS; patients must be referred from the HIV physician to the accredited injector | |
Polyvinyl Alcohol [NP] |
| Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome | |
|
| For use in patients who have severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome, and who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Posaconazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of invasive aspergillosis in patients intolerant to, or with disease refractory to, alternative therapy | |
|
| Treatment of fusariosis, zygomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, chromoblastomycosis and mycetoma in patients intolerant to, or with disease refractory to, alternative therapy | |
|
| Prophylaxis of invasive fungal infections, including both yeasts and moulds, in a patient who is at high risk of developing these infections, defined as follows: | |
|
| (1) neutropenia — patients with anticipated neutropenia (an absolute neutrophil count of less than 500 cells per cubic millimetre) for at least 10 days, who are receiving chemotherapy for acute myelogenous leukaemia or myelodysplastic syndrome; treatment should continue until recovery of the neutrophil count to at least 500 cells per cubic millimetre; patients who have had a previous invasive fungal infection should have secondary prophylaxis during subsequent episodes of neutropenia; (2) graft versus host disease (GVHD) — patients with acute GVHD grades II to IV or extensive chronic GVHD, who are receiving intensive immunosuppressive therapy after allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplant; PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to a maximum of 6 months therapy per episode | |
Potassium Chloride [NP] |
| — | |
Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate [NP] |
| — | |
Pramipexole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing pramipexole hydrochloride 125 micrograms: Parkinson disease | |
|
| Treatment of severe primary restless legs syndrome in a patient who manifests all 4 diagnostic criteria listed below and whose baseline International Restless Legs Syndrome Rating Scale (IRLSRS) score is greater than or equal to 21 points prior to initiation of pramipexole, where the date and IRLSRS score are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time pramipexole treatment is initiated, and where the diagnostic criteria for restless legs syndrome are: (a) an urge to move the legs usually accompanied or caused by unpleasant sensations in the legs; and (b) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations begin or worsen during periods of rest or inactivity such as lying or sitting; and (c) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations are partially or totally relieved by movement, such as walking or stretching, at least as long as the activity continues; and (d) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations are worse in the evening or night than during the day or only occur during the evening or night | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing pramipexole hydrochloride 250 micrograms: Treatment of severe primary restless legs syndrome in a patient who manifests all 4 diagnostic criteria listed below and whose baseline International Restless Legs Syndrome Rating Scale (IRLSRS) score is greater than or equal to 21 points prior to initiation of pramipexole, where the date and IRLSRS score are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time pramipexole treatment is initiated, and where the diagnostic criteria for restless legs syndrome are: | |
|
| (a) an urge to move the legs usually accompanied or caused by unpleasant sensations in the legs; and (b) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations begin or worsen during periods of rest or inactivity such as lying or sitting; and (c) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations are partially or totally relieved by movement, such as walking or stretching, at least as long as the activity continues; and (d) the urge to move or unpleasant sensations are worse in the evening or night than during the day or only occur during the evening or night | |
|
| Parkinson disease | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing pramipexole hydrochloride 1 mg, tablet (extended release) containing pramipexole hydrochloride 375 micrograms, tablet (extended release) containing pramipexole hydrochloride 750 micrograms, tablet (extended release) containing pramipexole hydrochloride 1.5 mg, tablet (extended release) containing pramipexole hydrochloride 3 mg and tablet (extended release) containing pramipexole hydrochloride 4.5 mg: Parkinson disease | |
Prasugrel [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3208 | Treatment of acute coronary syndrome (myocardial infarction or unstable angina) managed by percutaneous coronary intervention in combination with aspirin | |
Pravastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 [NP]: | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Praziquantel [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3147 | Schistosomiasis | |
Prazosin [NP] |
| — | |
Prednisolone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 1 mg, tablet 5 mg, tablet 25 mg, oral solution 5 mg (as sodium phosphate) per mL, 30 mL and enema, retention, 20 mg (as sodium phosphate) in 100 mL: — | |
|
| In respect of the suppositories 5 mg (as sodium phosphate), 10: Proctitis | |
|
| Ulcerative colitis | |
Prednisolone with Phenylephrine [NP] |
| Corneal grafts | |
|
| Uveitis | |
Prednisone [NP] |
| — | |
Primidone [NP] |
| — | |
Probenecid [NP] |
| — | |
Procaine Penicillin [NP] |
| — | |
Prochlorperazine [NP] |
| — | |
Promethazine [NP] |
| — | |
Propantheline [NP] |
| Detrusor overactivity | |
Propranolol [NP] |
| — | |
Propylthiouracil [NP] |
| — | |
Protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides [NP] |
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Alfaré): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows’ milk protein free diet with a soy protein as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides and soy protein is not tolerated or is likely not to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Biliary atresia | |
|
| Chronic liver failure with fat malabsorption | |
|
| Chylous ascites | |
|
| Chylothorax | |
|
| Cystic fibrosis | |
|
| Enterokinase deficiency | |
|
| Proven fat malabsorption | |
|
| Severe diarrhoea of greater than 2 weeks’ duration in an infant aged less than 4 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 450 g (Pepti-Junior Gold): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, for up to 3 months, for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where intolerance is demonstrated when the child has failed to respond to a strict cows’ milk protein free diet with a soy protein as the principal formula, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for intolerance (not infant colic) to both cows’ milk protein and soy protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a suitably qualified allergist or paediatrician, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Initial treatment, in consultation with a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, for up to 3 months, of a child up to the age of 2 years with severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child up to the age of 2 years, where clinical improvement has been demonstrated with the protein hydrolysate formula with medium chain triglycerides and soy protein is not tolerated or is likely not to be tolerated, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment for severe intolerance (not infant colic) to cows’ milk protein in a child aged 2 years and over, where the child has been assessed by a paediatric gastroenterologist or specialist allergist, and where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Biliary atresia | |
|
| Chronic liver failure with fat malabsorption | |
|
| Chylous ascites | |
|
| Cystic fibrosis | |
|
| Enterokinase deficiency | |
|
| Proven fat malabsorption | |
|
| Severe diarrhoea of greater than 2 weeks’ duration in an infant aged less than 4 months, where the date of birth of the patient is included in the authority application | |
|
| Severe intestinal malabsorption including short bowel syndrome | |
Pyrantel [NP] |
| — | |
Pyridostigmine |
| — | |
Pyrimethamine [NP] |
| — | |
Quetiapine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 2765 | Monotherapy, for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder | |
| 3151 | Maintenance treatment of bipolar I disorder, in combination with lithium or sodium valproate | |
Quinagolide |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2659 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery is not indicated | |
| 2660 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where surgery has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
| 2661 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy is not indicated | |
| 2662 | Pathological hyperprolactinaemia where radiotherapy has already been used with incomplete resolution | |
Quinapril [NP] |
| — | |
Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Quinine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2142 | Malaria | |
Rabeprazole [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing rabeprazole sodium 20 mg (enteric coated): Initial treatment of peptic ulcer | |
|
| Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing rabeprazole sodium 10 mg (enteric coated): Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease | |
|
| Scleroderma oesophagus | |
Raloxifene [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2647 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established post-menopausal osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Raltitrexed |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3185 | For use as a single agent in the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer | |
Ramipril [NP] |
| — | |
Ramipril with Felodipine [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Ranibizumab |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography or, where a fluorescein angiogram cannot be performed due to a contraindication as listed in the Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)-approved Product Information, by an alternative method of diagnosis, and where: the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with ranibizumab in the eye for which treatment is being sought; | |
|
| the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and either a copy of the fluorescein angiogram or, where applicable, details of the contraindication to fluorescein angiography and a copy of the report of the alternative method of diagnosis (e.g. optical coherence tomography (OCT) or red free photography) In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii): Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography or, where a fluorescein angiogram cannot be performed due to a contraindication as listed in the TGA-approved Product Information, by an alternative method of diagnosis, and where: | |
|
| the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with ranibizumab in the eye for which treatment is being sought; the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and either a copy of the fluorescein angiogram or, where applicable, details of the contraindication to fluorescein angiography and a copy of the report of the alternative method of diagnosis (e.g. optical coherence tomography (OCT) or red free photography), is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuing treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to age-related macular degeneration, where the patient has previously been granted an authority prescription for ranibizumab for treatment of the same eye | |
Ranitidine [NP] [MW] |
| — | |
Reboxetine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Reteplase [NP] |
| Treatment of acute myocardial infarction within 6 hours of onset of attack | |
Rifampicin [NP] |
| In respect of the capsule 150 mg and capsule 300 mg: Prophylaxis of meningococcal disease in close contacts and carriers | |
|
| Prophylactic treatment of contacts of patients with Haemophilus influenzae type B | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Leprosy in adults | |
|
| In respect of the syrup 100 mg per 5 mL, 60 mL: Prophylaxis of meningococcal disease in close contacts and carriers | |
|
| Prophylactic treatment of contacts of patients with Haemophilus influenzae type B | |
Riluzole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, as diagnosed by a neurologist, in patients with disease duration of 5 years or less who have at least 60 percent of predicted forced vital capacity within 2 months prior to commencing riluzole therapy, and who have not undergone tracheostomy, have not experienced respiratory failure and, if not ambulatory, are either able to use upper limbs or able to swallow, and where the date of diagnosis and the date and results of spirometry (in terms of percent of predicted forced vital capacity) are included in the authority application | |
|
| Continuing treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis in patients who have previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who have not undergone tracheostomy, have not experienced respiratory failure and, if not ambulatory, are either able to use upper limbs or able to swallow | |
Risedronic Acid [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet containing risedronate sodium 5 mg, tablet containing risedronate sodium 35 mg and tablet containing risedronate sodium 150 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3070 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
|
| In respect of the tablet containing risedronate sodium 30 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3256 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone | |
Risedronic Acid and Calcium [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3070 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Risedronic acid and calcium with colecalciferol [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3070 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2645 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2646 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Risperidone [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 0.5 mg and tablet 0.5 mg (orally disintegrating): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2061 | Behavioural disturbances characterised by psychotic symptoms and aggression in patients with dementia where non-pharmacological methods have been unsuccessful | |
| 3083 | Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with non-pharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in either a patient aged less than 18 years with autism, or a patient 18 years of age or older with autism who was commenced on PBS-subsidised treatment with risperidone prior to turning 18 years of age and is continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where non-pharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) or the ICD-10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 1 mg, tablet 1 mg (orally disintegrating) and oral solution 1 mg per mL, 100 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2061 | Behavioural disturbances characterised by psychotic symptoms and aggression in patients with dementia where non-pharmacological methods have been unsuccessful | |
| 3083 | Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with non-pharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in either a patient aged less than 18 years with autism, or a patient 18 years of age or older with autism who was commenced on PBS-subsidised treatment with risperidone prior to turning 18 years of age and is continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where non-pharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) or the ICD-10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 2272 | Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 2 mg and tablet 2 mg (orally disintegrating): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3083 | Treatment under the supervision of a paediatrician or psychiatrist, in combination with non-pharmacological measures, of severe behavioural disturbances in either a patient aged less than 18 years with autism, or a patient 18 years of age or older with autism who was commenced on PBS-subsidised treatment with risperidone prior to turning 18 years of age and is continuing PBS-subsidised treatment, where behaviour disturbances are defined as severe aggression and injuries to self or others where non-pharmacological methods alone have been unsuccessful, and where the diagnosis of autism has been made based on either the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV) or the ICD-10 international classification of mental and behavioural disorders | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 2272 | Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 3 mg, tablet 3 mg (orally disintegrating), tablet 4 mg and tablet 4 mg (orally disintegrating): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 2272 | Adjunctive therapy to mood stabilisers for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania associated with bipolar I disorder | |
|
| In respect of the I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 25 mg and 1 pre-filled syringe diluent 2 mL, I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 37.5 mg and 1 pre-filled syringe diluent 2 mL and I.M. injection (modified release), set containing 1 vial powder for injection 50 mg and 1 pre-filled syringe diluent 2 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
Rituximab |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Relapsed or refractory low-grade B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma | |
|
| Relapsed or refractory follicular B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma | |
|
| Treatment of previously untreated, CD20 positive, diffuse large B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, in combination with chemotherapy | |
|
| Treatment of symptomatic patients with previously untreated, CD20 positive, Stage III or IV, follicular, B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, in combination with chemotherapy | |
Rivaroxaban [NP] |
| In respect of the tablets 10 mg, 30: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total hip replacement | |
|
| In respect of the tablets 10 mg, 10 and tablet 10 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total knee replacement | |
|
| Prevention of venous thromboembolism in a patient undergoing total hip replacement | |
Rivastigmine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the baseline scores submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more, where the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, where the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE is included in the authority application, and where, if the patient’s baseline MMSE or SMMSE is 25 to 30 points and it is so desired, the result of a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale, is also included in the authority application | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more who demonstrate improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, and where: | |
|
| (1) improvement in cognitive function is demonstrated by: (a) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of 10 or more and less than 25 — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE; or | |
|
| (b) in the case of patients with a baseline MMSE or SMMSE score of at least 25 points — an increase of at least 2 points from baseline on the MMSE or SMMSE, or, if a baseline Alzheimer’s Disease Assessment Scale, cognitive sub-scale (ADAS-Cog) was submitted with the application for initial treatment, a decrease of at least 4 points from baseline on the ADAS-Cog; and | |
|
| (2) the relevant result from the MMSE, SMMSE or ADAS-Cog is included in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 10 or more and with demonstrated improvement in cognitive function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Initial treatment, for up to 2 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; | |
|
| Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Continuation of initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with this drug for a period of up to 2 months, where the application includes the information submitted with the first application for initial treatment, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a period of initial treatment of not more than 6 months’ duration in total | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, for up to 6 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease as they are from 1 or more of the qualifying groups specified below, where the patient is assessed using the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Severity (CIBIS) scale and the diagnosis is confirmed by a specialist or consultant physician, and where the authority application includes the result of the baseline MMSE or SMMSE and specifies to which of the following qualifying groups the patient belongs: Unable to communicate adequately because of lack of competence in English, in people of non-English speaking background; Limited education, as defined by less than 6 years of education, or who are illiterate or innumerate; | |
|
| Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islanders who, by virtue of cultural factors, are unable to complete an MMSE or SMMSE test; | |
|
| Intellectual (developmental or acquired) disability; | |
|
| Significant sensory impairment despite best correction, which precludes completion of an MMSE or SMMSE test; | |
|
| Prominent dysphasia, out of proportion to other cognitive and functional impairment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less who are unable to register a score of 10 or more for reasons other than their Alzheimer’s disease and who demonstrate improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, based on a rating of "very much improved" or "much improved" on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale, as assessed by the same clinician who initiated treatment, and where the improvement rating achieved on the Clinicians Interview Based Impression of Change scale is stated in the authority application for continuing treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of mild to moderately severe Alzheimer’s disease in eligible patients with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) or Standardised Mini-Mental State Examination (SMMSE) score of 9 or less and with demonstrated improvement in function following initial PBS-subsidised therapy, where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment | |
Rizatriptan [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3233 | Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics | |
Rosiglitazone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3540 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; or | |
|
| (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; and | |
|
| where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and | |
|
| where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
Rosiglitazone with Metformin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3544 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes in a patient in whom a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with metformin; or | |
|
| (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with metformin; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
Rosuvastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Roxithromycin [NP] |
| — | |
Salbutamol [NP] |
| In respect of the oral solution 2 mg (as sulfate) per 5 mL, 150 mL, capsule containing powder for oral inhalation 200 micrograms (as sulfate) (for use in Ventolin Rotahaler) and pressurised inhalation 100 micrograms (as sulfate) per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation): — | |
|
| In respect of the pressurised inhalation in breath actuated device 100 micrograms (as sulfate) per dose, 200 doses (CFC-free formulation): Patients unable to achieve co-ordinated use of other metered dose inhalers containing this drug | |
|
| In respect of the nebuliser solution 2.5 mg (as sulfate) in 2.5 mL single dose units, 30, nebuliser solution 5 mg (as sulfate) in 2.5 mL single dose units, 30 and nebuliser solution 5 mg (as sulfate) per mL, 30 mL: Asthma in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer | |
|
| Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients unable to use this drug delivered from an oral pressurised inhalation device via a spacer | |
Salcatonin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3256 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone | |
| 1412 | Treatment initiated in a hospital (in-patient or out-patient) of hypercalcaemia | |
Salmeterol [NP] |
| Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with oral corticosteroids | |
|
| Patients with frequent episodes of asthma who are currently receiving treatment with optimal doses of inhaled corticosteroids | |
Selegiline [NP] |
| Late stage Parkinson’s disease as adjunctive therapy in patients being treated with levodopa—decarboxylase inhibitor combinations | |
Sertraline [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
|
| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | |
|
| Panic disorder where other treatments have failed or are inappropriate | |
Sevelamer [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3548 | Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sevelamer hydrochloride, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on calcium and where serum phosphate is greater than 1.6 mmol per L at the commencement of therapy | |
| 3549 | Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sevelamer hydrochloride, of hyperphosphataemia in a patient with chronic kidney disease on dialysis whose serum phosphate is not controlled on calcium and where the serum calcium times phosphate product is greater than 4.0 at the commencement of therapy | |
Silver sulfadiazine [NP] |
| Prevention and treatment of infection in partial or full skin thickness loss due to burns | |
|
| Prevention and treatment of infection in partial or full skin thickness loss due to epidermolysis bullosa | |
|
| Stasis ulcers | |
Simvastatin [NP] |
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 [NP]: | |
|
| For use in accordance with paragraph 16 in patients who are receiving treatment under a GP Management Plan or Team Care Arrangements where Medicare benefits were or are payable for the preparation of the Plan or coordination of the Arrangements | |
Sirolimus |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance therapy of patients with renal transplants following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with sirolimus, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing that patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
Sitagliptin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3540 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; or (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
Sitagliptin with metformin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3543 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes in a patient in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: | |
|
| (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with metformin; or (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with metformin; and | |
|
| where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
| 3149 | Continuation of therapy in type 2 diabetes mellitus in a patient who has previously received and been stabilised on a PBS-subsidised regimen of oral diabetic medicines which includes metformin and sitagliptin | |
Sodium Acid Phosphate [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1099 | Familial hypophosphataemia | |
| 1157 | Hypercalcaemia | |
| 1167 | Hypophosphataemic rickets | |
| 1467 | Vitamin D-resistant rickets | |
Sodium bicarbonate [NP] |
| — | |
Sodium Chloride [NP] |
| — | |
Sodium Chloride Compound [NP] |
| — | |
Sodium Chloride with Glucose [NP] |
| — | |
Sodium Lactate Compound [NP] |
| — | |
Sorafenib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised agent, of advanced (Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer Stage C) hepatocellular carcinoma in a patient with a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less and Child Pugh class A | |
|
| Continuing treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised agent, of advanced hepatocellular carcinoma in a patient who has previously been treated with PBS-subsidised sorafenib and who does not have progressive disease | |
Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate [NP] |
| Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function | |
|
| Patients who are receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities | |
|
| For use by a patient who is receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult | |
|
| Patients receiving palliative care | |
|
| Terminal malignant neoplasia | |
|
| Anorectal congenital abnormalities | |
|
| Megacolon | |
Sotalol [NP] |
| Severe cardiac arrhythmias | |
Soy lecithin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1359 | Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops | |
Soy protein and fat formula with vitamins and minerals — carbohydrate free [NP] |
| Patients with intractable seizures requiring treatment with a ketogenic diet Glucose transport protein defects Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency Infants and young children with glucose-galactose intolerance and multiple monosaccharide intolerance | |
Spironolactone [NP] |
| — | |
Sterculia with Frangula Bark [NP] |
| Paraplegic and quadriplegic patients and others with severe neurogenic impairment of bowel function | |
|
| Patients who are receiving long-term nursing care on account of age, infirmity or other condition in hospitals, nursing homes or residential facilities | |
|
| For use by a patient who is receiving long-term nursing care and in respect of whom a Carer Allowance is payable as a disabled adult | |
|
| Patients receiving palliative care | |
|
| Terminal malignant neoplasia | |
|
| Anorectal congenital abnormalities | |
|
| Megacolon | |
Strontium [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2758 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a woman aged 70 years or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, and where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
| 2647 | Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established post-menopausal osteoporosis in patients with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body | |
Sucralfate [NP] |
| — | |
Sulfacetamide [NP] |
| — | |
Sulfasalazine [NP] |
| — | |
Sulindac [NP] |
| Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
|
| Bone pain due to malignant disease | |
Sulthiame [NP] |
| — | |
Sumatriptan [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3233 | Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics | |
Sunitinib |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC) in a patient who meets the Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Centre (MSKCC) low to intermediate risk group and has a World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less | |
|
| Continuing treatment beyond 3 months, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC) in a patient who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for sunitinib and who has stable or responding disease according to RECIST (Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours) criteria | |
|
| Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of Stage IV clear cell variant renal cell carcinoma (RCC) in a patient who was receiving treatment with sunitinib prior to 1 May 2009 | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment as monotherapy of a patient with World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour after failure of imatinib mesylate treatment due to resistance or intolerance, and where the application for authorisation includes: | |
|
| (1) a completed copy of the appropriate Sunitinib Malate (Sutent) PBS Authority Application for Use in the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour - Supporting Information Form; and (2) a signed patient acknowledgement | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing PBS-subsidised treatment as monotherapy of a patient with World Health Organisation performance status of 2 or less with a metastatic or unresectable malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for sunitinib and who does not have progressive disease on sunitinib | |
Tacrolimus |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Maintenance therapy, following initiation and stabilisation of treatment with tacrolimus, of patients with organ or tissue transplants, where therapy remains under the supervision and direction of the transplant unit reviewing the patient and where the name of the specialised transplant unit reviewing treatment and the date of the latest review at the specialised transplant unit are included in the authority application | |
Tamoxifen [NP] |
| Treatment of hormone-dependent breast cancer | |
Telmisartan [NP] |
| — | |
Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Temazepam [NP] |
| — | |
Temozolomide |
| In respect of the capsule 5 mg, capsule 20 mg, capsule 100 mg and capsule 140 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Glioblastoma multiforme concomitantly with radiotherapy | |
|
| Recurrence of anaplastic astrocytoma following standard therapy | |
|
| Recurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following standard therapy | |
|
| Glioblastoma multiforme following radiotherapy | |
|
| In respect of the capsule 250 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Recurrence of anaplastic astrocytoma following standard therapy | |
|
| Recurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following standard therapy | |
|
| Glioblastoma multiforme following radiotherapy | |
Tenecteplase [NP] |
| Treatment of acute myocardial infarction within 12 hours of onset of attack | |
Terbinafine [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 250 mg (as hydrochloride): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment of a dermatophyte infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person where topical treatment has failed | |
|
| Treatment of a dermatophyte infection in a patient aged up to 18 years inclusive where topical treatment and griseofulvin have failed | |
|
| Proximal or extensive (greater than 80% nail involvement) onychomycosis due to dermatophyte infection where topical treatment has failed, where the infection is proven by microscopy or culture and confirmed by an Approved Pathology Authority not more than 12 months prior to the date of the authority application and where the date of the pathology report is included in the authority application | |
|
| In respect of the cream containing terbinafine hydrochloride 10 mg per g, 15 g: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2354 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
| 3243 | Treatment of a fungal or a yeast infection in a patient aged up to 18 years inclusive | |
Terbutaline [NP] |
| — | |
Teriparatide |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised agent, by a specialist or consultant physician, for severe, established osteoporosis in a patient with a very high risk of fracture who: (a) has a bone mineral density (BMD) T-score of -3.0 or less; and (b) has had 2 or more fractures due to minimal trauma; and | |
|
| (c) has experienced at least 1 symptomatic new fracture after at least 12 months continuous therapy with an anti-resorptive agent at adequate doses; and | |
|
| where: a vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body; | |
|
| anti-resorptive therapies for osteoporosis and their adequate doses which will be accepted for the purposes of administering this restriction are alendronate sodium 10 mg per day or 70 mg once weekly, risedronate sodium 5 mg per day or 35 mg once weekly, raloxifene hydrochloride 60 mg per day (women only), disodium etidronate 200 mg with calcium carbonate 1.25 g per day, strontium ranelate 2 g per day and zoledronic acid 5 mg per annum; | |
|
| if treatment with anti-resorptive therapy is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, details of the contraindication are included in the authority application; if an intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal develops during the relevant period of use of 1 anti-resorptive agent, alternate anti-resorptive agents are trialled so that the patient achieves the minimum requirement of 12 months continuous therapy, and details of toxicities including severity are included in the authority application; the authority application is made in writing and includes details of prior anti-resorptive therapy, fracture history including the date(s) and site(s), the symptoms associated with the fracture(s) which developed during the course of anti-resorptive therapy, and the score of the qualifying BMD measurement | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, as the sole PBS-subsidised agent, by a specialist or consultant physician, for severe, established osteoporosis in a patient with a very high risk of fracture who was receiving treatment with teriparatide prior to 1 May 2009, and where: | |
|
| the authority application is made in writing and the commencement date of teriparatide treatment and the number of doses the patient has received are provided with the application; the patient is eligible to receive a maximum of 18 months of combined PBS-subsidised and non-PBS-subsidised therapy in their lifetime; the patient is eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under this restriction once only | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment for severe, established osteoporosis where the patient has previously been issued with an authority prescription for teriparatide; teriparatide must only be used for a lifetime maximum of 18 months therapy; PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to a maximum of 18 months therapy in the patient’s lifetime | |
Testosterone |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Androgen deficiency in males with established pituitary or testicular disorders | |
|
| Androgen deficiency in males 40 years and older who do not have established pituitary or testicular disorders other than aging, confirmed by at least 2 morning blood samples taken on different mornings, where androgen deficiency is confirmed by testosterone less than 8 nmol per L, or from 8 to 15 nmol per L with luteinising hormone greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of the eugonadal reference range for young men | |
|
| Micropenis, pubertal induction, or constitutional delay of growth or puberty, in males under 18 years of age | |
Tetrabenazine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1161 | Hyperkinetic extrapyramidal disorders | |
Tetracosactrin |
| — | |
Theophylline [NP] |
| — | |
Thiamine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2384 | Prophylaxis of thiamine deficiency in an Aboriginal or a Torres Strait Islander person | |
Thioguanine |
| — | |
Thiotepa |
| — | |
Thyrotropin Alfa |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3193 | Ablation of thyroid remnant tissue, in combination with radioactive iodine, in a post thyroidectomy patient without known metastatic disease | |
Thyroxine [NP] |
| — | |
Tiagabine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2664 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
Tiaprofenic Acid [NP] |
| Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component | |
Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid [NP] |
| Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
Ticlopidine [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1719 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients with a history of symptomatic cerebrovascular ischaemic episodes while on therapy with low-dose aspirin | |
| 1720 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where low-dose aspirin poses an unacceptable risk of gastrointestinal bleeding | |
| 1721 | Prevention of recurrence of ischaemic stroke or transient cerebral ischaemic events in patients where there is a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria or asthma within 4 hours of ingestion of aspirin, other salicylates, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs | |
| 1260 | Patients established on this drug as a pharmaceutical benefit prior to 1 November 1999 | |
Tiludronic Acid [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3256 | Symptomatic Paget disease of bone | |
Timolol |
| — | |
Tinidazole [NP] |
| — | |
Tiotropium [NP] |
| For the long-term maintenance treatment of bronchospasm and dyspnoea associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease | |
Tirofiban [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1729 | Patients with high risk unstable angina who have new transient or persistent ST-T ischaemic changes and anginal pain lasting longer than 20 minutes | |
| 1730 | Patients with high risk unstable angina who have new transient or persistent ST-T ischaemic changes and repetitive episodes of angina at rest or during minimal exercise in the previous 12 hours | |
| 1275 | Patients with non-Q-wave myocardial infarction | |
Tobramycin [NP] |
| In respect of the injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL and injection 80 mg (as sulfate) in 2 mL (without preservative) [NP]: Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent | |
|
| Septicaemia, suspected | |
|
| Septicaemia, proven | |
|
| In respect of the injection 500 mg (as sulfate) in 5 mL (without preservative) [NP]: Systemic treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection in a patient with cystic fibrosis | |
|
| In respect of the eye drops 3 mg per mL, 5 mL and eye ointment 3 mg per g, 3.5 g: Invasive ocular infection | |
|
| Perioperative use in ophthalmic surgery | |
|
| Suspected pseudomonal eye infection | |
Topiramate [NP] |
| In respect of the tablet 25 mg and tablet 50 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2797 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonic-clonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
| 2799 | Prophylaxis of migraine in a patient who has experienced an average of 3 or more migraines per month over a period of at least 6 months, and who: | |
|
| (1) either has a contraindication to beta-blockers, as described in the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or has experienced intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent withdrawal during treatment with a beta-blocker; and | |
|
| (2) either has a contraindication to pizotifen because the weight gain associated with this drug poses an unacceptable risk, or has experienced intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent withdrawal during treatment with pizotifen; and | |
|
| where details of the contraindication(s) and/or intolerance(s) are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 100 mg and tablet 200 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2797 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonic-clonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
|
| In respect of the capsule 15 mg, capsule 25 mg and capsule 50 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 2798 | Treatment of partial epileptic seizures, primary generalised tonic-clonic epileptic seizures and seizures of the Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs in patients unable to take a solid dose form of topiramate | |
Topotecan |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3186 | Advanced metastatic ovarian cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes a platinum compound | |
Toremifene |
| Treatment of hormone-dependent metastatic breast cancer in post-menopausal patients | |
Tramadol [NP] |
| In respect of the capsule containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg: For acute pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed | |
|
| For dosage titration in chronic pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed | |
|
| In respect of the tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 150 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 300 mg and oral drops containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg per mL, 10 mL: For pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed | |
|
| In respect of the injection containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg in 2 mL: Short-term treatment of acute pain | |
Trandolapril [NP] |
| — | |
Trandolapril with Verapamil [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Tranexamic Acid [NP] |
| — | |
Tranylcypromine |
| — | |
Travoprost |
| — | |
Travoprost with Timolol |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
|
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy | |
Triamcinolone [NP] |
| In respect of the injection containing triamcinolone acetonide 10 mg in 1 mL: Alopecia areata | |
|
| For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration | |
|
| Granulomata, dermal | |
|
| Keloid | |
|
| Lichen planus hypertrophic | |
|
| Lichen simplex chronicus | |
|
| Lupus erythematosus, chronic discoid | |
|
| Necrobiosis lipoidica | |
|
| Psoriasis | |
|
| In respect of the cream containing triamcinolone acetonide 200 micrograms per g, 100 g and ointment containing triamcinolone acetonide 200 micrograms per g, 100 g: Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses | |
Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin [NP] |
| — | |
Trifluoperazine [NP] |
| — | |
Triglycerides, long chain with glucose polymer [NP] |
| Patients with proven inborn errors of protein metabolism who are unable to meet their energy requirements with permitted food and formulae | |
Triglycerides, medium chain [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Chylous ascites | |
|
| Chylothorax | |
|
| Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders | |
|
| Hyperlipoproteinaemia type 1 | |
|
| Intractable childhood epilepsy or cerebrospinal fluid glucose transporter defect, requiring a ketogenic diet | |
|
| Long chain fatty acid oxidation disorders | |
Triglycerides, medium chain and long chain with glucose polymer [NP] |
| Patients with proven inborn errors of protein metabolism who are unable to meet their energy requirements with permitted food and formulae | |
Triglycerides — medium chain, formula [NP] |
| In respect of the sachets containing oral powder 16 g, 30 (MCT Pro-Cal): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Chylous ascites | |
|
| Chylothorax | |
|
| Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders | |
|
| Hyperlipoproteinaemia type 1 | |
|
| Long chain fatty acid oxidation disorders | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 400 g (Monogen): Chylous ascites | |
|
| Chylothorax | |
|
| Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders | |
|
| Hyperlipoproteinaemia type 1 | |
|
| Long chain fatty acid oxidation disorders | |
|
| In respect of the oral powder 420 g (Caprilon): Chylous ascites | |
|
| Chylothorax | |
|
| Fat malabsorption due to liver disease, short gut syndrome, cystic fibrosis or gastrointestinal disorders | |
Trimethoprim [NP] |
| — | |
Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole [NP] |
| — | |
Triptorelin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3229 | Locally advanced (equivalent to stage C) or metastatic (equivalent to stage D) carcinoma of the prostate | |
Tropisetron [NP] |
| Management of nausea and vomiting associated with cytotoxic chemotherapy being used to treat malignancy which occurs within 48 hours of chemotherapy administration | |
Tyrosine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Phenylketonuria | |
Ursodeoxycholic Acid [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1700 | Primary biliary cirrhosis | |
Ustekinumab |
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of ustekinumab for continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and were receiving treatment with ustekinumab prior to 26 November 2009; and (b) had a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15 prior to commencing treatment with ustekinumab; and | |
|
| (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and (d) have demonstrated a response as specified in the criterion included in the restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible | |
|
| for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition at baseline (prior to initiation of ustekinumab therapy) and the most recent PASI assessment; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and | |
|
| (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and were receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekimumab prior to 26 November 2009, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and | |
|
| (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with ustekinumab; and (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with ustekinumab; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to ustekinumab treatment is defined as a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-biological treatment baseline value for this Treatment Cycle; the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; | |
|
| the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 28-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with ustekinumab; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
|
| a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 3 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Commencement of a Biological Treatment Cycle with an initial PBS-subsidised course of ustekinumab for continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: | |
|
| (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and were receiving treatment with ustekinumab prior to 26 November 2009; and | |
|
| (b) whose disease, prior to treatment with ustekinumab, was classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where either at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling were rated as severe or very severe, or the skin area affected was 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and | |
|
| (c) who have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and (d) who have demonstrated a response as specified in the criterion included in the restriction for continuing PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition at baseline (prior to initiation of ustekinumab therapy) and the most recent PASI assessment; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; the PASI assessment is performed on the same affected body area as assessed at baseline or prior to initiation of ustekinumab treatment; | |
|
| the course of treatment is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment; | |
|
| patients are eligible for PBS-subsidised treatment under the above criteria once only | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of a course of initial PBS-subsidised treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate) by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and were receiving non-PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab prior to 26 November 2009, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — continuing treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): | |
|
| Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over: | |
|
| (a) who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and | |
|
| (b) whose most recent course of PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle was with ustekinumab; and | |
|
| (c) who have demonstrated an adequate response to their most recent course of treatment with ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: an adequate response to ustekinumab treatment is defined as the plaque or plaques assessed prior to biological agent treatment showing: (i) a reduction in the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline values; or | |
|
| (ii) a reduction by 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-biological treatment baseline value; the PASI assessment submitted to demonstrate response is performed on the same affected body area assessed to establish the baseline value; the PASI assessment of response is made after at least 12 weeks of treatment, in the case of a 28-week initial treatment course, or is conducted within 4 weeks prior to completion of the course, in the case of a 24-week treatment course, and is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO no later than 1 month from the date of completion of the course of treatment; where an assessment of the patient’s response to a course of PBS-subsidised treatment is not undertaken and submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within the timeframes specified above, the patient will be deemed to have failed to respond to treatment with ustekinumab; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the completed Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheet and face, hand, foot area diagrams along with the date of the assessment of the patient’s condition; | |
|
| the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; a course of continuing treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 24 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for continuing treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 24 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 24 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: | |
|
| (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and | |
|
| (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and | |
|
| (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the whole body; and | |
|
| (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: | |
|
| (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; | |
|
| unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and | |
|
| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: failure to achieve an adequate response is indicated by a current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment, and is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application; a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to | |
|
| the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; | |
|
| if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
|
| (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 28 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): | |
|
| Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 28 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 28 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (whole body) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with ustekinumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis; and | |
|
| (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with ustekinumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following | |
|
| a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised ustekinumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
|
| (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 28 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with ustekinumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 28 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 28 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 1 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), commencing a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: (a) have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis; and | |
|
| (b) have not received any prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, or, where the patient has received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition, have received no such treatment for a period of 5 years or more, starting from the date the last application for PBS-subsidised therapy with a biological agent for this condition was approved; and | |
|
| (c) have signed a patient and prescriber acknowledgement indicating they understand and acknowledge that PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent will cease if they do not meet the predetermined response criterion for ongoing PBS-subsidised treatment, as outlined in the restriction for continuing treatment of psoriasis affecting the face, hand or foot; and | |
|
| (d) have failed to achieve an adequate response, as demonstrated by a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment, to at least 3 of the following 4 treatments: (i) phototherapy (UVB or PUVA) for 3 treatments per week for at least 6 weeks; and/or (ii) methotrexate at a dose of at least 10 mg weekly for at least 6 weeks; and/or (iii) cyclosporin at a dose of at least 2 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; and/or | |
|
| (iv) acitretin at a dose of at least 0.4 mg per kg per day for at least 6 weeks; unless the patient has had a break in PBS-subsidised biological agent treatment of at least 5 years, in which case the patient is required to demonstrate failure to achieve an adequate response to at least 1 of the 4 treatments, for a minimum of 6 weeks; and | |
|
| where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| failure to achieve an adequate response is demonstrated in the patient at the time of the authority application and is indicated by chronic plaque psoriasis classified as severe due to a plaque or plaques on the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where: | |
|
| (i) at least 2 of the 3 Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; or | |
|
| (ii) the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; | |
|
| a PASI assessment is completed for each prior treatment course, preferably whilst still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each course of treatment; the most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application; | |
|
| if treatment with any of the drugs mentioned at (d) above is contraindicated according to the relevant Therapeutic Goods Administration-approved Product Information, or phototherapy is contraindicated, the authority application includes details of the contraindication; if intolerance to treatment with the regimens specified at (d) above develops during the relevant period of use and is of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal, the authority application includes details of the degree of this toxicity; | |
|
| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: (i) the completed current and previous Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of previous phototherapy and systemic drug therapy (dosage where applicable, date of commencement and duration of therapy); and (iii) the signed patient and prescriber acknowledgements; a course of initial treatment commencing a Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 28 weeks of treatment In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), in a Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment with ustekinumab for a period of less than 28 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 28 weeks of treatment in total | |
|
| Chronic plaque psoriasis (face, hand, foot) — initial treatment 2 In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment, or recommencement of treatment, with ustekinumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who: | |
|
| (a) have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot; and | |
|
| (b) have received prior PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for this condition in this Treatment Cycle; and (c) have not failed PBS-subsidised therapy with ustekinumab for the treatment of this condition in the current Treatment Cycle; and where biological agent means adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab or ustekinumab; and | |
|
| where a Biological Treatment Cycle is a period of treatment with successive biological agents which commences when an eligible patient (one who has not received PBS-subsidised treatment with a biological agent for chronic plaque psoriasis in at least the previous 5 years) receives an initial course of PBS-subsidised therapy with 1 biological agent, and which continues until the patient has tried, and either failed or ceased to respond to, PBS-subsidised treatment with 3 biological agents, at which point the patient is no longer eligible for treatment and the period of treatment ceases; and | |
|
| where the following conditions apply: | |
|
| patients who have previously demonstrated a response to PBS-subsidised treatment with ustekinumab within this Treatment Cycle are only eligible to recommence therapy with this drug within this same cycle, following a break in therapy, where evidence of a response to their most recent course of PBS-subsidised ustekinumab treatment was submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO within 1 month of cessation of that treatment; | |
|
| the application for authorisation includes a completed copy of the appropriate Severe Chronic Plaque Psoriasis PBS Authority Application - Supporting Information Form which includes the following: | |
|
| (i) the completed current Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) calculation sheets and face, hand, foot area diagrams including the dates of assessment of the patient’s condition; and (ii) details of prior biological agent treatment, including dosage, date and duration of treatment; a course of initial treatment within an ongoing Treatment Cycle is limited to a maximum of 28 weeks of treatment | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuation of initial treatment, or of a course which recommences treatment, with ustekinumab as systemic monotherapy (other than methotrexate), within an ongoing Biological Treatment Cycle, by a dermatologist for adults 18 years and over who have a documented history of severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, and who, qualifying under the criteria specified above, have previously been issued with an authority prescription for initial treatment or recommencement of treatment with this drug for a period of less than 28 weeks, and where approval of the application would enable the patient to complete a course of 28 weeks of treatment in total | |
Valaciclovir [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Moderate to severe initial genital herpes | |
|
| Episodic treatment or suppressive therapy of moderate to severe recurrent genital herpes, where the diagnosis is confirmed microbiologically (by viral culture, antigen detection or nucleic acid amplification by polymerase chain reaction) but where commencement of treatment need not await confirmation of diagnosis | |
|
| Treatment of patients with herpes zoster within 72 hours of the onset of the rash | |
|
| Herpes zoster ophthalmicus | |
Valine with carbohydrate [NP] |
| Maple syrup urine disease | |
Valproic Acid [NP] |
| — | |
Valsartan [NP] |
| — | |
Valsartan with hydrochlorothiazide [NP] |
| Hypertension in a patient who is not adequately controlled with either of the drugs in the combination | |
Vancomycin |
| In respect of the capsule 125 mg (125,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride) and capsule 250 mg (250,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile which is unresponsive to metronidazole | |
|
| Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile where there is intolerance to metronidazole | |
|
| In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (500,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride) and powder for injection 1 g (1,000,000 I.U.) (as hydrochloride): | |
|
| Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients hypersensitive to penicillin | |
|
| Endophthalmitis | |
|
| Use initiated in a hospital for infections where vancomycin hydrochloride is an appropriate antibiotic | |
Varenicline [NP] |
| In respect of the box containing 11 tablets 0.5 mg (as tartrate) and 14 tablets 1 mg (as tartrate) in the first pack and 28 tablets 1 mg (as tartrate) in the second pack: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who has entered a comprehensive support and counselling program, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application | |
|
| Commencement of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated they are ready to cease smoking and who is entering a comprehensive support and counselling program during the same consultation at which the authority application is made, and where details of the program are specified in the authority application | |
|
| In respect of the tablet 1 mg (as tartrate): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Completion of short-term, sole PBS-subsidised therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has previously been issued with an authority prescription for this drug and who is enrolled in a comprehensive support and counselling program | |
Venlafaxine [NP] |
| Major depressive disorders | |
Verapamil [NP] |
| — | |
Verteporfin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with verteporfin in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii): Initial treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to age-related macular degeneration, as diagnosed by fluorescein angiography, in a patient with a baseline visual acuity equal to or better than 6/60 (20/200), where the patient has not previously received PBS-subsidised treatment with verteporfin in the eye for which treatment is being sought, and where the authority application includes a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form and a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to macular degeneration, where: (a) the patient has been authorised by the Angiogram Review Panel to receive treatment with verteporfin in the same eye under the Medicare Benefits Scheme (MBS) Visudyne Therapy Program and has received no more than 14 such treatments; and | |
|
| (b) the authority application includes: | |
|
| (i) a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form which includes the date of review by the Angiogram Review Panel and the number of treatments administered in that eye under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program; and (ii) a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (ii): Initial PBS-subsidised treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation (CNV) due to macular degeneration, where: | |
|
| (a) the patient has been authorised by the Angiogram Review Panel to receive treatment with verteporfin in the same eye under the Medicare Benefits Scheme (MBS) Visudyne Therapy Program and has received no more than 14 such treatments; and | |
|
| (b) the authority application includes: (i) a completed copy of the appropriate Subfoveal Choroidal Neovascularisation (CNV) - PBS Supporting Information Form which includes the date of review by the Angiogram Review Panel and the number of treatments administered in that eye under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program; and (ii) a copy of the fluorescein angiogram demonstrating that the CNV is predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic; and (c) the authority application is submitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by facsimile prior to contact by telephone and is resubmitted to the Medicare Australia CEO by post after the application has been authorised | |
|
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subsubparagraph 14 (d) (i) or 14 (d) (ii): Continuing treatment by an ophthalmologist, as the sole PBS-subsidised therapy, of predominantly (greater than or equal to 50%) classic, subfoveal choroidal neovascularisation due to macular degeneration, where: (a) the patient has previously been granted an authority prescription for verteporfin for treatment of the same eye; and | |
|
| (b) the patient has previously received no more than 14 subsidised treatments with verteporfin in that eye, treatments administered under the MBS Visudyne Therapy Program and treatments administered under the PBS included; and (c) a course of treatment abandoned prior to completion of the laser activation step but after infusion of verteporfin is not regarded to be a subsidised treatment for the purposes of (b) above, provided that the Medicare Australia CEO has been notified and advised of the reason for the abandonment | |
Vigabatrin [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1426 | Treatment of epileptic seizures which are not controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs | |
Vildagliptin |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 3540 | Treatment of type 2 diabetes, in combination with either metformin or a sulfonylurea, in a patient in whom a combination of metformin and a sulfonylurea is contraindicated or not tolerated, and: | |
|
| (a) whose glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) prior to initiation of a dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor (gliptin), a thiazolidinedione (glitazone) or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is greater than 7%, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; or (b) as an alternative to HbA1c level measurement in the case of patients who have clinical conditions with reduced red blood cell survival (including haemolytic anaemias and haemoglobinopathies) and/or who have had red cell transfusion within the previous 3 months — where blood glucose monitoring over a 2 week period prior to initiation of a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 shows blood glucose levels greater than 10 mmol per L in more than 20% of tests, despite treatment with either metformin or a sulfonylurea; and where the qualifying HbA1c level and date of measurement, or the results of the blood glucose monitoring, whichever are applicable in the circumstances, are documented in the patient’s medical records at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated; and | |
|
| where the qualifying HbA1c level and the results of the blood glucose monitoring are no more than 4 months old at the time treatment with a gliptin, a glitazone or a glucagon-like peptide-1 is initiated | |
Vinblastine |
| — | |
Vincristine |
| — | |
Vinorelbine |
| In respect of the capsule 20 mg (as tartrate) and capsule 30 mg (as tartrate): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer | |
|
| In respect of the solution for I.V. infusion 10 mg (as tartrate) in 1 mL and solution for I.V. infusion 50 mg (as tartrate) in 5 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Advanced breast cancer after failure of prior therapy which includes an anthracycline | |
|
| Locally advanced or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer | |
Vitamins, minerals and trace elements with carbohydrate [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Infants and children whose vitamin and mineral intake is insufficient due to a specific diagnosis requiring a highly restrictive therapeutic diet, and whose vitamin, mineral and trace element needs cannot be adequately met with other proprietary vitamin and mineral preparations | |
Voriconazole [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of definite or probable invasive aspergillosis in immunocompromised patients | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of serious fungal infections caused by Scedosporium species or Fusarium species | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of serious Candida infections where the causative species is not susceptible to fluconazole | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of serious Candida infections where treatment with fluconazole has failed | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of serious Candida infections where treatment with fluconazole is not tolerated | |
|
| For the treatment and maintenance therapy of other serious invasive mycosis | |
Warfarin [NP] |
| — | |
Whey protein formula supplemented with amino acids, long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids, vitamins and minerals, and low in protein, phosphate, potassium and lactose [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Infants and young children with chronic renal failure requiring treatment with a low protein and a low phosphorus diet, or a low protein, a low phosphorus and a low potassium diet | |
Whey protein formula supplemented with amino acids, vitamins and minerals, and low in protein, phosphate, potassium and lactose [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Infants and young children with chronic renal failure requiring treatment with a low protein and a low phosphorus diet, or a low protein, a low phosphorus and a low potassium diet | |
Ziprasidone [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
| 1589 | Schizophrenia | |
| 3084 | Monotherapy, for up to 6 months, of an episode of acute mania or mixed episodes associated with bipolar I disorder | |
Zoledronic acid |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis in a patient currently on long-term (at least 3 months), high-dose (at least 7.5 mg per day prednisolone or equivalent) corticosteroid therapy with a bone mineral density T-score of -1.5 or less, and where the duration and dose of corticosteroid therapy, and the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement, are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, and where PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to 3 doses per patient in their lifetime, administered as 1 dose each year for 3 years | |
|
| Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for osteoporosis in a patient aged 70 years of age or older with a bone mineral density T-score of -3.0 or less, where the date, site (femoral neck or lumbar spine) and score of the qualifying bone mineral density measurement are documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, and where PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to 3 doses per patient in their lifetime, administered as 1 dose each year for 3 years | |
|
| Treatment as the sole PBS-subsidised anti-resorptive agent for established osteoporosis in a patient with fracture due to minimal trauma, where the fracture has been demonstrated radiologically and the year of plain x-ray or computed tomography scan or magnetic resonance imaging scan is documented in the patient’s medical records when treatment is initiated, provided that if the fracture is a vertebral fracture, there is a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of the affected vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or, a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body, and where PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to 3 doses per patient in their lifetime, administered as 1 dose each year for 3 years | |
|
| Symptomatic Paget disease of bone, and where PBS-subsidised treatment is limited to 1 dose each year | |
Zolmitriptan [NP] |
| In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where adverse events have occurred with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where drug interactions have occurred with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where drug interactions are expected to occur with other suitable PBS-listed drugs | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where transfer to another suitable PBS-listed drug would cause patient confusion resulting in problems with compliance | |
|
| Migraine attack in a patient where attacks in the past have usually failed to respond to analgesics, and where transfer to another suitable PBS-listed drug is likely to result in adverse clinical consequences | |
Zuclopenthixol Decanoate [NP] |
| — | |
SCHEDULE 1A – READY-PREPARED PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS WHEN PRESCRIBED BY A MEDICAL PRACTITIONER FOR PATIENTS RECEIVING PALLIATIVE CARE | |
Column 1 Listed Drug | Column 2 Circumstances (if any) specified for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act |
Benzydamine [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where a painful mouth is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Bisacodyl [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Carmellose [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Clonazepam [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients for the prevention of epilepsy, where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Diazepam [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Diclofenac [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Fentanyl [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Initial supply for dose titration for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects |
| First continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects |
| Second and subsequent continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects, where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
| Second and subsequent continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for breakthrough pain in palliative care patients with cancer who are receiving opioids for their persistent pain and where further escalation in the dose of morphine for breakthrough pain results in intolerable adverse effects |
Glycerol [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Hyoscine [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where colicky pain is a symptom, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Hypromellose [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where dry mouth is a symptom, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Ibuprofen [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Indomethacin [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Lactulose [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Macrogol 3350 [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Methadone [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Methylnaltrexone [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Initial supply, in combination with oral laxatives, for a palliative care patient with opioid-induced constipation who has failed to respond to laxatives |
| First continuing supply, in combination with oral laxatives, for a palliative care patient with opioid-induced constipation who has demonstrated a response to methylnaltrexone |
| Second and subsequent continuing supply, in combination with oral laxatives, for a palliative care patient with opioid-induced constipation who has demonstrated a response to methylnaltrexone, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
| Continuing supply, in combination with oral laxatives, for a palliative care patient with opioid-induced constipation who has demonstrated a response to methylnaltrexone |
Morphine [NP] | In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg and tablet containing morphine sulfate 20 mg: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 200 mg (controlled release): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply, for up to 1 month, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Initial supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| Continuing supply, for up to 3 months, for palliative care patients with chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Naproxen [NP] | In respect of the tablet containing naproxen sodium 550 mg, tablet 250 mg, tablet 500 mg, tablet 750 mg (sustained release) and tablet 1 g (sustained release): In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
| In respect of the oral suspension 125 mg per 5 mL, 474 mL: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem in patients unable to take a solid dose form of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Nitrazepam [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Oxazepam [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where anxiety is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Paracetamol [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients for analgesia or fever where alternative therapy cannot be tolerated, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Promethazine [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where nausea and/or vomiting is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
| |
| |
Sterculia with Frangula Bark [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where constipation is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Sulindac [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where severe pain is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
Temazepam [NP] | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem |
| Initial supply, for up to 4 months, for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem |
| Continuing supply for palliative care patients where insomnia is a problem, and where consultation with a palliative care specialist or service has occurred |
SCHEDULE 2 – READY-PREPARED PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS WHEN PRESCRIBED BY A PARTICIPATING DENTAL PRACTITIONER | |
Column 1 Listed Drug | Column 2 Circumstances (if any) specified for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act |
Adrenaline | — |
Amoxycillin | — |
Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid | Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is suspected Infections where resistance to amoxycillin trihydrate is proven |
Amphotericin | — |
Ampicillin | — |
Aspirin | — |
Atropine | — |
Benzathine benzylpenicillin | — |
Benztropine | — |
Benzydamine | Radiation induced mucositis |
Benzylpenicillin | — |
Betamethasone | For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration |
| Keloid |
| Lichen planus hypertrophic |
Carbamazepine | — |
Cefaclor | — |
Cefalotin | — |
Cefotaxime | Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent |
Cefuroxime | — |
Cephalexin | — |
Chloramphenicol | — |
Clindamycin | Gram-positive coccal infections where these cannot be safely and effectively treated with a penicillin |
Codeine | — |
Codeine with Paracetamol | — |
Diazepam | — |
Diclofenac | In respect of the tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 25 mg and tablet (enteric coated) containing diclofenac sodium 50 mg: Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
| Bone pain due to malignant disease |
| In respect of the suppository containing diclofenac sodium 100 mg: — |
Dicloxacillin | Serious staphylococcal infections |
Doxycycline | — |
Erythromycin | — |
Flucloxacillin | In respect of the capsule 250 mg (as sodium), capsule 500 mg (as sodium), powder for oral liquid 125 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL and powder for oral liquid 250 mg (as sodium) per 5 mL, 100 mL: Serious staphylococcal infections |
| In respect of the powder for injection 500 mg (as sodium) and powder for injection 1 g (as sodium): — |
Glucagon | — |
Glucose | — |
Glyceryl Trinitrate | — |
Hydrocortisone | In respect of the injection 100 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent and injection 250 mg (as sodium succinate) with 2 mL solvent: For use in a hospital |
| In respect of the cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g, cream containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g, ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 30 g and ointment containing hydrocortisone acetate 10 mg per g, 50 g: Treatment of corticosteroid-responsive dermatoses |
Hydromorphone | In respect of the tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg and oral liquid containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 1 mg per mL, 473 mL: Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| In respect of the tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 4 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 8 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 16 mg, tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 32 mg and tablet (modified release) containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 64 mg: Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| In respect of the injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 2 mg in 1 mL, injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 10 mg in 1 mL and injection containing hydromorphone hydrochloride 50 mg in 5 mL: — |
Ibuprofen | — |
Indomethacin | In respect of the capsule 25 mg: Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
| Bone pain due to malignant disease |
| In respect of the suppository 100 mg: — |
Ketoprofen | In respect of the capsule 200 mg (sustained release): Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
| In respect of the suppository 100 mg: — |
Lignocaine | — |
Lincomycin | — |
Methylprednisolone | For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration |
Metoclopramide | — |
Metronidazole | In respect of the tablet 200 mg, tablet 400 mg, oral suspension containing metronidazole benzoate 320 mg per 5 mL, 100 mL and suppositories 500 mg, 10: — |
| In respect of the I.V. infusion 500 mg in 100 mL: Treatment, in a hospital, of acute anaerobic sepsis |
Morphine | In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 2 mg per mL, 200 mL, oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 5 mg per mL, 200 mL and oral solution containing morphine hydrochloride 10 mg per mL, 200 mL: Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| In respect of the tablet containing morphine sulfate 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), tablet containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 10 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 20 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 30 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 50 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 60 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 90 mg (controlled release), capsule containing morphine sulfate 100 mg (containing sustained release pellets), capsule containing morphine sulfate 120 mg (controlled release), sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 20 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 30 mg per sachet, sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 60 mg per sachet and sachet containing controlled release granules for oral suspension, containing morphine sulfate 100 mg per sachet: Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| In respect of the injection containing morphine sulfate 10 mg in 1 mL, injection containing morphine sulfate 15 mg in 1 mL and injection containing morphine sulfate 30 mg in 1 mL: — |
Naloxone | — |
Naproxen | Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
| Bone pain due to malignant disease |
Nitrazepam | — |
Nystatin | — |
Oxazepam | — |
Oxycodone | In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg, capsule containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg, oral solution containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg per 5 mL, 250 mL and suppository 30 mg (as pectinate): Severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
| In respect of the tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 5 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 10 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 15 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 20 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 30 mg (controlled release), tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 40 mg (controlled release) and tablet containing oxycodone hydrochloride 80 mg (controlled release): Chronic severe disabling pain not responding to non-narcotic analgesics |
Paracetamol | — |
Phenoxymethylpenicillin | — |
Piroxicam | Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
Procaine Penicillin | — |
Prochlorperazine | — |
Promethazine | — |
Roxithromycin | — |
Sodium Chloride | — |
Sodium Chloride with Glucose | — |
Sulindac | Chronic arthropathies (including osteoarthritis) with an inflammatory component |
| Bone pain due to malignant disease |
Temazepam | — |
Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid | Infections where positive bacteriological evidence confirms that this antibiotic is an appropriate therapeutic agent |
Tramadol | In respect of the capsule containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg: For acute pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed |
| For dosage titration in chronic pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed |
| In respect of the tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 50 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 150 mg, tablet (sustained release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 200 mg, tablet (extended release) containing tramadol hydrochloride 300 mg and oral drops containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg per mL, 10 mL: For pain where aspirin or paracetamol alone is inappropriate or has failed |
| In respect of the injection containing tramadol hydrochloride 100 mg in 2 mL: Short-term treatment of acute pain |
Triamcinolone | For local intra-articular or peri-articular infiltration |
| Keloid |
| Lichen planus hypertrophic |
Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole | — |
Vancomycin | Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients hypersensitive to penicillin |
SCHEDULE 2A – READY-PREPARED PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS WHEN PRESCRIBED BY AN AUTHORISED OPTOMETRIST | |
Column 1 Listed Drug | Column 2 Circumstances (if any) specified for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act |
Aciclovir | Herpes simplex keratitis |
Betaxolol | — |
Bimatoprost | — |
Bimatoprost with timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
Brimonidine | — |
Brimonidine with Timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
Brinzolamide | — |
Brinzolamide with timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
Carbomer | In respect of the eye gel 2 mg per g, 10 g: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye gel 2 mg per g, single dose units 0.6 mL, 30: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Carbomer 974 | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Carmellose | In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, 15 mL and eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 2.5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 24, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30, eye drops containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30 and ocular lubricating gel containing carmellose sodium 10 mg per mL, single dose units 0.6 mL, 28: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Carmellose with glycerin | In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg with glycerin 9 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye drops containing carmellose sodium 5 mg with glycerin 9 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 30: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Chloramphenicol | — |
Cromoglycic Acid | Vernal kerato-conjunctivitis |
Dorzolamide | — |
Dorzolamide with Timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
Fluorometholone | — |
Flurbiprofen | — |
Framycetin | — |
Hydrocortisone | — |
Hypromellose | Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
Hypromellose with Carbomer 980 | Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
Hypromellose with Dextran | In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 4500 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye drops containing 3 mg hypromellose 2900 with 1 mg dextran 70 per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 28: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Latanoprost | — |
Latanoprost with Timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
Paraffin | — |
Pilocarpine | — |
Polyethylene glycol 400 | In respect of the eye drops 2.5 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye drops 2.5 mg per mL, single dose units 0.4 mL, 20: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol | In respect of the eye drops 4 mg-3 mg per mL, 15 mL: Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
| In respect of the eye drops 4 mg-3 mg per mL, single dose units 0.8 mL, 28: In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Polyvinyl Alcohol | Severe dry eye syndrome, including Sjogren’s syndrome |
Soy lecithin | In compliance with authority procedures set out in subparagraph 14 (d): |
| Severe dry eye syndrome in patients who are sensitive to preservatives in multi-dose eye drops |
Sulfacetamide | — |
Timolol | — |
Travoprost | — |
Travoprost with Timolol | Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with open-angle glaucoma that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
| Reduction of elevated intra-ocular pressure in a patient with ocular hypertension that is not adequately controlled with monotherapy |
SCHEDULE 3 – ALLOWABLE COMPOUNDS OF READY-PREPARED DRUGS OR MEDICINAL PREPARATIONS | |
Column 1 Listed Drug | Column 2 Allowable compounds |
Abacavir | Abacavir with Lamivudine Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine |
Alendronic Acid | Alendronic Acid with Colecalciferol |
Alginic Acid | Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate |
Aluminium Hydroxide | Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide |
Amiloride | Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride |
Amlodipine | Amlodipine with Atorvastatin Amlodipine with Valsartan Amlodipine with Valsartan and Hydrochlorothiazide Olmesartan with Amlodipine Perindopril with Amlodipine |
Amoxycillin | Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid and Water – Purified BP Amoxycillin with Water – Purified BP |
Artemether | Artemether with Lumefantrine |
Aspirin | Clopidogrel with Aspirin Dipyridamole with Aspirin |
Atorvastatin | Amlodipine with Atorvastatin |
Atovaquone | Atovaquone with Proguanil |
Atropine | Diphenoxylate with Atropine |
Azithromycin | Azithromycin with Water – Purified BP |
Bacitracin | Neomycin with Bacitracin |
Benserazide | Levodopa with Benserazide |
Betamethasone | Calcipotriol with Betamethasone |
Bimatoprost | Bimatoprost with Timolol |
Brimonidine | Brimonidine with Timolol |
Brinzolamide | Brinzolamide with Timolol |
Budesonide | Budesonide with Eformoterol |
Buprenorphine | Buprenorphine with Naloxone |
Calcipotriol | Calcipotriol with Betamethasone |
Calcium | Calcium with Colecalciferol |
Calcium Carbonate | Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate |
Candesartan | Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Carbidopa | Levodopa with Carbidopa Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone |
Carbomer 980 | Hypromellose with Carbomer 980 |
Carmellose | Carmellose with Glycerin |
Cefaclor | Cefaclor with Water – Purified BP |
Cephalexin | Cephalexin with Water – Purified BP |
Clarithromycin | Clarithromycin with Water – Purified BP |
Clavulanic Acid | Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid and Water – Purified BP Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid |
Clopidogrel | Clopidogrel with Aspirin |
Codeine | Codeine with Paracetamol |
Colecalciferol | Alendronic Acid with Colecalciferol Calcium with Colecalciferol |
Dexamethasone | Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin |
Dextran | Hypromellose with Dextran |
Diphenoxylate | Diphenoxylate with Atropine |
Dipyridamole | Dipyridamole with Aspirin |
Dorzolamide | Dorzolamide with Timolol |
Dydrogesterone | Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone |
Efavirenz | Tenofovir with Emtricitabine and Efavirenz |
Eformoterol | Budesonide with Eformoterol |
Emtricitabine | Tenofovir with Emtricitabine Tenofovir with Emtricitabine and Efavirenz |
Enalapril | Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide Lercanidipine with Enalapril |
Entacapone | Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone |
Eprosartan | Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Erythromycin | Erythromycin with Water – Purified BP |
Ethinyloestradiol | Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol |
Ezetimibe | Ezetimibe with Simvastatin |
Felodipine | Ramipril with Felodipine |
Ferrous Fumarate | Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid |
Flucloxacillin | Flucloxacillin with Water – Purified BP |
Fluticasone | Fluticasone with Salmeterol |
Folic Acid | Ferrous Fumarate with Folic Acid |
Fosinopril | Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Framycetin | Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin |
Frangula Bark | Sterculia with Frangula Bark |
Glibenclamide | Metformin with Glibenclamide |
Glucose | Sodium Chloride with Glucose |
Glycerin | Carmellose with Glycerin |
Gramicidin | Dexamethasone with Framycetin and Gramicidin Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin |
Hydrochlorothiazide | Amlodipine with Valsartan and Hydrochlorothiazide Candesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide Enalapril with Hydrochlorothiazide Eprosartan with Hydrochlorothiazide Fosinopril with Hydrochlorothiazide Hydrochlorothiazide with Amiloride Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide Valsartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Hypromellose | Hypromellose with Carbomer 980 Hypromellose with Dextran |
Indapamide | Perindopril with Indapamide |
Insulin Aspart | Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension |
Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension | Insulin Aspart with Insulin Aspart Protamine Suspension |
Insulin Isophane | Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane |
Insulin Lispro | Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension |
Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension | Insulin Lispro with Insulin Lispro Protamine Suspension |
Insulin Neutral | Insulin Neutral with Insulin Isophane |
Irbesartan | Irbesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Lamivudine | Abacavir with Lamivudine Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine Lamivudine with Zidovudine |
Latanoprost | Latanoprost with Timolol |
Lercanidipine | Lercanidipine with Enalapril |
Levodopa | Levodopa with Benserazide Levodopa with Carbidopa Levodopa with Carbidopa and Entacapone |
Levonorgestrel | Levonorgestrel with Ethinyloestradiol |
Lopinavir | Lopinavir with Ritonavir |
Lumefantrine | Artemether with Lumefantrine |
Magnesium Hydroxide | Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Hydroxide Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide |
Magnesium Trisilicate | Aluminium Hydroxide with Magnesium Trisilicate and Magnesium Hydroxide |
Mestranol | Norethisterone with Mestranol |
Metformin | Metformin with Glibenclamide Rosiglitazone with Metformin Sitagliptin with Metformin |
Mycophenolic Acid | Mycophenolic Acid with Water – Purified BP |
Naloxone | Buprenorphine with Naloxone |
Neomycin | Neomycin with Bacitracin Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin |
Norethisterone | Norethisterone with Ethinyloestradiol Norethisterone with Mestranol Oestradiol with Norethisterone |
Nystatin | Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin |
Oestradiol | Oestradiol with Dydrogesterone Oestradiol with Norethisterone |
Olmesartan | Olmesartan with Amlodipine Olmesartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Paracetamol | Codeine with Paracetamol |
Perindopril | Perindopril with Amlodipine Perindopril with Indapamide |
Phenylephrine | Prednisolone with Phenylephrine |
Polyethylene Glycol 400 | Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol |
Potassium Bicarbonate | Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate |
Potassium Chloride | Potassium Chloride with Potassium Bicarbonate |
Prednisolone | Prednisolone with Phenylephrine |
Proguanil | Atovaquone with Proguanil |
Propylene Glycol | Polyethylene Glycol 400 with Propylene Glycol |
Quinapril | Quinapril with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Ramipril | Ramipril with Felodipine |
Ritonavir | Lopinavir with Ritonavir |
Rosiglitazone | Rosiglitazone with Metformin |
Salmeterol | Fluticasone with Salmeterol |
Simvastatin | Ezetimibe with Simvastatin |
Sitagliptin | Sitagliptin with Metformin |
Sodium Bicarbonate | Alginic Acid with Calcium Carbonate and Sodium Bicarbonate |
Sodium Chloride | Sodium Chloride with Glucose |
Sodium Citrate | Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate |
Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate | Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate |
Sorbitol | Sorbitol with Sodium Citrate and Sodium Lauryl Sulfoacetate |
Sterculia | Sterculia with Frangula Bark |
Sulfamethoxazole | Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole |
Telmisartan | Telmisartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Tenofovir | Tenofovir with Emtricitabine Tenofovir with Emtricitabine and Efavirenz |
Ticarcillin | Ticarcillin with Clavulanic Acid |
Timolol | Bimatoprost with Timolol Brimonidine with Timolol Brinzolamide with Timolol Dorzolamide with Timolol Latanoprost with Timolol Travoprost with Timolol |
Trandolapril | Trandolapril with Verapamil |
Travoprost | Travoprost with Timolol |
Triamcinolone | Triamcinolone with Neomycin, Gramicidin and Nystatin |
Triamterene | Hydrochlorothiazide with Triamterene |
Trimethoprim | Trimethoprim with Sulfamethoxazole |
Valsartan | Amlodipine with Valsartan Amlodipine with Valsartan and Hydrochlorothiazide Valsartan with Hydrochlorothiazide |
Verapamil | Trandolapril with Verapamil |
Voriconazole | Voriconazole with Water – Purified BP |
Water – Purified BP | Amoxycillin with Clavulanic Acid with Water – Purified BP Amoxycillin with Water – Purified BP Azithromycin with Water – Purified BP Cefaclor with Water – Purified BP Cephalexin with Water – Purified BP Clarithromycin with Water – Purified BP Erythromycin with Water – Purified BP Flucloxacillin with Water – Purified BP Mycophenolic Acid with Water – Purified BP Voriconazole with Water – Purified BP |
Zidovudine | Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine Lamivudine with Zidovudine |
SCHEDULE 4 – DRUGS OR MEDICINAL PREPARATIONS THAT MAY BE USED AS INGREDIENTS OF EXTEMPORANEOUSLY-PREPARED PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS | |
Column 1 Name of pharmaceutical benefit | Column 2 Circumstances (if any) specified for the purposes of section 85(2A)(b) of the Act |
Acacia BP, powdered | — |
Acetic Acid (33 per cent) BP | — |
Alum BP | — |
Aluminium Acetate Solution BP | — |
Aqueous Cream APF | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Ascorbic Acid BP | For use only as an ingredient of ferrous sulfate mixtures |
Aspirin BP | — |
Belladonna Tincture BP | — |
Benzocaine BP | — |
Benzoic Acid BP | — |
Benzoin Tincture Compound BP | — |
Boric Acid, Olive Oil and Zinc Oxide Ointment QHF | — |
Calcium Hydroxide BP | — |
Cetomacrogol Cream, Aqueous APF | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Cetrimide Cream, Aqueous APF | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Chlorhexidine Cream, Aqueous APF | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Citric Acid Monohydrate BP | — |
Coal Tar BP | — |
Coal Tar Solution BP | — |
Cocaine Hydrochloride BP | — |
Coconut Oil BP | — |
Codeine Phosphate BP | May only be prescribed in linctuses, mixtures and mixtures for children |
Collodion Flexible BP | — |
Dithranol BP | — |
Emulsifying Ointment BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Ephedrine Hydrochloride BP | May only be prescribed in nasal instillations |
Ferrous Sulfate BP | — |
Formaldehyde Solution BP | — |
Gentian Alkaline Mixture APF | — |
Glycerol BP | — |
Iodine BP | — |
Kaolin Mixture BPC 1968 | — |
Kaolin and Opium Mixture APF 14 | — |
Lactic Acid BP | — |
Lavender Oil, Spike BPC 1968 | — |
Levomenthol BP | — |
Liquorice Liquid Extract BP | — |
Magnesium Carbonate, Light BP | — |
Magnesium Sulfate BP | May only be prescribed for other than oral use |
Magnesium Trisilicate BP | — |
Menthol, Racemic BP | — |
Methyl Hydroxybenzoate BP | — |
Paraffin, Hard BP | — |
Paraffin, Light Liquid BP | — |
Paraffin, Liquid BP | May only be prescribed for other than oral use |
Paraffin, Soft White BP | — |
Paraffin, Soft Yellow BP | — |
Phenobarbitone Sodium BP | May only be prescribed for the treatment of epilepsy |
Phenol, Liquefied BP | Not available for ear drops |
Podophyllum Resin BP | — |
Potassium Citrate BP | — |
Potassium Iodide BP | — |
Potassium Permanganate BP | — |
Propyl Hydroxybenzoate BP | — |
Propylene Glycol BP | — |
Red Syrup APF 15 | — |
Resorcinol BP | — |
Salicylic Acid BP | — |
Simple Ointment (white) BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Simple Ointment (yellow) BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Sodium Bicarbonate BP | — |
Sodium Chloride BP | — |
Sodium Citrate BP | — |
Starches BP | — |
Sulfur, Precipitated BP 1980 | — |
Syrup BP | — |
Talc, Purified BP, sterilised | — |
Thymol BP | — |
Thymol Mouth Wash, Compound APF 15 | — |
Tragacanth BP, powdered | — |
Tragacanth Powder, Compound BP 1980 | — |
Trichloroacetic Acid BP 1980 | — |
Triethanolamine BP | — |
Water For Injections, sterilised BP | May only be prescribed in eye drops and eye lotions |
Water, Purified BP | — |
Wool Alcohols Ointment (white) BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Wool Alcohols Ointment (yellow) BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Wool Fat BP | — |
Wool Fat, Hydrous BP | — |
Zinc Cream BP | For use only as a base combined with active ingredients |
Zinc Oxide BP | — |
Zinc Sulfate BP | — |
SCHEDULE 5 – ADDITIVES |
Acetone BP |
Anise Water, Concentrated BP |
Boric Acid BP |
Castor Oil BP |
Chlorhexidine Acetate BP |
Chloroform BP |
Ethanol (96 per cent) BP |
Ethanols, Dilute BP |
Ether, Solvent BP |
Eucalyptus Oil BP |
Honey, Purified BP 1993 |
Industrial Methylated Spirit BP |
Olive Oil BP |
Peppermint Oil BP |
Peppermint Water, Concentrated APF |
Sodium Thiosulfate BP |
SCHEDULE 6 – ADDITIONAL PHARMACEUTICAL BENEFITS MADE AVAILABLE UNDER ARRANGEMENTS PROVIDED FOR BY SECTION 100 OF THE ACT |
Abacavir |
Abacavir with Lamivudine |
Abacavir with Lamivudine and Zidovudine |
Abatacept |
Adefovir |
Ambrisentan |
Apomorphine |
Atazanavir |
Bosentan |
Botulinum Toxin Type A Purified Neurotoxin Complex |
Buprenorphine with Naloxone |
Choriogonadotropin alfa |
Cidofovir |
Clostridium Botulinum Type A Toxin—Haemagglutinin Complex |
Clozapine |
Darbepoetin Alfa |
Darunavir |
Deferasirox |
Deferiprone |
Desferrioxamine |
Didanosine |
Dornase Alfa |
Efavirenz |
Emtricitabine |
Enfuvirtide |
Entecavir |
Epoetin Alfa |
Epoetin Beta |
Epoprostenol |
Etravirine |
Filgrastim |
Fosamprenavir |
Foscarnet |
Ganciclovir |
Ganirelix |
Iloprost |
Indinavir |
Infliximab |
Interferon Gamma-1b |
Lamivudine |
Lamivudine with Zidovudine |
Lanreotide |
Lenalidomide |
Lenograstim |
Lopinavir with Ritonavir |
Maraviroc |
Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta |
Natalizumab |
Nevirapine |
Octreotide |
Pegfilgrastim |
Peginterferon Alfa-2a |
Peginterferon Alfa-2b |
Progesterone |
Raltegravir |
Ribavirin and Peginterferon Alfa-2a |
Ribavirin and Peginterferon Alfa-2b |
Rifabutin |
Ritonavir |
Saquinavir |
Sildenafil |
Sitaxentan |
Somatropin |
Stavudine |
Telbivudine |
Tenofovir |
Tenofovir with Emtricitabine |
Tenofovir with emtricitabine and efavirenz |
Thalidomide |
Tipranavir |
Tocilizumab |
Trastuzumab |
Valganciclovir |
Zidovudine |
Notes to the Declaration and Determination — Drugs and medicinal preparations (PB 14 of 2010)
Note 1
The Declaration and Determination — Drugs and medicinal preparations (PB 14 of 2010) (in force under subsections 85(2), 85(2AA) and 85(2A) of the National Health Act 1953) as shown in this compilation is amended as indicated in the Tables below.
Table of Instruments
Title | Date of FRLI Registration | Date of | Application, saving or | ||||
PB 14 of 2010 | 17 Mar 2010 (see F2010L00659) | 1 Apr 2010 |
| ||||
PB 29 of 2010 | 30 Mar 2010 (see F2010L00772) | 31 Mar 2010 | — | ||||
PB 34 of 2010 | 15 Apr 2010 (see F2010L00919) | 1 May 2010 | — | ||||
PB 44 of 2010 | 21 May 2010 (see F2010L01373 | 1 June 2010 | — | ||||
PB 54 of 2010 | 21 June 2010 (see F2010L01623) | 1 July 2010 | — | ||||
PB 67 of 2010 | 20 July 2010 (see F2010L02059) | 1 Aug 2010 | — | ||||
PB 87 of 2010 | 24 Sept 2010 (see F2010L02529) | 1 Oct 2010 | — | ||||
PB 91 of 2010 | 9 Sept 2010 (see F2010L02438) | 1 Aug 2010 | — | ||||
PB 95 of 2010 | 29 Oct 2010 (see F2010L02854) | 1 Nov 2010 | — | ||||
Table of Amendments
ad. = added or inserted am. = amended rep. = repealed rs. = repealed and substituted | |||
Provision affected | How affected | ||
S. 3..................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 4..................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 4AA................... | ad. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 4AB................... | ad. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 4AC................... | ad. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 4AD................... | ad. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 14.................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 14A................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 15.................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 15A................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 15B................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
S. 15C................... | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 1 |
| ||
Schedule 1............... | am. PB 29, 34, 44, 54, 67, 87 and 95 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 1A |
| ||
Schedule 1A.............. | am. PB 95 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 2 |
| ||
Schedule 2................ | am. PB 54 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 2A |
| ||
Schedule 2A............... | am. PB 34, 54 and 67 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 3 |
| ||
Schedule 3................ | am. PB 44, 67 and 95 of 2010 | ||
Schedule 6 |
| ||
Schedule 6................ | am. PB 67 and 91 of 2010 | ||